Unit Questions Flashcards
What is the maximum time interval permitted by the vehicle identification link (VIL) in which to make a pump selection? A. 399 seconds B. 699 seconds C. 999 seconds D. 1,299 seconds
C. 999 seconds
What does a flashing red and green light signal from the air traffic control tower mean to a moving vehicle on the flight line? A. General warning, use extreme caution B. Return to starting point C. Safe to cross D. Stop
A. General warning, use extreme caution
What component on the Type 4 hydrant system shuts down the fueling pumps when water and sediment are detected in the fuel? A. filter separator B. fuel discharge valve C. nonsurge check valve D. contamination monitor
D. contamination monitor
What Type 3 system component signals the microprocessor to turn on the lead pump when the system pressure drops below 60 pounds per square inch (psi)? A. flow indicating transmitter B. loop indicating transmitter C. pressure indicating transmitter D. differential pressure transmitter
C. pressure indicating transmitter
At a minimum, fuel servicing equipment used for concurrent servicing should be pressurized and checked for serviceability once every how many hours? A. 8 B. 12 C. 24 D. 48
C. 24
Unit type codes have how many alphanumeric characters designating a manpower, equipment, or both manpower and equipment force that is tasked with completing a specific mission? A. Six B. Five C. Four D. Three
B. Five
When servicing an Air Force aircraft that does not have an identaplate, obtain the necessary billing information from the aircraft’s…
A. Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781F, Aerospace Vehicle Identification Document
B. tail number and mission number
C. DD Form 1898, Every Sale Slip
D. station plate
A. Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781F, Aerospace Vehicle Identification Document
Along with the unit training manager, which fuels section coordinates upgrade training programs and requirements for fuels personnel? A. Fuels information service center B. Fuels management team C. Fuels training D. Fuels mobility
C. Fuels training
How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before inserting any object, even to determine the level of the fuel? A. 15 B. 20 C. 30 D. 35
C. 30
Within how many feet of an aircraft fuel vent outlet can only approved intrinsically safe commercial mobile devices be operated? A. 10 B. 25 C. 50 D. 75
A. 10
What handheld device is used to shut off fuel flow if the operator becomes incapacitated? A. hydrant control valve B. Fuel flow shutoff valve C. deadman control valve D. emergency shutoff button
C. deadman control valve
Which action should you initiate first if a fire or fuel leak occurs during hot refueling operation? A. stop fuel flow B. stop the aircraft engines C. notify the fire department D. disconnect the fuel nozzle
A. stop fuel flow
How is fuel used at the automotive fuel storage and dispensing system normally received? A. pipeline B. tank car C. tank truck D. tanker/barge
C. tank truck
Which is not a hazard of liquid nitrogen?
A. Reduces the concentration of oxygen
B. Freezes or badly damages human tissue upon contact
C. Burns or explodes upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel
D. Build up to tremendous pressure if it evaporates in a confined area
C. Burns or explodes upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel
To concurrently service cargo/passenger aircraft, which action must the single point receptacle (SPR) monitor take before connecting the nozzle to the aircraft?
A. inspect the locking pins/lugs and seal for serviceability visually
B. check the strainer coupling quick disconnect device
C. set the applicable tank refuel switches to open
D. preform the fuel preflow check
A. inspect the locking pins/lugs and seal for serviceability visually
The power takeoff (PTO) interlock system on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler prevents the
A. unfiltered fuel from being dispensed to an aircraft
B. fuel from passing through the pump when the engine is idling
C. auxiliary throttle from operating when the PTO is in the vehicle drive position
D. auxiliary throttle from operating when the PTO is in the vehicle pump position
C. auxiliary throttle from operating when the PTO is in the vehicle drive position
What AF Form is used to document liquid oxygen (LOX) and liquid nitrogen (LIN) inventories? A. 1231 B. 1233 C. 1235 D. 1237
C. 1235
After you obtain a sample with an in line sampler, how many seconds should elapse before disassembling the sampler? A. 30 B. 60 C. 90 D. 120
B. 60
At what pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) is the R 12's defuel pump capable of delivering fuel to the Type 3 hydrant system? A. 125 psi B. 135 psi C. 165 psi D. 185 psi
C. 165 psi
During receipt operations, how far in front and to the rear of a tank truck should danger signs be placed when offloading in an unsecure area?
