Unit Questions Flashcards
What is the maximum time interval permitted by the vehicle identification link (VIL) in which to make a pump selection? A. 399 seconds B. 699 seconds C. 999 seconds D. 1,299 seconds
C. 999 seconds
What does a flashing red and green light signal from the air traffic control tower mean to a moving vehicle on the flight line? A. General warning, use extreme caution B. Return to starting point C. Safe to cross D. Stop
A. General warning, use extreme caution
What component on the Type 4 hydrant system shuts down the fueling pumps when water and sediment are detected in the fuel? A. filter separator B. fuel discharge valve C. nonsurge check valve D. contamination monitor
D. contamination monitor
What Type 3 system component signals the microprocessor to turn on the lead pump when the system pressure drops below 60 pounds per square inch (psi)? A. flow indicating transmitter B. loop indicating transmitter C. pressure indicating transmitter D. differential pressure transmitter
C. pressure indicating transmitter
At a minimum, fuel servicing equipment used for concurrent servicing should be pressurized and checked for serviceability once every how many hours? A. 8 B. 12 C. 24 D. 48
C. 24
Unit type codes have how many alphanumeric characters designating a manpower, equipment, or both manpower and equipment force that is tasked with completing a specific mission? A. Six B. Five C. Four D. Three
B. Five
When servicing an Air Force aircraft that does not have an identaplate, obtain the necessary billing information from the aircraft’s…
A. Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781F, Aerospace Vehicle Identification Document
B. tail number and mission number
C. DD Form 1898, Every Sale Slip
D. station plate
A. Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781F, Aerospace Vehicle Identification Document
Along with the unit training manager, which fuels section coordinates upgrade training programs and requirements for fuels personnel? A. Fuels information service center B. Fuels management team C. Fuels training D. Fuels mobility
C. Fuels training
How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before inserting any object, even to determine the level of the fuel? A. 15 B. 20 C. 30 D. 35
C. 30
Within how many feet of an aircraft fuel vent outlet can only approved intrinsically safe commercial mobile devices be operated? A. 10 B. 25 C. 50 D. 75
A. 10
What handheld device is used to shut off fuel flow if the operator becomes incapacitated? A. hydrant control valve B. Fuel flow shutoff valve C. deadman control valve D. emergency shutoff button
C. deadman control valve
Which action should you initiate first if a fire or fuel leak occurs during hot refueling operation? A. stop fuel flow B. stop the aircraft engines C. notify the fire department D. disconnect the fuel nozzle
A. stop fuel flow
How is fuel used at the automotive fuel storage and dispensing system normally received? A. pipeline B. tank car C. tank truck D. tanker/barge
C. tank truck
Which is not a hazard of liquid nitrogen?
A. Reduces the concentration of oxygen
B. Freezes or badly damages human tissue upon contact
C. Burns or explodes upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel
D. Build up to tremendous pressure if it evaporates in a confined area
C. Burns or explodes upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel
To concurrently service cargo/passenger aircraft, which action must the single point receptacle (SPR) monitor take before connecting the nozzle to the aircraft?
A. inspect the locking pins/lugs and seal for serviceability visually
B. check the strainer coupling quick disconnect device
C. set the applicable tank refuel switches to open
D. preform the fuel preflow check
A. inspect the locking pins/lugs and seal for serviceability visually
The power takeoff (PTO) interlock system on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler prevents the
A. unfiltered fuel from being dispensed to an aircraft
B. fuel from passing through the pump when the engine is idling
C. auxiliary throttle from operating when the PTO is in the vehicle drive position
D. auxiliary throttle from operating when the PTO is in the vehicle pump position
C. auxiliary throttle from operating when the PTO is in the vehicle drive position
What AF Form is used to document liquid oxygen (LOX) and liquid nitrogen (LIN) inventories? A. 1231 B. 1233 C. 1235 D. 1237
C. 1235
After you obtain a sample with an in line sampler, how many seconds should elapse before disassembling the sampler? A. 30 B. 60 C. 90 D. 120
B. 60
At what pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) is the R 12's defuel pump capable of delivering fuel to the Type 3 hydrant system? A. 125 psi B. 135 psi C. 165 psi D. 185 psi
C. 165 psi
During receipt operations, how far in front and to the rear of a tank truck should danger signs be placed when offloading in an unsecure area?
A. 50 feet to the front, 100 feet to the rear
B. 25 feet to the front, 50 feet to the rear
C. 50 feet to the front and rear
D. 25 feet to the front and rear
C. 50 feet to the front and rear
What form serves as a record for all issues and returns to bulk?
A. Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) Form 1233
B. Air Force (AF) Form 1235
C. DESC Form 1235
D. AF Form 1233
A. Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) Form 1233
All items must be contained in each servicing clipboard except…
A. Standard Form (SF) 91, Motor Vehicle Accident Report
B. Department of Defense (DD) Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip
C. Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 422, Differential Pressure Log
D. Air Force (AF) Form 4427, Operator’s Inspection Guide and Trouble Report
A. Standard Form (SF) 91, Motor Vehicle Accident Report
Who should be notified when a caution tag has been removed from a vehicle or equipment?
A. Fuels service center
B. Fuels management team
C. Fuels information service center superintendent
D. Fuels environmental safety office
A. Fuels service center
Who must be notified for product disposition if excessive contamination is detect in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts?
A. appropriate quality assurance representative (QAR)
B. company who shipped the product
C. base fuels laboratory personnel
D. area laboratory personnel
A. appropriate quality assurance representative (QAR)
Who appoints a primary and alternate fuels responsible officer to oversee the care and safegaurding of petroleum stocks and accountable records?
A. Fuels management team
B. Fuels information service center
C. Defense logistics agency energy
D. Logistics readiness squadron commander
D. Logistics readiness squadron commander
Which condition will cause the vibrating horn to sound on the Type 3 hydrant system?
A. engine generator fault
B. four refueling pump running at the same time
C. manual valve closed on the product recovery tank
D. hydrant servicing vehicle flow control valve inoperative
A. engine generator fault
What vehicles must e processed through the checkpoint for daily inspections?
A. Mobile refueling units
B. General purpose vehicles
C. All vehicles assigned to the fuels management flight
D. Only vehicles needed to support daily mission requirements
D. Only vehicles needed to support daily mission requirements
To use engine braking in the Kovatch-Series R-11s, what gear selector position can you use?
