Unit One Flashcards

1
Q

What are non-coding RNA genes

A

Genes that do not code for proteins

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2
Q

What are some factors that can make a cell vary the proteins expressed

A

Metabolic activity
Cellular stress
Responded to signalling molecules
Diseased cells

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3
Q

Eukaryotic cells have plasma membrane:
What is a eukaryotic cell and what is the plasma membrane

A
  1. A cell with a nucleus
  2. The boundary around the outside of the cell
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4
Q

What is another trait of a eukaryotic cell

not plasma membrane or nucleus

A

They have internal membranes to increase the total area of the membrane

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5
Q

What does the size of a eukaryotic cells mean

A

They will have a small surface area to volume ratio. And therefore too small to carry out all the vital functions carried out by membranes

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6
Q

What are other cells that have membranes

A

Endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus
Lysosomes
Vesicles

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7
Q

The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) forms a network of tubules with the nuclear membrane what are the two types of tubules and their differences

A

Rough endoplamsic reticulum (RER)-Rough the ribosomes are on the outside of the cystolic face.
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)- lacks ribosomes

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8
Q

What is the Golgi apparatus

A

A series of flattened discs

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9
Q

What is a lysosome

A

They are a membrane bound to organelles containing variety of hydrolases that digest
Proteins
Lipids
Nuclei acid
And carbohydrates

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10
Q

What is a hydrolases

A

They are enzymes that catalase the cleavage of a covalent bond bond using water

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11
Q

what does a vesicle do

A

Transport materials between compartments

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12
Q

What are membranes made of

A

They are made of proteins and lipids

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13
Q

Where are lipids synthesised

A

In the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) and insterted into the membrane

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14
Q

Where does the beginning of protein synthesis occur

A

In the cytosolic ribosomes but the location of the end process is completed is depended on the protein being made

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15
Q

what do multicellular organisms use to signal between cells

A

extracellular signalling molecules

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16
Q

what is an extracellular signalling molecule (examples)

A

steroid hormones
peptide hormones
neurotransmitters

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17
Q

describe nervous communication

A

electrical impulses and neurotransmiters
transported along neurons
faster response
transient response
localised extent of response

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18
Q

describe hormonal communication

A

hormones signal
bloodstream transmission
targets almost any cells in the body
slower response
longer duration response
widespread response

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19
Q

what causes a conformational change of a receptor

A

binding at site for a specific signal molecule

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20
Q

why do signalling molecules have different effects on different target cell

A

due to differences in the intracellular signalling molecules and pathways that are involved

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21
Q

in multicellular organisms different cell types may show what

A

tissue specific response to the same signal

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22
Q

describe hydrophobic signals

A

they can diffuse directly through the phospholipid bilayers of membranes they bind to intracellular receptors in the cytosol

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23
Q

why are hydrophobic signals able to diffuse through phospholipid bilayers

A

the tails of the phospholipids in the plasma membrane are both hydrophobic to allow for the molecules to pass.

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24
Q

what are the receptors for hydrophobic signalling molecules

A

transcription factors

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25
Q

what is a transcription factor

A

proteins that when bound to DNA can inhibit or stimulate initiation of transcription, can enhance or block binding of RNA polymerase to specific genes. control whether the gene is transcribed and therefore expressed

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26
Q

what are example of hydrophobic signals

A

steroid hormones (oestrogen and testosterone )

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27
Q

where do steroid hormones bind (2)

A

1.specific receptors in the cytosol

  1. the nucleus forming-receptor complex
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28
Q

What happens when the hormone receptor complex moves to the nucleus

A

binds to specific sites on DNA

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29
Q

what is the hormone response element
(HRE)

A

the specific DNA sequences that the hormone-receptor complex binds to

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30
Q

what does binding at HRE influence

A

influences the rate of transcription, and gene expression

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31
Q

describe hydrophilic signalling

A

bind to transmembrane receptors and DONT enter cytosol
not capable of passing across hydrophilic plasma membrane

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32
Q

examples of hydrophilic signalling

A

peptide hormones
neurotransmitters

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33
Q

describe a ligand

A

hydrophilic signalling molecule that binds to another molecule

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34
Q

when ligands bind to the extracellular face what changes conformation

A

trans-membrane receptors

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35
Q

What are the three key steps of hydrophobic signalling

A

reception
transduction
response

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36
Q

describe reception in hydrophilic signalling

A

signalling molecule binds to trans-membrane receptor

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37
Q

describe transduction in hydrophilic signalling

A

signal is passed through the cell

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38
Q

describes response in hydrophilic signalling

A

will vary depending on the signal.