A. 50 feet to the front, 100 feet to the rear
B. 25 feet to the front, 50 feet to the rear
C. 50 feet to the front and rear
D. 25 feet to the front and rear
C. 50 feet to the front and rear
What form serves as a record for all issues and returns to bulk?
A. Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) Form 1233
B. Air Force (AF) Form 1235
C. DESC Form 1235
D. AF Form 1233
A. Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) Form 1233
All items must be contained in each servicing clipboard except…
A. Standard Form (SF) 91, Motor Vehicle Accident Report
B. Department of Defense (DD) Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip
C. Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 422, Differential Pressure Log
D. Air Force (AF) Form 4427, Operator’s Inspection Guide and Trouble Report
A. Standard Form (SF) 91, Motor Vehicle Accident Report
Who should be notified when a caution tag has been removed from a vehicle or equipment?
A. Fuels service center
B. Fuels management team
C. Fuels information service center superintendent
D. Fuels environmental safety office
A. Fuels service center
Who must be notified for product disposition if excessive contamination is detect in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts?
A. appropriate quality assurance representative (QAR)
B. company who shipped the product
C. base fuels laboratory personnel
D. area laboratory personnel
A. appropriate quality assurance representative (QAR)
Who appoints a primary and alternate fuels responsible officer to oversee the care and safegaurding of petroleum stocks and accountable records?
A. Fuels management team
B. Fuels information service center
C. Defense logistics agency energy
D. Logistics readiness squadron commander
D. Logistics readiness squadron commander
Which condition will cause the vibrating horn to sound on the Type 3 hydrant system?
A. engine generator fault
B. four refueling pump running at the same time
C. manual valve closed on the product recovery tank
D. hydrant servicing vehicle flow control valve inoperative
A. engine generator fault
What vehicles must e processed through the checkpoint for daily inspections?
A. Mobile refueling units
B. General purpose vehicles
C. All vehicles assigned to the fuels management flight
D. Only vehicles needed to support daily mission requirements
D. Only vehicles needed to support daily mission requirements
To use engine braking in the Kovatch-Series R-11s, what gear selector position can you use?
A. Reverses
B. Neutral
C. Drive
D. Three
D. Three
When conduction a field analysis for solids using the color and particle assessment method, what device is used to remove residual fuel from a single filter monitor? A. metal syringe B. vacuum flask C. roto vap flask D. industrial syringe
A. metal syringe
When performing a flashpoint analysis, ensure the sample and the test cup temperature is…
A. at room temperature
B. between 60 and 75 degrees Fahrenheit
C. between 60 and 75 degrees Celsius
D. at least 32 degrees Fahrenheit below the expected flashpoint
D. at least 32 degrees Fahrenheit below the expected flashpoint
The fuels preventative maintenance supervisor is responsible to which individual for the technical supervision of operators' equipment inspection and maintenance? A. Fuels manager B. Fuels distribution supervisor C. Fuels management flight chief D. Fuels operations superintendent
B. Fuels distribution supervisor
What symbol on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to represent an unsatisfactory condition exists, but it is not sufficiently dangerous enough to warrant not using the equipment? A. red x B. red dash C. red circle D. red diagonal
D. red diagonal
How quickly will the emergency shutoff valve close after a power failure, or the emergency stop button is pushed? A. 4 seconds B. 6 seconds C. 8 seconds D. 10 seconds
D. 10 seconds