A. Reverses
B. Neutral
C. Drive
D. Three
D. Three
When conduction a field analysis for solids using the color and particle assessment method, what device is used to remove residual fuel from a single filter monitor? A. metal syringe B. vacuum flask C. roto vap flask D. industrial syringe
A. metal syringe
When performing a flashpoint analysis, ensure the sample and the test cup temperature is…
A. at room temperature
B. between 60 and 75 degrees Fahrenheit
C. between 60 and 75 degrees Celsius
D. at least 32 degrees Fahrenheit below the expected flashpoint
D. at least 32 degrees Fahrenheit below the expected flashpoint
The fuels preventative maintenance supervisor is responsible to which individual for the technical supervision of operators' equipment inspection and maintenance? A. Fuels manager B. Fuels distribution supervisor C. Fuels management flight chief D. Fuels operations superintendent
B. Fuels distribution supervisor
What symbol on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to represent an unsatisfactory condition exists, but it is not sufficiently dangerous enough to warrant not using the equipment? A. red x B. red dash C. red circle D. red diagonal
D. red diagonal
How quickly will the emergency shutoff valve close after a power failure, or the emergency stop button is pushed? A. 4 seconds B. 6 seconds C. 8 seconds D. 10 seconds
D. 10 seconds
When receiving fuel at the military service station, what information is not required on the Department of Defense (DD) Form 250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report? A. delivery schedule B. seal numbers C. fuel grade D. quantity
A. delivery schedule
Which type of Air Force publication includes instructions and manuals? A. Standard B. Technical C. Recurring D. Specialized
A. Standard
Which radio transmission 10 code means request fire truck at location? A. 10/18 B. 10/19 C. 10/87 D. 10/97
A. 10/18
The air within the air purge unit is heated to... A. 250 degrees Fahrenheit B. 300 degrees Fahrenheit C. 350 degrees Fahrenheit D. 400 degrees Fahrenheit
C. 350 degrees Fahrenheit
When performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis, the fuel/water mixture in the separtory funnel should be shaken for... A. one minute B. three minutes C. five minutes D. seven minutes
C. five minutes
What company was the first to design and install the Type 3 hydrant system? A. Phillips Petroleum Company B. Panero Petroleum Systems C. Pritchard Petroleum Company D. Palacios Petroleum Systems
A. Phillips Petroleum Company
When flushing Type 3, 4, and 5 hydrant systems, a visual sample should be drawn on the return loop at the…
A. beginning of flushing operations
B. midpoint of flushing operations
C. completion of flushing operations
D. beginning, midpoint, and completion of flushing operations
B. midpoint of flushing operations
As a minimum how often should cryotainer pressure gauges be calibrated? A. monthly B. quarterly C. semiannually D. annually
D. annually
The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) Energy Form 702 is prepared to cover a 24 hour duty day that runs from... A. 2400 to 2400 B. 0600 to 0600 C. 0800 to 0800 D. 0900 to 0900
A. 2400 to 2400
Unlike most other fueling operations, cryogenic production does not stop when electrical storms are within... A. 1 nautical mile B. 3 nautical miles C. 5 nautical miles D. 7 nautical miles
C. 5 nautical miles
Which Type 3 hydrant system valve will open to relieve thermal expansion? A. bypass B. defuel/flush C. hydrant control D. pressure control
D. pressure control
On the Type 5 hydrant system, what size (in inches) are the stainless steel pantographs installed inside the hardened shelters? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
A. 3
You should discontinue fuel operations when electrical storms are within how many nautical miles of a fuel servicing area? A. 3 B. 5 C. 10 D. 25
B. 5
What size mesh screen is used in the Type 3 hydrant system receiving strainer? A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80
C. 60
The low air pressure warning light and alarm on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler will activate when the air pressure drops below how many pounds per square in (psi)?
A. 60
B. 65
C. 70
D. 80
A. 60
What major command (MAJCOM) developed the Type 4 hydrant system?
A. Pacific Air Forces (PACAF)
B. Air Combat Command (ACC)
C. Air Mobility Command (AMC)
D. United States Air Forces in Europe (USAFE)
D. United States Air Forces in Europe (USAFE)
Which procedure is only accomplished during a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt?
A. test for odor
B. monitor the transfer for leaks
C. check the Department of Defense (DD) Form 250
D. ensure there is sufficient ullage in the receiving tank
A. test for odor
The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is at the…
A. top of the hydrometer
B. bottom of the cylinder
C. point at which the principal surface of the liquid cuts the thermometer scale
D. point at which the principal surface of the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale
D. point at which the principal surface of the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale
What type of fuel servicing operations would not require a fuels flight line expediter?
A. Aircraft defueling
B. Ground fuel servicing
C. Multiple source refueling
D. Concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft
B. Ground fuel servicing
When conducting a flashpoint analysis, how long should the flam be applied to the vapor cup when in the lowered position? A. .5 second B. 1 second C. 1.5 seconds D. 2 seconds
B. 1 second
What type of cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test? A. graduated B. wide mouth C. precalibrated D. pharmaceutical
A. graduated
Which type of heat transfer is the only one the operator can control in a cryotainer? A. radiation B. convection C. conduction D. Vaporization
B. convection
What form is used as a temporary means of identifying conditions that could result in death, disability, or a lost workday? A. AF Form 979, Danger Tag B. AF Form 980, Caution Tag C. AFTO Form 979, Critical Log D. AFTO Form 980, Care Tag
A. AF Form 979, Danger Tag
When obtaining a sample for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) water analysis method, how much fuel should pass through the test pad? A. one gallon B. one quart C. 600 milliliters D. 300 milliliters
D. 300 milliliters
The American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is most accurate when the fuel temperature is near... A. 30 degrees Fahrenheit B. 50 degrees Fahrenheit C. 60 degrees Fahrenheit D. 90 degrees Fahrenheit
C. 60 degrees Fahrenheit
The fueling control valve on the Type 4 hydrant system is opened to perform hot refueling operations by…
A. a flow switch located before the control pit
B. air pressure from the deadman control valve
C. fuel pressure from the deadman control valve
D. a pressure switch located before the control pit
B. air pressure from the deadman control valve
Fuels management and civil engineering (CE)/water and fuel systems maintenance (WSFM) personnel will develop specific operating instructions for hydrant system flushing based on the…
A. type of system
B. rated capacity of the system
C. type of system and number of control valves in the system
D. rated capacity of the system and the number of control valves in the system
A. type of system
The Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment FORCE System is not capable of... A. aircraft refueling B. aircraft defueling C. tank truck off loading D. storage bladder transferring
B. Aircraft Defueling
Heat can be transferred in cryotainers by…
A. conduction, convection, and radiation
B. convection, radiation, and vaporization
C. conduction, radiation, and vaporization
D. conduction, convection, and vaporization
A. conduction, convection, and radiation
When performing a daily inspection of fixed hydrant system filter separators, you must inspect the vessel for 3/4 to 1 inch markings that include all of the following information except…
A. type of filter elements installed
B. maximum allowable differential pressure
C. date of last filter element change in the MMM/YY format
D. date of the next filter element change in the MMM/YY format
C. date of last filter element change in the MMM/YY format
How is the deadman control valve operated on the Type 5 hydrant system? A. electrically B. air pressure C. mechanically D. fuel pressure
D. fuel pressure
Which valve(s) on the Type 3 hydrant system will modulate open, allowing the fuel to pass through when returning to the operating tanks during a defuel operation?
A. defuel/flush
B. backpressure control
C. pressure control and defuel/flush
D. pressure control and backpressure control
B. backpressure control
During a transfer operation, when is water removal from the tanks not required?
A. never
B. when equipped with a water drain valve
C. when equipped with an Enraf vito probe in the sump and no water presence is shown
D. when equipped with an ITT Barton automated tank gauging (ATG) and no water presence is shown
C. when equipped with an Enraf vito probe in the sump and no water presence is shown
Which is not a status indicator light-emitting diode (LED) on the Beta-Freightliner R-12 Hydrant-Servicing Unit defuel engine control governor?