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39
Q

What causes altered behavior of the cell in hydrophilic signal receptors

A

trans-membrane receptors act as signal transducers by converting the extracellular ligand-binding event into intracellular signals

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40
Q

what do transduced hydrophilic signals involve

A

g-proteins
cascades of phosphorylation by kinase enzymes

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41
Q

describe G-proteins

A

relay signals from activated receptors to target proteins such as enzyme and ion channels

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42
Q

describe cascades of phosphorylation

A

one kinase activates the next in the sequence.
They can result in the phosphorylation of many proteins as a result of the original signalling event.
They can allow for more than one intracellular signalling pathway to be activated

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43
Q

what hormones are involved in glucose blood levels

A

insulin
glucagon

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44
Q

features of insulin

A

made as a result of increased glucose in blood
made in pancreas
hydrophilic peptide hormone
allows for tissue and skeletal muscles to absorb glucose from the bloodstream

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45
Q

how does glucose pass into cells

A

through a transporter protein called GLUT4 by facilitated diffusion

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46
Q

describe type one diabetes

A

detected in early years
caused by a failure to produce insulin
treated by regular insulin injections throughout the day

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47
Q

describe type two diabetes

A

caused by being overweight or inactive
discovered later in life
loss of insulin receptor function
lifestyle changes
exercise triggers recruitment of GLUT4 so can improve uptake of glucose to fat and muscle cells

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48
Q

what is a membrane potential

A

(an electrical potential difference) is created when there is a difference in electrical charge on the two
sides of the membrane.

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49
Q

what is the resting membrane potential

A

a state where there is no net flow of ions across the membrane
-60 and -80mV when cell is not transmitting signals

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50
Q

what does a nerve transmission require

A

changes in the membrane potential of the
neuron’s plasma membrane nerve transmissions a wave of depolarisation of the resting potential of a neuron

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51
Q

what is depolarisation

A

is a change in the membrane potential to a less negative value inside cell

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52
Q

what is action potential

A

a wave of electrical excitation along a neuron’s plasma membrane

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53
Q

what are neurotransmitter receptors

A

ligand gated ion channels

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54
Q

what are the two types of photoreceptor cell in the retina

A

rods and cones

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55
Q

describe rod cells

A

sensitive to changes in light intensity
useful for vision in areas with low light

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56
Q

describe cone cells

A

sensitive to specific colours
allow animals to have coloured vision

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57
Q

what do photoreceptors of the eye contain

A

light-sensitive molecule-retinal
membrane protein-opsin

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58
Q

what is the rod cells the retinal-opsin complex called

A

rhodopsin

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59
Q

what happens in cone cells when different forms of opsin combine with retinal

A

they give different photoreceptor proteins with a maximal sensitivity to specific wavelengths of light

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60
Q

describe the plasma membrane

A

fluid mosaic model
allows entry and exit of materials
composed of phospholipids and proteins

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61
Q

describe the head region of the phospholipids

A

hydrophilic, polar (attracted to water)

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62
Q

describe the tail region of the phospholipids

A

hydrophobic, non-polar (repelled by water)

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63
Q

what kinds of proteins are there in the membrane

A

active transport proteins
channel forming proteins
enzymes
receptors
attachment proteins for the cell cytoskeleton

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64
Q

what is a cytoskeleton

A

The cytoskeleton gives mechanical support and shape to cells

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65
Q

describe integral proteins

A

proteins found inside the protein
some are transmembrane these span the entire length of the membrane eg. channels
they react heavily with the hydrophobic region of membrane phospholipids
region of hydrophobic R groups allow strong hydrophobic interactions that hold integral membrane proteins

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66
Q

describe peripheral proteins

A

found on the surface of the membranes have hydrophilic R groups on their surface and are bound to mem surface, by ionic and hydrogen bonds

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67
Q

what molecules can pass through the membrane by diffusion

A

small molecules such as
oxygen carbon dioxide

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68
Q

what are the different types of proteins involved in transporting substances

A

channel proteins- ligand, voltage gated
transporter proteins
protein pumps

69
Q

what is facilitated diffusion

A

passive transport of substances across the membrane through specific transmembrane proteins

70
Q

what proteins use facilitated diffusion +eg

A

channel proteins and transporter proteins
small intestine cells have glucose transporters