When receiving fuel at the military service station, what information is not required on the Department of Defense (DD) Form 250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report? A. delivery schedule B. seal numbers C. fuel grade D. quantity
A. delivery schedule
Which type of Air Force publication includes instructions and manuals? A. Standard B. Technical C. Recurring D. Specialized
A. Standard
Which radio transmission 10 code means request fire truck at location? A. 10/18 B. 10/19 C. 10/87 D. 10/97
A. 10/18
The air within the air purge unit is heated to... A. 250 degrees Fahrenheit B. 300 degrees Fahrenheit C. 350 degrees Fahrenheit D. 400 degrees Fahrenheit
C. 350 degrees Fahrenheit
When performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis, the fuel/water mixture in the separtory funnel should be shaken for... A. one minute B. three minutes C. five minutes D. seven minutes
C. five minutes
What company was the first to design and install the Type 3 hydrant system? A. Phillips Petroleum Company B. Panero Petroleum Systems C. Pritchard Petroleum Company D. Palacios Petroleum Systems
A. Phillips Petroleum Company
When flushing Type 3, 4, and 5 hydrant systems, a visual sample should be drawn on the return loop at the…
A. beginning of flushing operations
B. midpoint of flushing operations
C. completion of flushing operations
D. beginning, midpoint, and completion of flushing operations
B. midpoint of flushing operations
As a minimum how often should cryotainer pressure gauges be calibrated? A. monthly B. quarterly C. semiannually D. annually
D. annually
The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) Energy Form 702 is prepared to cover a 24 hour duty day that runs from... A. 2400 to 2400 B. 0600 to 0600 C. 0800 to 0800 D. 0900 to 0900
A. 2400 to 2400
Unlike most other fueling operations, cryogenic production does not stop when electrical storms are within... A. 1 nautical mile B. 3 nautical miles C. 5 nautical miles D. 7 nautical miles
C. 5 nautical miles
Which Type 3 hydrant system valve will open to relieve thermal expansion? A. bypass B. defuel/flush C. hydrant control D. pressure control
D. pressure control
On the Type 5 hydrant system, what size (in inches) are the stainless steel pantographs installed inside the hardened shelters? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
A. 3
You should discontinue fuel operations when electrical storms are within how many nautical miles of a fuel servicing area? A. 3 B. 5 C. 10 D. 25
B. 5
What size mesh screen is used in the Type 3 hydrant system receiving strainer? A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80
C. 60
The low air pressure warning light and alarm on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler will activate when the air pressure drops below how many pounds per square in (psi)?
A. 60
B. 65
C. 70
D. 80
A. 60
What major command (MAJCOM) developed the Type 4 hydrant system?
A. Pacific Air Forces (PACAF)
B. Air Combat Command (ACC)
C. Air Mobility Command (AMC)
D. United States Air Forces in Europe (USAFE)
D. United States Air Forces in Europe (USAFE)
Which procedure is only accomplished during a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt?
A. test for odor
B. monitor the transfer for leaks
C. check the Department of Defense (DD) Form 250
D. ensure there is sufficient ullage in the receiving tank
A. test for odor
The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is at the…
A. top of the hydrometer
B. bottom of the cylinder
C. point at which the principal surface of the liquid cuts the thermometer scale
D. point at which the principal surface of the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale
D. point at which the principal surface of the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale
What type of fuel servicing operations would not require a fuels flight line expediter?