A. OKAY TO PUMP
B. PUMP ENGAGED
C. SUMP TANK FULL
D. THROTTLE READY
C. SUMP TANK FULL
During Type 4 hydrant system operations, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the "hot pad?" A. fuels operator B. operations supervisor C. Hot refueling crewman D. hot refueling supervisor
D. hot refueling supervisor
A three digit code that identifies personnel with special training or experience to meet contingency and base level requirements is called a... A. Special experience indicator B. Special experience identifier C. Specific experience indicator D. Specific experience identifier
B. Special experience identifier
How many fuel servicing hoses are the Beta International Hydrant Servicing vehicles equipped with? A. Four B. Three C. Two D. One
A. Four
What is the maximum amount of time that can elapse between obtaining a conductivity sample and taking the conductivity reading? A. 24 hours B. 12 hours C. six hours D. three hours
A. 24 hours
What is the maximum amount of gallons of fuel permitted in a fuel laboratory? A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 25
B. 10
When manually gauging a tank, where should fuel finding paste be applied on the steel tape?
A. 2 inches above and below the estimated product depth
B. 3 inches above and below the estimated product depth
C. 2 inches above and 3 inches below the estimated product depth
D. 3 inches above and 2 inches below the estimated product depth
B. 3 inches above and below the estimated product depth
What is the maximum gallons per minute (gpm) flow rate of the R 12's defuel pump? A. 250 gpm B. 300 gpm C. 450 gpm D. 600 gpm
B. 300 gpm
What heat related injuries may occur when you have muscle cramps in the abdominal wall or limbs? A. Heat exhaustion B. Heat cramps C. Heatstroke D. Sunstroke
B. Heat Cramp
Which FuelsManager Defense application is used to track sampling dates and store sampling results? A. dispatch B. tank detail C. equipment log D. quality control
D. quality control
What action, if any, should be taken if fuel flow does not stop during the fuel flow precheck of a cargo/passenger aircraft concurrent servicing operation?
A. no action is required as this is a common occurrence
B. stop the operation and do not resume until the problem has been resolved
C. stop the operation temporarily, restart fuel flow, then re attempt the fuel flow prechecks
D. continue the operation and inform the concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS) of the situation
B. stop the operation and do not resume until the problem has been resolved
While performing a concurrent servicing operation, vehicles will not be allowed to operate or pass within how many feet of aircraft fuel vents? A. 10 B. 25 C. 35 D. 50
B. 25
Comprehensive energy support for the Department of Defense (DOD) is the responsibility of which organization?
A. Air Force Petroleum Office
B. Defense Logistics Agency Energy
C. Defense Logistics Agency Energy regions
D. HQ USAF Directorate of Logistics, Logistics Readiness Division, Fuels Management Branch
B. Defense Logistics Agency Energy
Much time and expense are involved in investigating and... A. solving accidents B. reporting accidents C. validating accidents D. discovering accidents
B. Reporting accidents
The brake system on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler will automatically (engage), apply parking brakes when the
A. air pressure drops below 30 to 40 pounds per square inch (psi)
B. transmission selector is in the neutral position
C. unit is in the AIR TRANSPORT mode
D. interaxle differential lock is activated
A. air pressure drops below 30 to 40 pounds per square inch (psi)
Which term is used to describe the temperature at which a liquids actively starts to vaporize? A. Volatility B. Fire point C. Flash point D. Boiling point
D. Boiling Point
Before issuing liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) to a receiving cryotainer, open the pressure build up valve until the pressure gauge, in pounds per square inch (psi), indicates... A. 5 to 10 psi B. 10 to 15 psi C. 20 to 25 psi D. 45 to 50 psi
B. 10 to 15 psi
During fueling operations with the Beta Freightliner R12 Hydrant Servicing Unit, the deadman switch must be re activated, to prevent automatic shutdown, every... A. 30 seconds B. 1 minute C. 1 1/2 minutes D. 2 minutes
D. 2 minutes
What is the freeze point for Jet A jet fuel? A. negative 40 degrees Fahrenheit B. negative 58 degrees Celsius C. negative 51 degrees Fahrenheit D. negative 40 degrees Celsius
A. Negative 40 degrees Fahrenheit
Printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test should be replaced... A. monthly B. quarterly C. semiannually D. annually
D. annually
Who raises the lift platform on a Beta Freightliner R12 when servicing fuel to an aircraft? A. Crew chief B. fuels operator C. line expeditor D. concurrent servicing supervisor
A. Crew chief
Which form is the primary means to record fuel issues to aircraft?
A. AF Form 1233, Bulk Storage Summary
B. AF Form 1235, Physical Inventory (Fuels/Missile Propellants)
C. DD Form 1896, DOD Fuel Identaplate
D. DD Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip
D. DD Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip
The lettering on a concurrent servicing supervisors (CSS) reflective vest will be at least…
A. six inches in height, five inches wide
B. six inches in height, four inches wide
C. four inches in height, two inches wide
D. four inches in height, three inches wide
B. six inches in height, four inches wide
Technical orders TO that cover installing, operating, troubleshooting, repairing, calibrating, servicing, or handling Air Force military systems are called... A. Index TO B. Time Compliance TOs (TCTO) C. Operations and maintenance TOs D. Methods and procedures TOs (MPTO)
C. Operations and maintenance TOs
Which organization provides detailed schematic charts and coordinates with the fuels management team for operating checklists on each permanently installed fuel system?
A. Aircraft maintenance
B. Base Civil Engineering
C. Fuels information service center
D. Wing safety office and bioenvironmental engineering
B. Base Civil Engineering
what is the gallon capacity of the C300/301 ground servicing units storage tank? A. 1000 B. 1200 C. 1500 D. 2000
B. 1200
As a minimum, liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tanks should be purged every... A. 90 days B. 120 days C. 240 days D. 365 days
D. 365 days
How many gallons will a TMU 20/E cryotainer hold? A. 50 B. 400 C. 2,000 D. 5,000
D. 5,000
At a minimum, how many measuring points does the measurement probe on an automated tank gauging system have? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6
A. 2
Maintaining radio transmission discipline over the radio net is the responsibility of the fuels…
A. controllers
B. management team
C. information service center superintendent
D. service center noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)
A. controllers
What system is designed to cut all electric current running to all dispensers when activated? A. fuel shutoff system B. pump shutoff system C. electrical power down system D. emergency power down system
D. emergency power down system
Who is responsible for establishing and updating Air Force policy for managing petroleum resources?
A. Air Force Petroleum Office
B. Defense Logistics Agency Energy
C. Defense Logistics Agency Energy regions
D. HQ USAF Directorate of Logistics, Logistics Readiness Division, Fuels Management Branch
D. HQ USAF Directorate of Logistics, Logistics Readiness Division, Fuels Management Branch
Bonding receptacles will be inspected with a pounds per square inch (psi) spring scale for a pull of... A. 6 to 12 psi B. 8 to 12 psi C. 6 to 14 psi D. 8 to 14 psi
D. 8 to 14 psi
Which of these acts as the United States Air Force’s service control point?
A. Air Force Petroleum Office
B. Defense Logistics Agency Energy
C. Defense Logistics Agency Energy regions
D. Air Force Installation and Mission Support Center
A. Air Force Petroleum Office
Who in a fuels management flight is responsible for administering the caution tag program?
A. Fuels laboratory section
B. Fuels management team
C. Fuels environmental safety office
D. Fuels information service center superintendent
A. Fuels laboratory section
In inches, what is the diameter of the manway with access ladder used for military service station above and below ground tanks? A. 18 B. 24 C. 36 D. 48
C. 36
A sample taken 6 inches below the surface contents of a JP 8 jet fuel bulk storage tank is called... A. a top sample B. an upper sample C. an all level sample D. a composite sample
A. a top sample
The water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on which class of fire? A. A B. B C. C D. D
A. A
The C300/301 ground servicing unit is normally equipped with how many feet of 1 1/2 inch diameter hose? A. 50 B. 75 C. 100 D. 125
C. 100
What does a heavy freeze spot on the outer hose of a liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) transfer hose indicate?