71
Q

describe channel proteins

A

multi-subunit proteins with subunits arranged to form water filled pores that extend across the membrane.
most are highly selective
some are gated and change conformation to allow or prevent diffusion

72
Q

describe gated channels

A

they respond to a stimulus which causes them to open or close
could be either ligand or voltage

73
Q

describe ligand gated channels

A

controlled by binding of signal molecules
when correct signal molecules binds the gate opens allowing ions to flow through

74
Q

describe voltage gated channels

A

controlled by changes in ion concentration

75
Q

describe transporter proteins

A

bind to specific substance to be transported
conformational change transfer solute across the membrane
alternates between two conformational changes
so one binding site for a solute is sequentially exposed on one side of the bilayer then the other

76
Q

describe protein pumps

A

active transport uses pump proteins that transfer substances across the membrane against their concentration gradient
pumps that carry out active transport are transporter proteins couples to an energy source

77
Q

what is required for protein pumps to transfer substances

A

a source of metabolic energy (for active transport)

78
Q

what are proteins that hydrolyse ATP directly called

79
Q

how is energy provided for the conformational change required to move substances across the membrane

A

active transport proteins hydrolyse ATP directly

80
Q

what is an electrochemical gradient

A

the concentration gradient and electrical potential difference combine to form the electrochemical gradient

81
Q

what is the definition concentration gradient

A

difference in concentration of a solute across the plasma membrane

82
Q

what is the definition of electrical potential difference (aka membrane potential)

A

A membrane potential is created when there is a difference in electrical charge on the two sides of the membrane.

83
Q

what is the sodium potassium pump also known as

A

Na/K-ATPase

84
Q

what happens to each ATP hydrolysed

A

three sodium ions lebae the cell and two potassium ions are transported into the cell

85
Q

what does it mean that the sodium potassium pump is foind in most animal cells

A

This accounts for a high proportion of the basal metabolic rate in many organisms

86
Q

in the intestinal epithelial cells what is generated when the sodium potassium pump

A

a sodium ion gradientw

87
Q

what is the glucose transporter responsible for

A

glucose symport transports sodium ions and glucose at the same time and in the same direction

88
Q

describe lipids ; where synthesis starts, where it finishes and where the product goes

A
  1. ser
  2. membrane
89
Q

describe cytosolic; where synthesis starts, where it finishes and where the product goes

A

cytosolic ribosomes
remain in cytosol

90
Q

describe transmembrane proteins where synthesis starts, where it finishes and where the product goes

A
  1. RER
    ER
    cell membrane
91
Q

what happens when the protein is made in the rer and is put into the lumen of the rer

A

transported by vesicles that bud off from the RER and fuse with the golgi apparatus

92
Q

what happens as the proteins move through the golgi apparatus

A

they undergo a post-translational modification

93
Q

what happens during the post-TRANSLATIONAL modification

A

this is when polypeptide chains have carbohydrates or phosphates added to them are cleaved (cut) to make them an active protein
the major modification is carbohydrates

94
Q

what is enzymes catalyses the addition of various sugars

95
Q

what happens when a cell secretes substances and an eg.

A

Release to the outside peptide hormones
insulin and digestive enzymes

96
Q

what is a cytoskeleton

A

a network of proteins throughout the cytoplasm
it also gives mechanical support and shape to cells

97
Q

describe microtubules

A

hollow straight cylinders composed of proteins called tubulins (alpha and beta)

98
Q

what does formation and breakdown of the microtubules involve

A

the polymerisation(growth of the microtubule) and depolymerisation (shrinkage of the microtubule) of tubulin

99
Q

what do microtubules control

A

movement of the membrane-bound organelles and chromosomes (eg.endoplasmic reticulum )

100
Q

what do microtubules do in cell division

A

they form spindle fibres

101
Q

what is the mitotic index

A

percentage of cells in a sample undergoing mitosis

102
Q

What is the cell cycle used for

A

used for growth and repair
continual process

103
Q

what is the two parts cell cycle is divided into

A

interphase
mitotic phase

104
Q

describe interphase

A

active period of growth
g1: a growth period
s phase: dna is replicated in prep for mitosis
G2 another growth period, proteins and organelles synthesised

105
Q

mitotic phase

A

end of g2 cells enter mphase
this is in two stages
mitosis-chromosomal material is separated
cytokinesis- separation of the cytoplasm

106
Q

describe prophase

A

DNA condenses into
chromosomes each consisting of two sister
chromatids. Nuclear membrane breaks down;
spindle microtubules extend from the MTOC
by polymerisation and attach to
chromosomes via their kinetochores in the
centromere region.