A. Aircraft defueling
B. Ground fuel servicing
C. Multiple source refueling
D. Concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft
B. Ground fuel servicing
When conducting a flashpoint analysis, how long should the flam be applied to the vapor cup when in the lowered position? A. .5 second B. 1 second C. 1.5 seconds D. 2 seconds
B. 1 second
What type of cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test? A. graduated B. wide mouth C. precalibrated D. pharmaceutical
A. graduated
Which type of heat transfer is the only one the operator can control in a cryotainer? A. radiation B. convection C. conduction D. Vaporization
B. convection
What form is used as a temporary means of identifying conditions that could result in death, disability, or a lost workday? A. AF Form 979, Danger Tag B. AF Form 980, Caution Tag C. AFTO Form 979, Critical Log D. AFTO Form 980, Care Tag
A. AF Form 979, Danger Tag
When obtaining a sample for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) water analysis method, how much fuel should pass through the test pad? A. one gallon B. one quart C. 600 milliliters D. 300 milliliters
D. 300 milliliters
The American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is most accurate when the fuel temperature is near... A. 30 degrees Fahrenheit B. 50 degrees Fahrenheit C. 60 degrees Fahrenheit D. 90 degrees Fahrenheit
C. 60 degrees Fahrenheit
The fueling control valve on the Type 4 hydrant system is opened to perform hot refueling operations by…
A. a flow switch located before the control pit
B. air pressure from the deadman control valve
C. fuel pressure from the deadman control valve
D. a pressure switch located before the control pit
B. air pressure from the deadman control valve
Fuels management and civil engineering (CE)/water and fuel systems maintenance (WSFM) personnel will develop specific operating instructions for hydrant system flushing based on the…
A. type of system
B. rated capacity of the system
C. type of system and number of control valves in the system
D. rated capacity of the system and the number of control valves in the system
A. type of system
The Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment FORCE System is not capable of... A. aircraft refueling B. aircraft defueling C. tank truck off loading D. storage bladder transferring
B. Aircraft Defueling
Heat can be transferred in cryotainers by…
A. conduction, convection, and radiation
B. convection, radiation, and vaporization
C. conduction, radiation, and vaporization
D. conduction, convection, and vaporization
A. conduction, convection, and radiation
When performing a daily inspection of fixed hydrant system filter separators, you must inspect the vessel for 3/4 to 1 inch markings that include all of the following information except…
A. type of filter elements installed
B. maximum allowable differential pressure
C. date of last filter element change in the MMM/YY format
D. date of the next filter element change in the MMM/YY format
C. date of last filter element change in the MMM/YY format
How is the deadman control valve operated on the Type 5 hydrant system? A. electrically B. air pressure C. mechanically D. fuel pressure
D. fuel pressure
Which valve(s) on the Type 3 hydrant system will modulate open, allowing the fuel to pass through when returning to the operating tanks during a defuel operation?
A. defuel/flush
B. backpressure control
C. pressure control and defuel/flush
D. pressure control and backpressure control
B. backpressure control
During a transfer operation, when is water removal from the tanks not required?
A. never
B. when equipped with a water drain valve
C. when equipped with an Enraf vito probe in the sump and no water presence is shown
D. when equipped with an ITT Barton automated tank gauging (ATG) and no water presence is shown
C. when equipped with an Enraf vito probe in the sump and no water presence is shown
Which is not a status indicator light-emitting diode (LED) on the Beta-Freightliner R-12 Hydrant-Servicing Unit defuel engine control governor?
A. OKAY TO PUMP
B. PUMP ENGAGED
C. SUMP TANK FULL
D. THROTTLE READY
C. SUMP TANK FULL
During Type 4 hydrant system operations, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the "hot pad?" A. fuels operator B. operations supervisor C. Hot refueling crewman D. hot refueling supervisor
D. hot refueling supervisor
A three digit code that identifies personnel with special training or experience to meet contingency and base level requirements is called a... A. Special experience indicator B. Special experience identifier C. Specific experience indicator D. Specific experience identifier
B. Special experience identifier
How many fuel servicing hoses are the Beta International Hydrant Servicing vehicles equipped with? A. Four B. Three C. Two D. One
A. Four
What is the maximum amount of time that can elapse between obtaining a conductivity sample and taking the conductivity reading? A. 24 hours B. 12 hours C. six hours D. three hours
A. 24 hours
What is the maximum amount of gallons of fuel permitted in a fuel laboratory? A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 25
B. 10
When manually gauging a tank, where should fuel finding paste be applied on the steel tape?
A. 2 inches above and below the estimated product depth
B. 3 inches above and below the estimated product depth
C. 2 inches above and 3 inches below the estimated product depth
D. 3 inches above and 2 inches below the estimated product depth
B. 3 inches above and below the estimated product depth
What is the maximum gallons per minute (gpm) flow rate of the R 12's defuel pump? A. 250 gpm B. 300 gpm C. 450 gpm D. 600 gpm
B. 300 gpm
What heat related injuries may occur when you have muscle cramps in the abdominal wall or limbs? A. Heat exhaustion B. Heat cramps C. Heatstroke D. Sunstroke
B. Heat Cramp
Which FuelsManager Defense application is used to track sampling dates and store sampling results? A. dispatch B. tank detail C. equipment log D. quality control
D. quality control
What action, if any, should be taken if fuel flow does not stop during the fuel flow precheck of a cargo/passenger aircraft concurrent servicing operation?