A. the inner hose is damaged
B. the outer hose is damaged
C. a faulty valve at the tank outlet
D. the hose connection is not tight enough
A. the inner hose is damaged
When defueling with a Beta Freightliner R12, what button do you press to adjust the pressure to the desired level, to maintain a steady flow? A. UP B. INC C. LOW D. DOWN
B. INC
Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within how many feet of operating aircraft radar? A. 100 B. 150 C. 200 D. 300
D. 300
A temporary means of warning personnel against potential hazards or as a caution against unsafe practices is the... A. AF Form 979, Danger Tag B. AF Form 980, Caution Tag C. DD Form 979, Temporary Tag D. DD Form 980, Warning Tag
B. AF Form 980, Caution Tag
When receiving ground fuel with the C300/301 ground servicing unit, the tank fill rate should not exceed... A. 100 gallons per minute (gpm) B. 200 gpm C. 300 gpm D. 600 gpm
D. 600 gpm
At what temperature in degrees Fahrenheit will liquid oxygen (LOX) vaporize into a gaseous state? A. negative 297 degrees Fahrenheit B. negative 321 degrees Fahrenheit C. negative 379 degrees Fahrenheit D. negative 395 degrees Fahrenheit
A. Negative 297 degrees Fahrenheit
How many cryotainers can be connected in a series when transporting cryotainers on an aircraft using the overboard vent system? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
B. 3
What system was developed to complement and eventually replace the Fuels Support Equipment components?
A. Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery
B. Forward Area Refueling Point Equipment
C. Cryotainer Maintenance and Support Equipment
D. Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment
D. Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment
When performing flushing operations on a Type 3, 4, and 5 system, in what position should the pump selector switch be placed? A. off B. idle C. auto D. flush
D. flush
Using the hydro light detector instrument, how long do you allow the unit to fully update, and how many scans will it perform? A. 10 seconds; three scans B. 10 seconds; four scans C. 15 seconds; three scans D. 15 seconds; four scans
A. 10 seconds; three scans
In what block of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip, will the crew chief enter his or her initials to ensure joint verification? A. QUANTITY B. PRODUCT CODE C. RECEIVED Y D. REMARKS AND OR VOUCHER NO.
B. PRODUCT CODE
What should you do if a frayed bonding cable is found during the operator maintenance check?
A. replace the entire cable
B. repair the bonding cable
C. remove the equipment from service
D. report the finding to refueling maintenance
B. repair the bonding cable
What is the standard gallon capacity for an above ground fuel storage tank used at a military service station? A. 4,000 B. 6,000 C. 8,000 D. 12,000
D. 12,000
Fuels laboratories must have certain features, such as…
A. a deluge shower in the corner of the laboratory
B. windows made of reinforced wire safety glass
C. at least 210 square feet of working space
D. doors that are fireproof and open inward
B. windows made of reinforced wire safety glass
What type of dispensing unit has two meters, but only one pump contained within its housing? A. single dispensing, single product B. dual dispensing, single product C. single dispensing, dual product D. dual dispensing, dual product
B. dual dispensing, single product
What type of container should not be used when obtaining conductivity samples? A. glass B. metal C. plastic D. insulated
C. plastic
What is the process of connecting two or more metallic objects together using a conductor? A. Bonding B. Strapping C. Equalizing D. Grounding
A. Bonding
Publications that set up the standard of management and control the official business of the Air Force are called... A. manuals B. pamphlets C. instructions D. operating instruction
C. Instructions
Physical inventories on active storage tanks are normally taken between... A. 2200 and 0600 B. 2300 and 0700 C. 2400 and 0800 D. 0100 and 0900
C. 2400 and 0800
When are odors most prevalent during a liquid oxygen odor test?
A. the sample has been heated to 10 degrees above room temperature
B. the sample has warmed to nearly room temperature
C. near 90 degrees Fahrenheit
D. near 30 degrees Fahrenheit
B. the sample has warmed to nearly room temperature
What character in the Air Force specialty code AFSC is used to identify the Fuels career field? A. 0 B. 2 C. F D. X
C. F
A fuel spill less than two feet in any plane direction is classified in this spill category. A. Class 1 B. Class 2 C. Class 3 D. Class 4
A. Class 1
What is the rated capacity in gallons per minute (gpm) and revolutions per minute (rpm) of a deep well turbine fuel transfer pump used for the Type 3 product recovery system? A. 50 gpm; 2,200 rpm B. 50 gpm; 1,800 rpm C. 100 gpm; 2,200 rpm D. 100 gpm; 1,800 rpm
B. 50 gpm; 1,800 rpm
How many cubic feet of gaseous oxygen at atmospheric pressure will one cubic foot (7.5 gallons) of liquid oxygen (LOX) expand to? A. 500 B. 760 C. 800 D. 860
D. 860
The fueling operation indicator on the Beta-Freightliner R-12 Hydrant-Servicing Unit will illuminate when the sump tank is approximately at what percent?
A. 65
B. 70
C. 75
D. 80
C. 75
Use the ether starting aid for the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler when the temperature is below
A. 25 degrees Celsius
B. 32 degrees Celsius
C. 40 degrees Fahrenheit
D. 45 degrees Fahrenheit
C. 40 degrees Fahrenheit
Hot refueling cannot be performed until what validation procedures have been completed on the aircraft, fueling systems, and the facility?
A. system safety engineering analysis
B. Air Force civil engineer support agency inspection
C. Headquarter Air Force Material Command, senior executive service inspection
D. Headquarters United States Air Force, directorate of logistics, materiel support division analysis
A. system safety engineering analysis
What component on a pantograph aids in maneuvering the single point nozzle near the skin of the aircraft? A. locking bars and pins B. galvanized steel support C. weighted counter balances D. spring tension counterbalances
D. spring tension counterbalances
What component on the C300/301 ground servicing unit works in conjunction with the float level sensor to prevent the tank from overfilling? A. vent valve B. bottom loading interlock C. emergency valve operator D. emergency/bottom loading valve
D. emergency/bottom loading valve
What is the gallon per minute rating for military automotive service station submersible turbine pumps? A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D. 14
B. 10
What is the most significant factor that affects a fuel sample's conductivity reading? A. cleanliness B. temperature C. nitrogen level D. corrosion inhibitors
B. temperature
During a visual sample what kind of dye is used to aid in distinguishing water from fuel? A acid dye B. fluorescent C. reactive dye D. food coloring
D. food coloring
The most accurate testing method to determine total solid content in a fuel sample is... A. the bottle method B. a correlation sample C. the single weight monitor D. the matched weight monitor
A. the bottle method
At a minimum, all assigned fuel servicing vehicles and equipment must be inspected at least once every how many days when not used? A. 7 B. 14 C. 30 D. 45
A. 7
On the Type 3 hydrant system, what would the sequence of the other pumps be if pump # 2 is selected as the lead pump? A. 1, 3, 4, and 5 B. 2, 3, 4, and 5 C. 3, 4, 5, and 1 D. 4, 5, 1, and 2
C. 3, 4, 5, and 1
At what gallons per minute (gpm) maximum rate can you fill the tank on the Kovatch-series R-11 Refueler using the bottom loading system?
