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Gross Anatomy > Unit I > Flashcards

Unit I Flashcards

1
Q

Myology is the study of

A

muscles

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2
Q

Roughly what percentage is muscle of total body weight?

A

40-50%

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3
Q

The specific function of skeletal muscle is to

A

create voluntary movement

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4
Q

What are the 5 main functions of skeletal muscle in general though?

A
  1. movement
  2. stability
  3. communication
  4. control of body openings and passages
  5. heat production
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5
Q

What is the basic structural unit of a muscle?

A

the muscle fiber

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6
Q

What is a fasciculi?

A

groups of muscles fibers in a bundle

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7
Q

how are fasciculi and fibers bound together?

A

via connective tissue

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8
Q

Describe endomysium

A

inner most layer of connective tissue

it surrounds each muscle fiber and connects adjacent ones

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9
Q

Describe endomysium

A

middle layer of connective tissue

surrounds each fasciucli and compartmentalizes muscle

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10
Q

Describe epimysium

A

the outer most layer

surrounds entire muscle and separates it from surrounding organs

continuous with deep fascia and will become tendon

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11
Q

Describe the nuclei of muscle fibers

A

long and multinucleated and located around periphery of fiber

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12
Q

Explain hypertrophy

A

increase in size of muscle due to increase in size of each muscle fiber

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13
Q

Explain hyperplasia

A

increase of muscle size due to increase in number of muscle fibers.

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14
Q

What causes hyperplasia?

A

muscle is subjected to high resistance exercise inducing injury and followed by a regenerative process

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15
Q

What is the sarcoplasm of a muscle?

A

the cytoplasm.

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16
Q

Type I muscle fibers are best suited for what sorts of activities?

A

in where long sustained contraction is required, like endurance activites.

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17
Q

What type of metabolism are Type I fibers associated with?

A

aerobic metabolim

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18
Q

Type II muscle fibers are best suited what sort of activites?

A

quick powerful activities that require speed and strength.

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19
Q

What type of metabolism are Type II fibers associated with?

A

anaerobic metabolism

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20
Q

Between Type I and Type II which has more sarcoplasm and myoglobin?

A

Type I

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21
Q

Do Type I fibers have minimal capillary beds?

A

No they actually have extensive capillary beds

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22
Q

Is type I or type II fast twitch?

A

type II

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23
Q

Does Type II possess fatigue resistance?

A

not really. Type I is more suited for fatigue resistance

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24
Q

Between Type I and Type II which has the most mitochondria?

A

Type I

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25
Q

Do type I fibers have more glycogen/less fatty acids?

A

no, type II does. Type I has the opposite.

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26
Q

Which fiber type, I or II, atrophies with aging?

A

type II. Type I atrophies with immobilization

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27
Q

Describe intermediate fibers

A

they exhibit characteristics of having both type I and type II fibers

they contract faster than type I but slower than II

greater resistance to fatigue but histologically similar to type II

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28
Q

The sarcolema is the ______?

A

cell membrane

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29
Q

Define sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

tubular system which stores calcium and transports it to myofibrils

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30
Q

Define transverse tubules

A

tubular invaginations of the sarcolemma which pass nerve impulses to muscles and myofibrils

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31
Q

Define myoglobin

A

a red protein pigment in the sarcoplasm that stores oxygen in the muscles and has a higher affinity for oxygen than hemoglobin

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32
Q

Myofibrils are the__________

A

contractile apparatus of the muscle fibers

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33
Q

myofibrils are formed from

A

thick and thin fibers known as myofilaments

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34
Q

I-bands are described as

A

the dark areas

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35
Q

A bands are described as

A

the light areas

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36
Q

H bands are described as

A

the light areas in the middle of each dark band

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37
Q

M bands are described as

A

the think dark like in the middle H bands

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38
Q

Z lines are described as

A

the think dark lines in the middle of I bands

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39
Q

what is the smallest functional unit of the muscle and where does it start and end?

A

the sarcomere. it runs from z line to z line

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40
Q

Actin is found where and can be desribed as what?

A

its found in I bands and is thin

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41
Q

Mysoin is found where and can be described as what?

A

its found in A bands and is thick

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42
Q

Name the two regulatory proteins in muscles

A

troponin and tropomysoin

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43
Q

What allows troponin and tropomysoin to interact with their respective muscle proteins?

A

calcium

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44
Q

Describe how calcium allows the regulatory proteins to interact

A

it gets rid of the inhibition caused by the proteins which allows contraction

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45
Q

When a nerve impulse reaches the T-tubules where is calcium released from?

A

the sarcoplasmic reticulum

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46
Q

What is troponin located on?