A. no action is required as this is a common occurrence
B. stop the operation and do not resume until the problem has been resolved
C. stop the operation temporarily, restart fuel flow, then re attempt the fuel flow prechecks
D. continue the operation and inform the concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS) of the situation
B. stop the operation and do not resume until the problem has been resolved
While performing a concurrent servicing operation, vehicles will not be allowed to operate or pass within how many feet of aircraft fuel vents? A. 10 B. 25 C. 35 D. 50
B. 25
Comprehensive energy support for the Department of Defense (DOD) is the responsibility of which organization?
A. Air Force Petroleum Office
B. Defense Logistics Agency Energy
C. Defense Logistics Agency Energy regions
D. HQ USAF Directorate of Logistics, Logistics Readiness Division, Fuels Management Branch
B. Defense Logistics Agency Energy
Much time and expense are involved in investigating and... A. solving accidents B. reporting accidents C. validating accidents D. discovering accidents
B. Reporting accidents
The brake system on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler will automatically (engage), apply parking brakes when the
A. air pressure drops below 30 to 40 pounds per square inch (psi)
B. transmission selector is in the neutral position
C. unit is in the AIR TRANSPORT mode
D. interaxle differential lock is activated
A. air pressure drops below 30 to 40 pounds per square inch (psi)
Which term is used to describe the temperature at which a liquids actively starts to vaporize? A. Volatility B. Fire point C. Flash point D. Boiling point
D. Boiling Point
Before issuing liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) to a receiving cryotainer, open the pressure build up valve until the pressure gauge, in pounds per square inch (psi), indicates... A. 5 to 10 psi B. 10 to 15 psi C. 20 to 25 psi D. 45 to 50 psi
B. 10 to 15 psi
During fueling operations with the Beta Freightliner R12 Hydrant Servicing Unit, the deadman switch must be re activated, to prevent automatic shutdown, every... A. 30 seconds B. 1 minute C. 1 1/2 minutes D. 2 minutes
D. 2 minutes
What is the freeze point for Jet A jet fuel? A. negative 40 degrees Fahrenheit B. negative 58 degrees Celsius C. negative 51 degrees Fahrenheit D. negative 40 degrees Celsius
A. Negative 40 degrees Fahrenheit
Printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test should be replaced... A. monthly B. quarterly C. semiannually D. annually
D. annually
Who raises the lift platform on a Beta Freightliner R12 when servicing fuel to an aircraft? A. Crew chief B. fuels operator C. line expeditor D. concurrent servicing supervisor
A. Crew chief
Which form is the primary means to record fuel issues to aircraft?
A. AF Form 1233, Bulk Storage Summary
B. AF Form 1235, Physical Inventory (Fuels/Missile Propellants)
C. DD Form 1896, DOD Fuel Identaplate
D. DD Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip
D. DD Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip
The lettering on a concurrent servicing supervisors (CSS) reflective vest will be at least…
A. six inches in height, five inches wide
B. six inches in height, four inches wide
C. four inches in height, two inches wide
D. four inches in height, three inches wide
B. six inches in height, four inches wide
Technical orders TO that cover installing, operating, troubleshooting, repairing, calibrating, servicing, or handling Air Force military systems are called... A. Index TO B. Time Compliance TOs (TCTO) C. Operations and maintenance TOs D. Methods and procedures TOs (MPTO)
C. Operations and maintenance TOs
Which organization provides detailed schematic charts and coordinates with the fuels management team for operating checklists on each permanently installed fuel system?