A. 300
B. 450
C. 600
D. 750
C. 600
The refueling vehicle engine should not be allowed to operate more than how many minutes during in shelter refueling operations if the aircraft entry doors are closed? A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 30
C. 20
In what section of the Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) Form 1233 are returns to bulk recorded? A. issues B. reconciliation C. net issues from bulk D. fueling unit summary
D. fueling unit summary
What AFTO Form acts as a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on equipment? A. 95 B. 134 C. 244 D. 245
A. 95
During aircraft hot refueling, the hot refueling supervisor…
A. observes the fuel equipment pressure gauges
B. maintains visual contact with the prepositioned firegaurd
C. maintains intercom contact wit the fuels equipment operator
D. ensures the aircrew maintains their hands out of the cockpit instrumentation area
D. ensures the aircrew maintains their hands out of the cockpit instrumentation area
Prior to the first servicing, a system on standby status should be inspected at least... A. weekly B. monthly C. quarterly D. Semiannually
B. monthly
Who should be contacted if the DD Form 250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report, or contractor delivery ticket is not available upon arrival of a fuel tank truck and prior to fuel receipt?
A. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) quality assurance representative (QAR)
B. Defense Energy Support Center (DESC)
C. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPET)
D. Major command (MAJCOM)
A. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) quality assurance representative (QAR)
Which is not a position on the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler’s pumping mode selector valve?
A. DEFUELI
B. LOW-FLOW
C. HIGH-FLOW
D. SINGLE-POINT
D. SINGLE-POINT
What is the minimum number of figures displayed on the non resettable totalizer on the Type 3 receipt line? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8
C. 7
Which radio transmission 10 code means return to the fuels service center? A. 10/4 B. 10/10 C. 10/14 D. 10/15
B. 10/10
What two gauges are permanently installed on cryotainers? A. quantity and vacuum B. pressure and quantity C. differential and vacuum D. differential and pressure
B. pressure and quantity
What size torque wrench is recommended to have in the preventive maintenance tool kit?
A. 3/4” drive (0 to 600 foot per pound)
B. 1/2” drive (0 to 600 foot per pound)
C. 3/4” drive (100 to 600 foot per pound)
D. 1/2” drive (100 to 600 foot per pound)
C. 3/4” drive (100 to 600 foot per pound)
The general Air Force specialty code AFSC used when you entered basic training is... A. 2F011 B. 2F031 C. 2F051 D. 9T000
D. 9T000
which improvement recommendation should be submitted for a technical order (TO) deficiency that would result in a fatal or serious injury to personnel, or destruction of equipment? A. Urgent B. Routine C. Emergency D. Time Compliance
C. Emergency
The technical order (TO) that explains the procedures for reporting improvements in TOs is…
A. TO 00.5.1, AF Technical Order System
B. TO 00.5.15, AF Time Compliance Technical Order Process
C. TO 00.5.18. Methods and Procedures AF Technical Order Numbering System
D. TO 00.5.3, Methods and Procedures AF Technical Order Life cycle Management
A. TO 00.5.1, AF Technical Order System
Strainers equipped with a differential pressure (DP) gauge should be inspected daily and cleaned when the DP reading in pounds per square inch (psi) reaches at least... A. 5 psi B. 10 psi C. 15 psi D. 20 psi
B. 10 psi
How many tanks are used with the Type 4 hydrant system and how many gallons will each hold? A. 2; 10,000 B. 4; 10,000 C. 2; 50,000 D. 4; 50,000
D. 4; 50,000
What type of special servicing operation involves transferring fuel out of the fuel tanks of an aircraft with one or more engines operation? A. hot defueling B. rapid defueling C. in shelter refueling D. concurrent servicing
A. hot defueling
During a flash point analysis, apply heat to the sample so that the temperature increases at a rate of…
A. 7 to 9 degrees Fahrenheit per minute
B. 8 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit per minute
C. 9 to 11 degrees Fahrenheit per minute
D. 10 to 12 degrees Fahrenheit per minute
C. 9 to 11 degrees Fahrenheit per minute
Operating aircraft can commonly produce noise levels in decibel ranges of... A. 40 to 90 B. 80 to 100 C. 90 to 110 D. 110 to 130
D. 110 to 130
What is the maximum allowable speed in miles per hour when driving a special purpose vehicle on the flight line? A. 5 mph B. 10 mph C. 15 mph D. 20 mph
B. 10 mph
Crew members conducting in shelter refueling with shelter doors completely closed should have at least how many minutes of low or no fuel vapor exposure between operations? A. 15 B. 30 C. 45 D. 60
D. 60
what is the minimum temperature in degrees Fahrenheit at which combustible liquids have a flash point? A. 100 degrees Fahrenheit B. 120 degrees Fahrenheit C. 140 degrees Fahrenheit D. 150 degrees Fahrenheit
A. 100 degrees Fahrenheit
The lowest temperature at which a flammable liquid gives off sufficient vapors, when mixed with air to support combustion, is known as a products... A. fire point B. flash point C. lower flammable limit D. auto ignition temperature
A. Fire point
When should the fuels manager, fuels flight commander, and/or terminal superintendent review the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 39 and sign page 2 in the Management Form Review section? A. daily B. weekly C. monthly D. quarterly
C. monthly
What is the rated capacity in gallons per minute (gpm) of the pumps on the Type 4 hydrant system? A. 300 gpm B. 600 gpm C. 900 gpm D. 1,200 gpm
B. 600 gpm
Hot defueling is approved for all of the following aircraft except... A. C/5 Galaxy B. C/27 Spartan C. C/130 Hercules D. C/17 Globemaster 3
A. C/5 Galaxy
Inert solids including rust metal fragments, dust, and fibers are known as... A. biological contaminants B. particulate matter C. precipitates D. oxides
B. particulate matter
When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, under most circumstances, you will not position it any closer than what minimum distance (feet) from any portion of an aircraft? A. 5 B. 10 C. 25 D. 50
B. 10
Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed of in accordance with…
A. local and state environmental guidelines
B. state and federal environmental guidelines
C. local, state, and federal environmental laws and regulations
D. state, federal, and international environmental laws and regulations
C. local, state, and federal environmental laws and regulations
Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation requires a reply within 45 days? A. Urgent B. Routine C. Emergency D. Critical hazard
B. Routine
Disposal of tank bottom water should be coordinated with... A. bioenvironmental services B. fuel maintenance team C. base environmental manager D. fuels environmental safety office
C. base environmental manager
How often should active storage tanks be inventoried? A. daily B. weekly C. monthly D. quarterly
A. daily
Product loss caused by a hostile activity in a deployed location is categorized as what type of determinable variance? A. Peacetime loss B. Major disaster C. Wartime loss D. Combat loss
D. Combat loss
Which sampling device is used for sampling pressurized systems under flow conditions? A. drum thief B. in line sampler C. bacon bomb sampler D. weighted bottle sampler
B. in line sampler
Cleaning of the probe before conductivity testing is not required..