107
Q

describe metaphase

A

chromosomes are aligned at
the metaphase plate (equator of the spindle).

108
Q

describe anaphase

A

as spindle microtubules shorten
by depolymerisation, sister chromatids are
separated, and the chromosomes are pulled
to opposite poles.

109
Q

describe telephase

A

the chromosomes decondense
and nuclear membranes are formed around
them.

110
Q

what is cytokinesis

A

follows telephase and the cytoplasm of the cell splits to give two daughter cells

111
Q

what is the function of the microtubules

A

aligning chromosomes on metaphase plate
separating sister chromatids
formation of daughter nuclei

112
Q

describe checkpoints

A

mechanisms within the cell that assess the condition of the cell during the cell cycle and halt the progression to the next phase until certain requirements are met.

114
Q

describe G1 checkpoints

A

occur towards the end of G1; sufficient cell growth must have occured before the cell can enter s phase
At the G1 checkpoint, retinoblastoma protein (Rb) acts as a tumour suppressor by
inhibiting the transcription of genes that code for proteins needed for DNA replication

115
Q

describe G2 checkpoint

A

occurs at the end of G2; success of any DNA replication and any damage to DNA is assessed

116
Q

describe the M checkpoint

A

occurs during metaphase and controls to entry to anaphase. progression is halted until the chromosomes are aligned correctly on the metaphase plate and attached to the spindle microtubules

117
Q

Explain CDKs (3)

A

1cyclin proteins accumulate they are involved in cell growth and in regulating the cell cycle
2 cyclin combine and activate cyclin-dependent kinases(CDKs)
3 active cyclin-cdk complexes phosphorylate proteins that regulate progression through the cell cycle

118
Q

describe retinoblastoma

A

is a protein that acts as a tumour suppressor by inhibiting the transcription of genes that code for proteins needed for DNA replication
G1 CDKs phosphorylate the Rb protein. phosphorylation inhibits Rb
this allows transcription of the genes that code for proteins needed for DNA replication. cells can therefore progress from G1 to S phase

119
Q

describe p53

A

dna damage triggers the activation of protein P53
this can stimulate DNA repair arrest cell cycle
initiate apoptosis.

120
Q

descrive what it means Arrest cell cycle

A

this can allow time to recognise and fix the DNA damage so the cell can restart cell cycle

121
Q

when is apoptosis initiated

A

if the dna damage is too severe

122
Q

what hauses a degenerative disease

A

uncontrolled reduction in cell cycle rate

123
Q

what causes a tumor

A

an uncontrolled increase in the rate of cell cycle

124
Q

describe a proto-oncogene

A

a normal gene usually involved in the control of cell growth or division, which can mutate to form a tumour promoting oncogenes

125
Q

describe amino acids

A

are building blocks of proteins
proteins are polymers of amino acid monomers
amino acids are lined by peptide bonds to form polypeptides
around 20 different amino acids

126
Q

describe the peptide bond

A

a strong COVALENT bond between a carbon atom of one amino acid and the nitrogen atom of another amino acid. water is removed from between the two amino acids to allow the bond to form

127
Q

What do amino acids contain

A

central carbon atom
hydrogen atom
amine group
carboxylic acid group
r group
Carch

128
Q

what are the main categories the amino acids are split into (according to R group) are

A

polar
hydrophobic
acidic -ve
basic +ve

129
Q

describe acidic R groups

A

ends with a negatively charged group
hydrophilic
keu component of their R group is a carboxyllic acid group COOH

130
Q

descrivbe basic R groups

A

ends with a +ve charged group
hydrophilic
amine group

131
Q

describe polar R group s

A

slightly chargeed
hydrophilic
carbonyl, hydroxyl, amine group

132
Q

describe hydrophobic R groups

A

Hydrophobic
no charge
non-polar
hydrocarbon group- CH3 and rings

133
Q

what are the different levels of protein structure

A

primary
secondary
tertiary
quaternary

134
Q

describe the primary structure

A

the sequence on which the amino acids are synthesised into the polypeptide

135
Q

describe secondary structure

A

hydrogen bonding along the backbone of the protein strand results in regions of secondary structure.