A

actin

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47
Q

what happens to troponin once calcium reaches it?

A

calcium binds to it and causes a change in the shape of tropomysoin

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48
Q

what is tropomyosin located on?

A

mysoin

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49
Q

what does the change in shape of tropomyosin do?

A

it moves the molecule aside and exposes the myosin binding site on actin so the two proteins can interact and contract

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50
Q

Where does the aerobic pathway take place and what does it produce?

A

it takes place in the mitochondria and produces ATP

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51
Q

What does the aerobic pathway prefer to make ATP?

A

fatty acids from triglycerides

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52
Q

What form does excess ATP created take?

A

the form of heat

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53
Q

What substances does the anaerobic pathway depend on?

A

creatine phosphate and glycogen

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54
Q

which substances is used first in the anaerobic pathway?

A

creatine phosphate

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55
Q

what about the second substance used in anaerobic metabolism?

A

glycogen

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56
Q

what process is used to make ATP from glycogen?

A

glycolysis

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57
Q

Where in the body is glycogen stored?

A

muscle and liver cells

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58
Q

what is the by-product of glycolysis that is the cause of the pathway being so short?

A

lactic acid

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59
Q

From a metabolic POV of exercise describe phase one

A

within the first few minutes creatine phosphate and glycogen are the main fuel sources. up to 20% of stored muscle glycogen may be used during this time

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60
Q

From a metabolic POV of exercise describe phase two

A

metabolism shifts to the use of aerobic pathways and fatty acids to make ATP

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61
Q

From a metabolic POV of exercise describe phase three

A

as exercise intensifies metabolism shifts back to anaerobic pathways and uses up the remaining glycogen. its here the lactic acid builds up

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62
Q

Describe carbohydrate/glycogen loading

A

a diet trick that increases the store of glycogen in muscles

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63
Q

Describe Day one of carb loading

A

work to exhaustion to deplete glycogen stores

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64
Q

Describe day 2-4 of carb loading

A

continue exercise and eat meals high in fat and protein, and low in carbs

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65
Q

Describe day 5-7 of carb loading

A

no exercise and eat meals high in carbs

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66
Q

What is the theory behind carb loading?

A

its that the body thinks that there is a problem with glycogen storing and begins storing more glycogen than normal

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67
Q

What are some reported side effects of carb loading?

A

light headedness, impairment of mental acuity, and for every stored gram of glycogen 3 grams of water accompany it.

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68
Q

How many cups of coffee may help an endurance athlete in a competition?

A

about two cups an hour before their competition

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69
Q

What effect does the caffeine in the coffee have?

A

it may help burn fatty acids better and increase calcium permeability

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70
Q

How does the better burning of fatty acids from the use of caffeine have an impact?

A

it should delay the use of glycogen

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71
Q

What is limit set by the IOC for the use of caffeine?

A

1000mg

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72
Q

Describe induced erythrocythemia/blood doping

A

by increasing the amount of RBC’s one can increase their oxygen carrying capacity which can increase their endurancecpacity

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73
Q

What are some risks of blood doping?

A

rash, fever, acute hemolysis, transmission of viruses, and kidney damage due to fluid overload

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74
Q

What is erythropoietin and what is it used for?

A

its a natural hormone made by the kidneys that helps make RBC’s. but it can be synthesized to use for blood doping or for anemics

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75
Q

What is the main danger of erythropoietin?

A

it can thicken blood to lethal levels

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76
Q

What are anabolic steroids and their use?

A

a synthetic form of testosterone that attempts to utilize the anabolic effects with minimal androgenic effects

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77
Q

what does anabolic mean?

A

the stimulation of protein synthesis

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78
Q

what does androgenic mean?

A

development of secondary sexual characteristics

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79
Q

Describe the oil based form of steroids

A

an injection with fewer side effects but is detectable for several months in the body

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80
Q

Describe the water based form of steroids

A

pill form, has more side effects, and is cleared from the body in 3-4 weeks

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81
Q

What does the term stacking mean when referring to steroids?

A

taking several forms of steroids

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82
Q

What does pyramiding mean when using steroids?

A

begin using low doses then ascend to a peak and taper off

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83
Q

What is the typical time cycle of steroid use?

A

6-8 weeks

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84
Q

List some of the short term side effects of steroid use

A

headaches, back acne, testicle shrinkage, aggressiveness, gynecomastia, and tendon damage.