A. for new probes
B. if the probe has been cleaned in the past 48 hours
C. when the probe has been stored in a sealed package
D. when the conductivity meter can be zeroed with the probe attached
D. when the conductivity meter can be zeroed with the probe attached
Multiple refueling source restrictions do not apply to…
A. MH2 series hose carts
B. R11 mobile refueling units
C. Air Force owned and operated fuel servicing equipment
D. single hydrant servicing units equipped with two refueling hoses
D. single hydrant servicing units equipped with two refueling hoses
Weekly inspections on fixed hydrant systems must be accomplished every seven days, and must not exceed... A. 9 days B. 10 days C. 11 days D. 12 days
D. 12 days
Who is required to conduct a monthly cryogenic storage facility inspection with the cryogenic supervisor? A. water and fuel systems maintenance B. fuels management team C. squadron commander D. storage technician
B. fuels management team
Which sampling device has a projecting stem on a valve rod that opens automatically when the sampler strikes the bottom of the tank? A. tube thief B. drum thief C. Bacon bomb sampler D. weighted bottle sampler
C. Bacon bomb sampler
When inspecting a pantograph, which item is not required to be attached to the pantograph with a cable to eliminate foreign object damage (FOD)? A. dust cap B. latch pin C. cotter pin D. locking bar
D. locking bar
What does an illuminated green indicator light on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11’s pump control panel indicate?
A. A fault in the automatic and continuous self-testing circuity
B. A power take off system is activated inside the cab
C. A wet sensor, tank is filled to maximum capacity
D. A dry sensor, tank is not filled to capacity
D. A dry sensor, tank is not filled to capacity
During warm weather months, how do you manually relieve the pressure on the pantographs piping? A. drain fuel from the sampling valve B. drain fuel from the filter separator C. drain fuel from the expansion tank D. drain fuel from the pressure gauge
A. drain fuel from the sampling valve
How often must electrical continuity tests be preformed on lab filtration equipment? A. daily B. weekly C. monthly D. semiannually
C. monthly
What temperature in degrees Fahrenheit is the minimum flash point of JP 5 jet fuel? A. negative 20 degrees Fahrenheit B. negative 40 degrees Fahrenheit C. 100 degrees Fahrenheit D. 140 degrees Fahrenheit
D. 140 degrees Fahrenheit
On the Type 3 hydrant system, the light emitting diode (LED) in the battery backup system in each microprocessor will indicate a problem at least how many days in advance before the battery becomes weak enough to jeopardize the integrity of the memory? A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7
B. 3
The purpose of a portable vacuum gauge is to check the... A. pressure on the hoses B. pressure in the inner tank C. vacuum on the buildup coil D. vacuum in the annular space
D. vacuum in the annular space
What cleaning agent should be used to clean conductivity probes? A. isopropyl alcohol B. petroleum ether C. turbine fuel D. acetone
A. isopropyl alcohol
The surge suppressor gauge on the Beta Freightliner R 12 Hydrant Servicing Unit should be precharged to... A. 45 pounds per square inch (psi) B. 55 plus or minus 5 C. 65 plus or minus 5 D. 90 psi
D. 90 psi
What are cryotainer safety relief valves tested with? A. compressed air B. helium C. methane D. nitrogen
A. compressed air
When inspecting automated tank gauging (ATG) systems, what pressure range in pounds per square inch (psi) should the nitrogen cylinder regulator setting indicate? A. 5 to 15 psi B. 10 to 15 psi C. 20 to 25 psi D. 40 to 50 psi
C. 20 to 25 psi
Which form would you most likely use to report technical order (TO) deficiencies?
A. AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report
B. AFTO Form 422, Differential Pressure Log
C. AF Form 847, Recommendation for Change of Publication
D. AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply
D. AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply
Commonly used pumps on the Type 3 system are balanced statically and dynamically for all flow rates from no flow to... A. 100 percent of the designed rate B. 110 percent of the designed rate C. 120 percent of the designed rate D. 130 percent of the designed rate
C. 120 percent of the designed rate
who forms a team to maintain command and control of the flight and is referred to as the Fuels Management Team?
A. Fuels manager and fuels supervisor
B. Flight commander and fuels manager
C. Fuels superintendent and fuels manager
D. Flight commander and fuels supervisor
B. Flight commander and fuels manager
What is the minimum fire rating for all interior walls separating the laboratory from other portions of the building? A. 15 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 45 minutes D. 60 minutes
D. 60 minutes
What is the maximum allowable pounds per square inch (psi) of fueling nozzle pressure used with the Beta-Freightliner R-12 Hydrant-Servicing Unit?
A. 15
B. 45
C. 55
D. 90
C. 55
The primary air pressure gauge on the Beta-Freightliner R-12 Hydrant-Servicing Unit indicates the
A. pressure of the fuel at the pump outlet
B. air pressure supplied to the Type III hydrant outlet
C. fuel pressure entering the unit through the hydrant coupler
D. combined precharge pressure within the surge suppressors
B. air pressure supplied to the Type III hydrant outlet
What is the maximum number of United States (US) gallons that can register on the resettable meter of the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler?
A. 9,999
B. 99,999
C. 999,999
D. 9,999,999
A. 9,999
The best way to reduce the dangers of asphyxiation when performing work in the areas suspected of fuel vapors is to use... A. safety precautions at all times B. only qualified technicians C. safe working time limits D. the two person concept
D. The two person concept
When backing an R12 servicing vehicle towards an aircraft, you must always have a…
A. Spotter behind the unit
B. prepositioned chock behind the unit
C. Spotter and a prepositioned chock behind the unit
D. spotter in front of the unit and a spotter and a prepositioned chock behind the unit
C. Spotter and a prepositioned chock behind the unit
Pantographs are low maintenance refueling units capable of flow rates up to... A. 450 B. 600 C. 750 D. 1200
B. 600
Who must inform the squadron commander, Air Force Petroleum Office, and other affected agencies of any deficiency in a fixed hydrant system that compromises mission accomplishment? A. fuels service center B. fuels support section C. fuels mobility section D. fuels management team
D. fuels management team
What is the minimum number of minutes that must pass to eliminate static charges before disassembling an in line sampler? A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1
D. 1
Which cable assembly on the Intellicheck2 and Intellitrol Overfill Prevention Control Systems connects to the refueler for filling operations?
A. Sculcon
B. Duocept socket assembly
C. Overfill Sensor (optic probes)
D. Multifunction loading rack controller
A. Sculcon
On the Type 3 hydrant system, which filter separator control valve function will prevent the elements from bursting and allowing contaminated fuel downstream? A. check valve B. flow control C. water slug shutoff D. maximum differential pressure shutoff
D. maximum differential pressure shutoff
You are performing servicing operations with the C300/301 ground servicing unit. What position do you shift the transmission lever in after pulling out the power takeoff (PTO) handle? A. neutral B. drive C. third D. second
A. neutral
The information that is carried over to the new Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 422, Differential Log, when the old AFTO Form 422 is full, is the last…
A. two readings
B. Four readings
C. two readings and the initials of the technician initiating the new form
D. Four readings and the initials of the technician initiating the new form
B. Four readings
At a minimum, how many feet behind an aircraft's operating jet engine is considered safe? A 50 B. 100 C. 150 D. 200
D. 200
You are hot refueling and aircraft equipped with refuel high level shutoff valves. When should the valves be checked for proper operation?
