Unit II- Molecular Technology Flashcards

1
Q

What is Molecular Biology

A
  • recombinant DNA technology or molecular genetics
  • a collection of methods used to isolate, manupulate, amplify, re-organize, and analyze genes at the molecular level
  • methods that have revolutionized and will continue to revolutionize research, diagnostics, and practice of medicine
  • made possible by learning: the structure of DNA, restriction and modification of bacteria, DNA sequencing, DNA uptake by bacteria, bacterial plasmids and cloning, therophilic bacteria, automation, minitiarization, deep sequencing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Nucleic Acid Hybridization

A
  • inherent feature of DNA/RNA: double stranded complementarity
  • allows one to “search” for homologous sequences in complex mixtures and/or to discriminate between related sequences
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Restriction Enzymes

A
  • part of the bacterial defense system called restriction and modification
  • usually cuts dsDNA in palindromic sequences
  • can cut to leave staggered ends (most useful) either with 5’ and 3’ overhands
  • staggered ends can be efficiently ligated to complementary ends with T4 DNA Ligase
  • can serve as landmarks on DNA sequences and therefore can be used for linkage analysis (RFLPs)
  • think EcoRI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Restriction Maps

A
  • formed the basis for the 1st molecular method to perform genetic linkage analysis called RFLPs
  • shows where all the restriction enzymes cut
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Sizing of nucleic acids: Gel Electrophoresis

A
  • nucleic acid is separated by size through a molecular sieve (gel)
  • voltage is used to move the negatively charged nucleic acids toward the anode (positive_
  • two gel choices: agarose-large, acrylamide-small
  • detection: Fluorescent dyes (EtBr), Radioactivity-film or phosphoimager screen, probes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Labeling DNA to make “probes”

A
  • isolate fragment to be labeled
  • prime a DNA synthesis reaction with homologous oligos
  • synthesize complementary strands with a DNA polymerase in the presence of radioactively labeled (32P) nucleotide precursors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Southern Blotting

A
  • separate DNA by size using gel electrophoresis
  • make a paper copy of the gel: use voltage to transfer the DNA onto nitrocellulose paper, HIGH pH and/or salt denature the DNA
  • hybridize a 32P-labeled DNA “probe” to the paper
  • wash non-specific probe by binding off of the paper
  • expose the paper to X-ray film or a phospho-imager screen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cloning

A
  • isolate DNA fragment and vector cut to leave completementary “sticky” ends
  • ligate (splice) the fragment into the vector
  • transform the chimearic molecules into a host (bacteria)
  • screen for the clones with the insert
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Vectors

A
  • vehicles used to move, manipulate and amplify cloned genes/fragments of genes
  • they are human altered versions of naturally occuring DNA elements used to transfer genetic information
  • they vary in the amount of recombinant DNA they can be tricked into carrying and the hosts that can maintain them
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bacterial plasmids

A
  • based upon F1 plasmids
  • small closed, dsDNA circles
  • bacteria are the host, introduced by chemical transformation
  • carry an origin of replication, an antibiotic resistance gene and a poly-cloning site (a short stretch of DNA that has many restriction enzyme cut sites)
  • can only accept up to 15 kb of recombinant DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bacteriophage Lambda

A
  • a bacterial virus with a 45 kb linear dsDNA genome
  • during infection viral genes hijack the bacterium to produce millions of viral particles
  • bacterial lysis spills the viral particles into the growth medium
  • recombinant DNA up to 20 kb can be inserted into the middle non-essential region of the viral genome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cosmids

A
  • gutted versions of lambda all but the ends have been removed
  • can clone up to 45 kb of recombinant DNA
  • recombinant genome is packaged into viral particles in a helper strain: Cos ends direct replication and packaging
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes (BACs)

A
  • dsDNA closed circles (plasmids) that are maintained in E. coli as if they were the cell’s chromosome (low copy #)
  • can accept 100-300 kb of recombinant DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Yeast Artificial Chromosome (YACs)

A
  • linear dsDNA recombinant molecules maintained in yeast as a chromosome
  • telomeres on ends, centromere in middle and origins of of replication insure stable maintenance
  • can accept 100-2,000 kb recombinant DNA
  • not as good because they cross-over more
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Libraries

A
  • a large collection of random inserts for a genome of interest in a cloning vector
  • analogous to the Library of Congress after a large earthquake (all mixed up)
  • used to “fish out” the gene or genes you are interested in studying
  • ideally all parts of the genome are represented as overlapping fragments
  • two types: gemonic and cDNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

cDNA library

A
  • purify mRNA from cells/tissue of interest
  • affinity purify on an oligo-dT coupled column to isolate poly(A) mRNA
  • prime with oligo-dT and make complementary DNA strands with Reverse Transcriptase
  • Degrade the RNA strand
  • Use DNA polymerase to make the second DNA strand
  • ligate into a cloning vector (usually a bacterial plasmid)
  • representatives in the library are only expressed genes with introns removed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Screening a library for a gene