136
Q

what are the three types of secondary structure

A

Alpha helix
beta sheets
turns

137
Q

describe alpha helix

A

is formed by TWISTING the polypeptide chain into a spiral/helix and then stabilising with hydrogen bonding
the R groups sticks out

138
Q

describe beta sheets

A

has parts of the chain running alongside each other forming a sheet
R groups sit above and below the sheet
they can be parallel or antiparallel

139
Q

describe turns

A

they reverse the direction of the polypeptide chain and the chain folds back in on itself

140
Q

describe tertiary structure

A

it is stabilised by many different interactions between R groups

141
Q

whta are he several possible R group INTERACTIONS

A

hydrophobic
ionic
LDF
Hydrogen bonds
Disulfide bridges

142
Q

describe hydrophobic reactions

A

tend to cluster together on the interior of a protein, away from the surface

143
Q

describe ionic bonds

A

Occurs when atoms that are oppositely charged are held by an electrostatic attraction COOH and NH2 become COO- andNH3+ they are strongly charged and attracted to each other

144
Q

describe LDF

A

weak interactions beween the electron clouds of atoms, these interactions may result in atraction or repulsion between atoms

145
Q

describe Hydrogen bonds

A

weaker interactions between amino acids it is an electrostatic attraction which occurs between H +FON

146
Q

describe disulfide bridges

A

covalent bond between R groups containing sulfur

147
Q

describe quaternary structure

A

they exist in proteins with two or more connected polypeptide subunits which are linked by bonds between the r groups of the poly peptide chains
quaternary structure describes the spatial arrangement of the subunits

148
Q

describe prosthetic groups +eg

A

a Prosthetic group is a non-protein unit tightly bound to a protein and necessary for its function
The ability of haemoglobin to bind oxygen is
dependent upon the non-protein haem group.

149
Q

what can influence the interactions of the R groups

A

pH and temperature

150
Q

how does increased temperature affect interactions of R groups

A

disrupts the interactions that hold the protein in shape.
the protein begins to unfold, becoming denatured

151
Q

how does changing pH affect R group interactions

A

as pH moves from optimum, the normal ionic interactions between charged groups are lost, which gradually changes conformation of the protein until it becomes denatured

152
Q

describe ligands

A

it is a substance that can bind to a protein
Ligand binding changes the conformation
of a protein and therefore causes a functional change in the protein

153
Q

describe allosteric enzymes

A

an enzyme whose activity is regulated by altering its conformation
many have quaternary structure
contain a second site Allosteric site, this binds to something other than the substrate

154
Q

describe modulators

A

they regulate the activity of enzyme when they bind to the allosteric site
after modulators conformation changes this alters the addinity of the active site for the substrate

155
Q

what is the two types of modulators

A

negative and positive

156
Q

negative modulators

A

reduce tje enzymes affinity for the substrate= decrease in activity

157
Q

positive modulators

A

increase the enzymes affinity for the substrate = increase in activity

158
Q

allosteric proteins with multiple subunits show what

A

co-operativity in binding, which changes in binding at one subunit after the affinity of the remaining subunits

159
Q

give an example of cooperativiry

A

haemoglobin
made of four polypeptide subunits
each subunit contains haem group(binds oxygen)
when one of the sububits bind a molecule of oxygen subsequent binding by other subunits is more likely
when oxyhaemoglobin releases oxygen the same process happens

160
Q

what influence does pH and temperature have on haemoglobin

A

lower the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen, so the binding of oxygen is reduced

161
Q

describe what happens when pH is reduced and temperature is increased in actively respiring tissue

A

reduce the binding of oxygen to haemoglobin promoting increased oxygen delivery to tissue

162
Q

what is a common form of post-translational modification

A

phosphorylation , this is when a phosphate group is added to a protein

163
Q

what can the addition or removal of phosphate cause

A

reversible conformational changes in proteins

164
Q

describe protein kinases

A

catalyse the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to other proteins.
the terminal phosphate of ATP is transferred to specific R groups

165
Q

describe protein phosphatases

A

catalyse the transfer of a phosphate group from proteins onto ADP to regenerate ATP

166
Q

how is many cellular proteins (enzymes and receptors) regulated

A

through phosphorylation as it causes conformational changes and therefore affecting activitywha

167
Q

what does adding phosphate groups do to the charge

A

adds negative charge. ionic interactions in the unphosphorylated protein can be disrupted and new ones created