A. when the aircraft jettisoned fuel on the previous mission
B. before the hot refueling operation begins
C. at the beginning of each hot refueling operation
D. at the midpoint of the hot refueling operation
C. at the beginning of each hot refueling operation
The two commonly used insulating materials used in the annular space of a cryotainer are…
A. fiberglass and glass wool
B. fiberglass and mylar film
C. crushed glass perlite beads and glass wool
D. crushed glass perlite beads and mylar film
D. crushed glass perlite beads and mylar film
Self closing metal containers used for combustible waste disposal in fuels laboratories are identified by being painted…
A. red with yellow letters designating COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE
B. yellow with red letters designating COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE
C. red with yellow band and COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE stenciled in 2 inch letters inside the band
D. yellow with red band and COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE stenciled in 2 inch letters inside the band
B. yellow with red letters designating COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE
Before being used for a bottle method, test membrane filters are dried at... A. 97 degrees Celsius B. 97 degrees Fahrenheit C. 194 degrees Celsius D. 194 degrees Fahrenheit
D. 194 degrees Fahrenheit
What is the proper treatment for someone who has been splashed with cryogenic liquid, such as liquid oxygen (LOX) or liquid nitrogen (LIN)?
A. Rewarm the body part as soon as possible
B. Wrap the exposed area in a cotton blanket
C. Give the victim plenty of liquids
D. Watch closely and treat for shock
B. Wrap the exposed area in a cotton blanket
Which variances term refers to fuels gains and losses at Defense Fuel Support Points during routine operating conditions? A. Intransit B. Storage C. Transfer D. Receipt
B. Storage
How should the date wheels on an imprinter be set for 15 June 2017 (Julian calendar date 166th)? A. 17166 B. 17615 C. 61517 D. 15617
A. 17166
Methane, acetylene, ethane, ethylene, propane, and butane are what type of hydrocarbons? A. light B. crude C. heavy D. refined
A. light
What action must be taken if the sample flashes upon first application of the flame during a flashpoint analysis? A perform a new flash point test B. raise the room temperature C. increase fuel temperature D. record the temperature
A perform a new flash point test
Under normal conditions and as a minimum, how many hours must fuel in above ground tanks settle prior to transferring? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
D. 8
Verification of a risk assessment code (RAC) should not exceed how many days? A. 5 B. 7 C. 10 D. 14
C. 10
When concurrently servicing cargo/passenger aircraft, passengers may…
A. not enter or exit the aircraft at any time
B. enter or exit the aircraft provided a jetway is used
C. enter the aircraft but cannot exit the aircraft at any time
D. not enter the aircraft but can exit the aircraft at any time
B. enter or exit the aircraft provided a jetway is used
On a fillstand equipped with the Scully Intellitrol control system, how often are electrical pulses sent to the high level sensor during a filling operation? A. 30 times per second B. 30 times per minute C. 45 times per second D. 45 times per minute
A. 30 times per second
What is the minimum capacity for above ground storage tanks that would require a dike area? A. 661 barrels B. 561 barrels C. 661 gallons D. 561 gallons
C. 661 gallons
At least how many feet from the fuels laboratory building must a 55 gallon waste drum be positioned? A. 10 B. 20 C. 50 D. 100
C. 50
On the Type 3 hydrant system, at what pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) will the control system start the lead pump? A. 60 psi B. 75 psi C. 130 psi D. 145 psi
A. 60 psi
During a concurrent servicing operation (CSO) supporting combat sortie generation (CSG) all of the following maintenance items may be done except... A. oil servicing B. liquid oxygen servicing C. liquid nitrogen servicing D. hydraulic fluid servicing
B. liquid oxygen servicing
When manually gauging a tank for temperature, at a minimum, how long must the thermometer be left in the fuel to ensure an accurate temperature reading? A. 3 minutes B. 4 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 6 minutes
C. 5 minutes
The ability of a material to transmit or conduct electricity is known as... A. Resistivity B. Conductivity C. Flammability D. Current Density
B. Conductivity
What is the gallon capacity of the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 storage tank?
A. 4,5000
B. 5,000
C. 5,500
D. 6,000
D. 6,000
The cylinder assembly of an FCS 2001 cryogenic sampler should stabilize in what per square inch gauge (psig) range before it is sent to the area lab for analysis? A. 1000 to 1500 B. 1200 to 1700 C. 1300 to 1800 D. 1500 to 2000
C. 1300 to 1800
What component on the C300/301 ground servicing unit prevents the vehicle from moving during filling operations? A. float level sensor B. bottom loading interlock C. emergency valve operator D. emergency/bottom loading valve
B. bottom loading interlock
What aircraft is not authorized to transport cryogenic tanks due to the need of an overboard vent system to vent excessive pressure? A. KC/135 B. KC/10 C. C/21 D. C/17
C. C/21
Which technical order is issued to prevent use of equipment or procedures due to hazardous safety conditions that could cause a serious injury or death? A. Safety B. Abbreviated C. Time compliance D. Methods and procedures
C. Time Compliance
Within how many hours is the responsible technical content manager required to take action on a technical order (TO) emergency improvement recommendation report? A. 6 B. 12 C. 24 D. 48
D. 48
What type of insulation is used in the annular space of a liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) transfer hose? A. perlite B. santocel C. fiberglass D. glass wool
D. glass wool
As a minimum, vacuum checks should be performed on cryotainers every... A. 90 days B. 180 days C. 270 days D. 365 days
B. 180 days
What are the clipboard color coding requirements for unleaded automotive gasoline vehicles? A. Red clipboard with blue stripes B. Brown clipboard with green stripes C. Red clipboard with green stripes D. Brown clipboard with blue stripes
C. Red clipboard with green stripes
Which gauge component measures the fuel pressure at the outlet of the fuel pump?
A. Differential pressure
B. Nozzle pressure
C. System outlet
D. Pump pressure
D. Pump pressure
On the Type 4 hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling should a hose separate from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?
A. a dry break coupler located inside the hose will close automatically
B. a flow switch will sense a sudden drop in pressure, shutting down the pumps
D. the fusible link melts and falls out, causing the spring loaded “butterfly” part of the valve to close
A. a dry break coupler located inside the hose will close automatically
Normally, what minimum safe distance (in feet) should be maintained from the front and sides of jet engine intakes? A. 10 B. 15 C. 25 D. 50
C. 25
to perform a liquid oxygen particulate test, use all of the following equipment except... A. filter paper B. clean white paper C. glass beaker D. aluminum or glass beaker cover
A. filter paper
When equipped with the proper batteries, the model 1152 conductivity meter is approved for use in which locations? A. indoor B. outdoor C. vapor free D. hazardous
D. hazardous
What is the rated gallons per minute (gpm) output of the positive displacement pump on the C300/301 ground servicing unit? A. 50 B. 100 C. 150 D. 200
B. 100
What should you do first when fighting an electrical fire?
A. Aim the fire extinguisher at the base of the fire
B. Contact the base interior electric shop
C. Locate a water type fire extinguisher
D. Remove the power source
D. Remove the power source
The Gammon Aqua Glo water detector should be calibrated... A. weekly B. monthly C. semiannually D. daily prior to the first use
D. daily prior to the first use
What enginee is the Kovatch-International R-11 equipped with?
A. International 6-cylinder, liquid-cooled diesel engine
B. International 6-cylinder, liquid-cooled mogas engine
C. International 8-cylinder, liquid-cooled diesel engine
D. International 8-cylinder, liquid-cooled mogas engine
A. International 6-cylinder, liquid-cooled diesel engine
Which alarm indicator on the Type 3 system, when actuated, shuts down all fueling pumps that are operating at the time? A. low level B. high level C. low low level D. high high level
A. low level
Which is not a duty of the fuels flight line expediter?