A. Aircraft maintenance
B. Base Civil Engineering
C. Fuels information service center
D. Wing safety office and bioenvironmental engineering
B. Base Civil Engineering
what is the gallon capacity of the C300/301 ground servicing units storage tank? A. 1000 B. 1200 C. 1500 D. 2000
B. 1200
As a minimum, liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tanks should be purged every... A. 90 days B. 120 days C. 240 days D. 365 days
D. 365 days
How many gallons will a TMU 20/E cryotainer hold? A. 50 B. 400 C. 2,000 D. 5,000
D. 5,000
At a minimum, how many measuring points does the measurement probe on an automated tank gauging system have? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6
A. 2
Maintaining radio transmission discipline over the radio net is the responsibility of the fuels…
A. controllers
B. management team
C. information service center superintendent
D. service center noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)
A. controllers
What system is designed to cut all electric current running to all dispensers when activated? A. fuel shutoff system B. pump shutoff system C. electrical power down system D. emergency power down system
D. emergency power down system
Who is responsible for establishing and updating Air Force policy for managing petroleum resources?
A. Air Force Petroleum Office
B. Defense Logistics Agency Energy
C. Defense Logistics Agency Energy regions
D. HQ USAF Directorate of Logistics, Logistics Readiness Division, Fuels Management Branch
D. HQ USAF Directorate of Logistics, Logistics Readiness Division, Fuels Management Branch
Bonding receptacles will be inspected with a pounds per square inch (psi) spring scale for a pull of... A. 6 to 12 psi B. 8 to 12 psi C. 6 to 14 psi D. 8 to 14 psi
D. 8 to 14 psi
Which of these acts as the United States Air Force’s service control point?
A. Air Force Petroleum Office
B. Defense Logistics Agency Energy
C. Defense Logistics Agency Energy regions
D. Air Force Installation and Mission Support Center
A. Air Force Petroleum Office
Who in a fuels management flight is responsible for administering the caution tag program?
A. Fuels laboratory section
B. Fuels management team
C. Fuels environmental safety office
D. Fuels information service center superintendent
A. Fuels laboratory section
In inches, what is the diameter of the manway with access ladder used for military service station above and below ground tanks? A. 18 B. 24 C. 36 D. 48
C. 36
A sample taken 6 inches below the surface contents of a JP 8 jet fuel bulk storage tank is called... A. a top sample B. an upper sample C. an all level sample D. a composite sample
A. a top sample
The water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on which class of fire? A. A B. B C. C D. D
A. A
The C300/301 ground servicing unit is normally equipped with how many feet of 1 1/2 inch diameter hose? A. 50 B. 75 C. 100 D. 125
C. 100
What does a heavy freeze spot on the outer hose of a liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) transfer hose indicate?
A. the inner hose is damaged
B. the outer hose is damaged
C. a faulty valve at the tank outlet
D. the hose connection is not tight enough
A. the inner hose is damaged
When defueling with a Beta Freightliner R12, what button do you press to adjust the pressure to the desired level, to maintain a steady flow? A. UP B. INC C. LOW D. DOWN
B. INC
Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within how many feet of operating aircraft radar? A. 100 B. 150 C. 200 D. 300
D. 300
A temporary means of warning personnel against potential hazards or as a caution against unsafe practices is the... A. AF Form 979, Danger Tag B. AF Form 980, Caution Tag C. DD Form 979, Temporary Tag D. DD Form 980, Warning Tag
B. AF Form 980, Caution Tag
When receiving ground fuel with the C300/301 ground servicing unit, the tank fill rate should not exceed... A. 100 gallons per minute (gpm) B. 200 gpm C. 300 gpm D. 600 gpm
D. 600 gpm
At what temperature in degrees Fahrenheit will liquid oxygen (LOX) vaporize into a gaseous state? A. negative 297 degrees Fahrenheit B. negative 321 degrees Fahrenheit C. negative 379 degrees Fahrenheit D. negative 395 degrees Fahrenheit
A. Negative 297 degrees Fahrenheit
How many cryotainers can be connected in a series when transporting cryotainers on an aircraft using the overboard vent system? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
B. 3