A
  • there is a petri disk with colonies of bacteria containing recombinant plasmids
  • a piece of absorbant paper is put on, and the paper is peeled from dish to produce replica of colonies
  • lyse bacteria and denature DNA with alkali
  • radioactively labeled DNA probe is added
  • bacteria incubated with probe and washed
  • colonies containing plasmid of interest were exposed to photographic film
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

PCR

A
  • if you know the sequence of a region of nucleic acid (RNA or DNA), PCR allows you to amplify the sequence from complex mixtures of nucleic acids even if the copies of that sequence are inabundant
  • requires 2 primers, dNTPs, starting sample that contains the first template, a thermophilic polymerase
  • bionomial expansion: amount of DNA made= # of starting templates x 2^#cycles. Product analyzed by gel electrophoresis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Analysis of PCR products

A
  • use gel electrophoresis to answer the following:
  • did it work? Did i get product?
  • what is the size of the product?
  • how much product did I get?

How much template did I start with- Real Time PCR- measure the rate of product production

20
Q

Multi-Plex PCR

A
  • detection of exon deletions in the Dystrophin gene-

- looking for a lot of gene sequences in one gel

21
Q

Test for HIV

A
  • Reverse Transcriptase PCR
  • blood sample from the infected person
  • removed cells by centrifugation
  • extract viral genome
  • Reverse transcriptase/ PCR amplification
  • run at gel, also use control from non-infected person which should have no bands
22
Q

PCR and cloning

A

-used to make many copies of protein of interest for example actin

23
Q

Analysis of Gene Expression

A
  • answers- does the patients tissue express a particular gene?
  • is the gene product of the correct size, expressed at the proper abundance, in the correct cells, and in the correct location in those cells
  • size and expression of the mRNA: Northern Blot or Reverse Transcriptase PCR
  • whole genome “transcriptome” analysis: DNA microarrays, tiling arrays, and RNA sequencing
  • size and expression level of the protein: Western Blot
  • proper cellular expression and localization: Immunofluorescence Microscopy or live cell imaging using GFP fusion proteins
24
Q

Northern Blots

A
  • detects mRNA
  • very similar to Southern Blots except purified mRNA (polyA+) is separated on the gel
  • answers: is the mRNA expressed, ~expression level and proper length
25
Q

Denaturing Protein Gel Electrophoresis

A
  • protein is boiled in the presence of sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS) and +/- reducing agent (mercaptoethanol).
  • creates a uniform ratio of negative charge to size
  • separation in polyacrylamide is purely by size
26
Q

Non-denaturing/ native protein gel electophoresis

A
  • can be used to separate proteins based on size/ shape and charge at a particular pH
  • sample is not heated and no SDS or reducing agent is included
  • it can be difficult to predict how any given protein will migrate in the non-denaturing gel but can be used to compare variants of the same protein: for example it can be used to compare proteins with mutations in charged amino acids such as certain mutations in hemoglobin that cause sickle cell disease
27
Q

Isoelectric Focusing (IEF)

A
  • proteins migrate in a stable pH gradient constructed in a polyacrylamide gel
  • proteins stop migrating once they reach their isoelectric point (pI): the pH at which they carry no net charge
  • two-dimensional gel electrophoresis combines IEF and standard denaturing gel electrophoresis. Very useful to analyze complex mixtures of proteins (proteomics)
28
Q

Two-Dimentional protein gel electrophoresis- “Proteomics”

A

-by coupling two-dimensional gel electrophoresis with mass-spectrometry, we can now identify all of the proteins expressed in a cell or tissue and how they are post-translationally modified

29
Q

The use of antibodies to study proteins

A
  • antibodies are raised in animals by injecting them with the antigen of interest- “primary antibody”
  • “secondary antibodies” are antibodies raised against the contstant regions of antibodies from a different animal species- usually labeled by fluorescent or other tag
30
Q

Analysis of Dystrophin from Patients with Muscular Dystrophy

A
  • isolate protein from a muscle biopsy
  • separate proteins by gel electrophoresis
  • transfer proteins to nitrocellulose paper
  • blot with a primary antibody against the dystrophin protein
  • blot with a labeled secondary antibody and detect
  • answers:is the protein present, ~expression level, and size
31
Q

Immuno-Fluorescence Microscopy Analysis of Dystrophin in muscle biopsy

A
  • is the protein expressed in the correct cells and in the correct location in those cells? NO
  • isolate a thin tissue section from muscle biopsy
  • fix/preserve the sample
  • blot with an antibody against dystrophin
  • blot with a fluorescently tagged secondary antibody
  • visualize anti-body/antigen localization on a fluorescence microscope
32
Q