A. Assessing fueling operations
B. Taking action to correct deficiencies
C. Providing assistance for hydrant servicing operations
D. Coordinating and directing cryogenic servicing operations
D. Coordinating and directing cryogenic servicing operations
The Department of Defense (DD) Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip can be used to record all of the following transactions except... A. consolidated issues B. transfers to storage C. recording jettisoned fuel D. replacement in kind transactions
B. transfers to storage
Who is responsible for completing the “maintenance Status” column on page 2 of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 39?
A. Utilities personnel
B. Vehicle maintenance personnel
C. preventive maintenance personnel
D. water and fuel systems maintenance personnel
D. water and fuel systems maintenance personnel
What form is used to perform pantograph inspections? A. AF Form 4427 B. AF Form 1807 C. AF Form 1800 D. AFTO Form 244
A. AF Form 4427
When replacing tires on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11, torque the lug nuts between
A. 400 to 500 foot-pounds (ft-lbs)
B. 300 to 400 ft-lbs
C. 200-300 ft-lbs
D. 100-200 ft-lbs
A. 400 to 500 foot-pounds (ft-lbs)
When receiving ground fuel with the C300/301 ground servicing unit, the manhole must be left open if the fill rate exceeds how many gallons per minute? A. 100 B. 250 C. 450 D. 600
A. 100
What is the desired engine speed, in revolutions per minute (rpm), for LOW FLOW servicing operations on the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler?
A. 600+-50
B. 800+-50
C. 1,000+-50
D. 1,800+-50
C. 1,000+-50
What is annotated in the REMARKS AND OR VOUCHER NO. block of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip, if the aircraft being serviced is not a home station aircraft?
A. Customer identification code
B. Last four digits of the tail number
C. Full tail number and the mission, design and series (MDS) of the aircraft
D. Last four digits of the aircraft’s tail number and Department of Defense Activity Address Code (DODAAC)
C. Full tail number and the mission, design and series (MDS) of the aircraft
What is the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity range for Jet A fuel? A. 38 to 47 B. 37 to 51 C. 36 to 48 D. 35 to 47
B. 37 to 51
to log a retest sample on the equipment item, first you must check the retest box and enter what information in the attached box? A. sample location B. previous sample date C. previous sample number D. sample size, location, and date
C. previous sample number
Turbine engine oil is included in which recoverable and waste petroleum product category? A. 1/Fuels B. 2/Oils C. 4/Synthetic oils D. 5/Mixed liquids
C. 4/Synthetic oils
What is the constant pressure range in pounds per square inch (psi) for the Type 5 hydrant system? A. 15 to 120 psi B. 30 to 135 psi C. 45 to 150 psi D. 60 to 165 psi
C. 45 to 150 psi
An example of a directive standard publication is a... A. bulletin B. pamphlet C. Staff Digest D. Supplement
D. Supplement
Prior to use, new sample containers for solids testing are rinsed with... A. petroleum ether B. isopropyl alcohol C. filtered turbine fuel D. demineralized water
C. filtered turbine fuel
What is the purpose of the Type 3 hydrant system lockout key?
A. switch the system off for maintenance
B. prevent a certain fueling pump from start
C. transfer control from one microprocessor to the other
D. keep the back pressure control valve from relieving pressure
C. transfer control from one microprocessor to the other
The Kovatch-International and Volvo R-11 Refuelers both carry the same noncollapsible
A. 60-foot long 2 1/2-inch and 1 1/2-inch hoses
B. 75-foot long 2 1/2-inch and 1 1/2-inch hoses
C. 60-foot long 3-inch and 1-inch hoses
D. 75-foot long 3-inch and 1-inch hoses
A. 60-foot long 2 1/2-inch and 1 1/2-inch hoses
What C300/301 ground servicing units component allows the tank to breath during loading and unloading operations? A. vent valve B. float level sensor C. bottom loading interlock D. emergency/bottom loading valve
A. vent valve
Since the Type 5 hydrant system is not required to be manned when it is being operated, as a minimum, inspections are performed every... A. hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours
C. 3 hours
Refractometers used for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis should be calibrated... A. weekly B. prior to first use C. daily or when changing test water D. monthly or when changing test water
C. daily or when changing test water
Which fuel spill classification involves and area not more than 10 feet in any plane direction? A. Class 1 B. Class 2 C. Class 3 D. Class 4
B. Class 2
Once the last aircraft has been serviced, the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134 may be destroyed after two... A. days B. weeks C. months D. years
B. weeks
What characteristic refers to how easy a liquid changes into a vapor state? A. Viscosity B. Volatility C. Boiling point D. Vapor pressure
B. Volatility
What type of recommendation must the technical content manager take action on within 40 days? A. Urgent B. Routine C. Emergency D. Critical Hazard
A. Urgent
What type of dye is used for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) detector pad? A. zinc chloride B. phthalic anhydride C. sodium fluorescein D. lysergic acid diethylamide
C. sodium fluorescein
Which Fuels Manager window displays a dynamically updating image of the fuel tank contents? A. Real time reports B. Tank group C. Tank detail D. Graphics
B. Tank group
At what liquid percentage level will the Type 3 hydrant system product recovery tank overfill valve close? A. 75 B. 80 C. 85 D. 90
B. 80
The movement of fuel from one or more tanks to a ship, barge, truck, or a pipeline is called a... A. receipt B. transfer C. shipment D. return to bulk
C. shipment
An unacknowledged alarm condition that has returned to normal is indicated by a... A. flashing green color B. flashing blue color C. steady green color D. steady blue color
A. flashing green color
Which vehicles do not have to yield the right of way to moving aircraft? A. "Follow Me" trucks B. Refueling units C. Fire trucks D. Tugs
A. “Follow Me” Trucks
What type of special servicing operation involves using more than one refueler, or a combination of refuelers and hydrant servicing equipment, to rapidly service large frame aircraft? A. hot refuel B. rapid defuel C. multisource refuel D concurrent servicing
C. multisource refuel
The purpose of the AF Form 1800, Operator's Inspection Guide and Trouble Report, is to act as a guide for what type vehicle inspections? A. Weekly special purpose vehicles B. Weekly general purpose vehicles C. Monthly special purpose vehicles D. Monthly general purpose vehicles
D. Monthly general purpose vehicles
What term is used to describe the ability of a substance to support combustion? A. Volatility B. Fire point C. Flash point D. Flammability
D. Flammability
During the Type 3 hydrant system's shutdown process, the pressure control valve reduces the system pressure to... A. 60 pounds per square inch (psi) B. 65 psi C. 70 psi D. 75 psi
D. 75 psi
The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 245 is... A. an continuation of the AFTO Form 244 B. an inventory management record C. a cryotainer inspection workcard D. a lifelong historical data record
A. an continuation of the AFTO Form 244
which specialized publications are primarily used to organize and simplify instructions? A. Time compliance technical orders B. Technical manual supplements C. Abbreviated technical orders D. Commercial technical orders
C. Abbreviated technical orders
What component in the Beta-Freightliner cab illuminates and indicates the vehicle cannot be moved whenever the lift platform is not fully set in the DOWN position?
A. Safety interlock override switch
B. Interlock override indicator light
C. Interlock engaged indicator light
D. Power takeoff (PTO) control switch
C. Interlock engaged indicator light