Other microscopy-3D

A

-three-dimensional fluorscence microscopy by deconvolution

33
Q

Global Analysis of Gene expression

A
  • miniaturized nucleic acid hybridization/detection
  • robots spot DNA probes (one per gene) to glass slides (DNA microarray)
  • microscope reads and quantifies the amount of RNA that is hybridized
34
Q

Two color scheme

A

-mRNA from sample i (reference sample)
and then reverse transcribe with fluorescent nucleotide Cy3
-mRNA from sample 2 (experimental sample) and then reverse transcribe with fluorescent Cy5
-mix the complex probes together and hybridize overnight
-scan and determine fluorescence intensities at each spot

35
Q

What do micro-array expression experiments tell us?

A
  • the relative expression levels of all genes in the genome under specific conditions
  • how this expression pattern changes when the system is perturbed, in different tissues, during development, in disease states etc etc
  • identifies groups of coordinately regulated genes that may be functionally related
  • provides a high resolution diagnostic tool to type a tissue, tumor, disease state, physiological condition etc etc
36
Q

Cluster Analysis

A
  • compare all expression patterns to each other
  • join patterns that are the most similar
  • compare joined patterns to all other unjoined patterns
  • go to step 2, and repeat until all patterns are joined
37
Q

Cluster Analysis of serum fed fibroblasts

A
  • data is lumped together (clustered) based on extent of shared behavior in multiple experiments
  • starved fibroblasts were fed serum and mRNA was isolated over time and compare to RNA from serum starved control cells
  • red are genes induced relative to the control and green are genes repressed- the wound healing genes are turned on, the cell cycle genes turned on at about 24 hours
38
Q

Micro-Array Analysis of Lung Cancer

A
  • 67 human lung tumors
  • expression of 24,000 genes analyzed and compared to normal lung tissue
  • tumors clustered based on shared changes in gene expression
  • tumors fell into pathologically defined groups, except…
  • pathologically indistinguishable adenocarcinomas clustered into three groups that shared patient outcomes
39
Q

Other uses of micro-arrays

A
  • genotyping SNP chips
  • whole genome mapping of protein binding sites: ChIP/chip
  • tiling arrays: several million feature arrays, mutation detection, transcript mapping
  • protein chips
  • pathogen detection
  • miniaturization coupled with automation is driving tremendous innovation in research and diagnostics
40
Q

Next generation sequencing

A
  • whole genome sequencing and assembly for whole genome genotyping
  • RNA-seq or Whole Transciptome Shotgun Sequencing- transcript abundance, mutations in transcribed genes, gene fusions
41
Q

RNA Interference (RNAi)

A
  • discovered in C. elegans
  • introduction of dsRNA corresponding to a cellular mRNA will induce degradation of the mRNA and down regulation
  • dicer endonuclease and helicase processes the dsRNA into 23 nt pieces
  • processed siRNA hybridizes to the mRNA
  • dicer cleaves the mRNA and nucleases complete the degradation
  • the RNAi reaction is amplified and can be quite persistant
42
Q

Problems with potential clinical applications of RNAi

A
  • delivery-getting it to the right tissue and getting it into cells
  • long dsRNA induces a powerful interferon response-shRNAs tend to do so less
  • sometimes there is poor specificity of the dsRNA for its intended target
43
Q

Advantages and anticipated uses of RNAi-like approaches in humans

A
  • the main advantage is that a natural system of gene expression is being harnessed. So far ~200 natural siRNAs have been identified in the human genome
  • some dsRNA viruses have defenses against RNAi: flock house, influenza, and vaccinia virus. Their defense systems would make good drug targets
  • suppression of dominant alleles or diseases due to inappropriate over-expression
  • can use lentiviral deliverty of an shRNA into Mammalian cells
44
Q

“Morpholinos”

A
  • short single stranded oligos complementary to a transcript you want to knock down
  • inhibit expression by blocking progress of the ribosome/translation or by blocking a splice site and inhibiting splicing
45
Q

Currently in development

A
  • treatment for macular degeneration by down regulation of VEGF in the retina
  • treatment of Hepatitus B and C infections
  • siRNA has shown some promise in treating infections by HIV, syncytial virus, influenca virus and polio
  • early promise for silencing the dominant allele that causes amyotropic lateral sclerosis
46
Q

Protein Localization in Living Cells: Green Fluorescent Protein

A
  • naturally fluorescent protein from the jellyfish Aquoria victoria
  • the GFP gene can be introduced into any cell and they will produce an active fluorescent GFP protein
  • can be fused to any gene of interest and used to study the expression and/or localization of the gene product in living cells