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85
Q

List some long term side effects of steroid use

A

cardiovascular issues, GI issues, the reproductive system, and endocrine system are affected

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86
Q

List short term side effects in women who use steroids

A

larger clitoris, smaller mammary glands, facial hair, deeper voice, tendon damage, and better androgenic effects

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87
Q

How do steroids physiologically work

A

they increase the amount of growth hormones, and activate protein synthesis, while inhibiting protein breakdown

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88
Q

What are some clinical reasons to prescribe steroids?

A

restore hormonal levels, improve mood, increase appetite, and body weight in terminally ill patients

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89
Q

What is the chemical composition of a muscle?

A

75% water, 20% protein, 5% others

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90
Q

Will a single muscle fiber contract by itself?

A

no, instead several fibers will contract at the same time

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91
Q

Describe a motor unit

A

a nerve fiber and the group of muscle fibers it supplies

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92
Q

What is the smallest part of muscle that can contract by itself?

A

the motor unit

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93
Q

What makes a contraction stronger?

A

the number of motor units being contracted at once

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94
Q

What makes a motor unit capable of precise control?

A

having a smaller amount of motor fibers

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95
Q

What portions does a neuromuscular junction possess?

A

presynaptic, postsynaptic, and synaptic cleft.

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96
Q

What is the presynaptic portion of a neuromuscluar junction?

A

the nerve ending

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97
Q

What is the postsynaptic portion a a neuromuscular junction?

A

the sarcolemma of a muscle fiber

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98
Q

what is the synaptic cleft of a neuromuscular junction?

A

the space between post and pre synaptic portions

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99
Q

Desribce how a nerve impulse makes it’s way across a neuromuscular junction

A

when a nerve impulse reaches the presynaptic portion acetylcholine is released and diffuses across the cleft to bind on to receptors of the postsynaptic portion.

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100
Q

Describe what happens once the nerve impulse has reached the postsynaptic portion

A

Once acetylcholine has binded, an action potential is sent down the T-tubules allow muscle proteins to contract.

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101
Q

What breaks down acetylcholine from the binding site?

A

acetylcholinesterease

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102
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

a common autoimmune disorder in which the ACH receptor sites are destroyed by abnormal antibodies that leads to the atrophy of T-tubules

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103
Q

Is myasthenia gravis genetic?

A

no

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104
Q

What does myasthenia gravis affect first?

A

cranial nerves and progresses to the extremities

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105
Q

what gland is commonly affected by those who have myasthenia gravis?

A

the thymus gland is enlarged or tumorous

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106
Q

What is transitional neonatal myasthenia gravis?

A

a 25% chance of a mother passing abnormal antibodies to the fetus thru the placenta

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107
Q

What effect does nicotine have on ACH?

A

it binds to receptor sites instead of ACH, and because nicotine cant be degraded by ACHe it creates a more prolonged action potential

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108
Q

What effect does snake venom have?

A

it prevents ACH from from binding to receptors and prevents action potentials from occurring

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109
Q

what effect does organophosphate have?

A

it inactivates ACHe meaning ACH builds up at the postsynaptic portion causing muscles to stay contracted

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110
Q

What effect does botulin toxin have?

A

it blocks ACH from being released from the presynaptic portion

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111
Q

Which bacteria releases botulin?

A

clostridium botulinum

112
Q

Define proprioception

A

conscious awareness of the orientation of the body and its parts

113
Q

What happens when one loses proprioception?

A

a loss of conscious and unconscious information as to what the muscles are doing and where they are in space resulting in uncoordinated movement

114
Q

What are proprioceptors?

A

sense organs in the musculoskeletal system

115
Q

Describe muscle spindles

A

fluid filled sacs that detect stretch in muscles

116
Q

What are intrafusal muscle fibers located in and what innervates them?

A

they are in muscle spindles and both afferent and efferent innervate them

117
Q

what are extrafusal muscle fibers associated with?

A

efferent nerve fibers

118
Q

Describe golgi tendon organs

A

they are in tendons and trigger a reflex to inhibit muscle contractions that could cause injury

119
Q

Define tensile strength

A

the load necessary to rupture a given material when pulled in the direction of its length

120
Q

List some advantages of tendons

A

improve leverage, small and size and maintain limb conformity, act as a shock absorber, and flexible

121
Q

What is an avulsion fracture?

A

the tendon pulls a piece of bone out

122
Q

What types of injuries can cause avulsion fractures?

A

traction injuries

123
Q

What type of innervation do tendons have?

A

only afferent

124
Q

What is the function of bursa?

A

to act as a lubricating device between a tendon and another structure.

125
Q

Describe the fusiform/parallel arrangement of muscle fibers

A

fibers run parallel to the long axis

126
Q

Describe the arrangement of unipennate muscle fibers

A

fibers run obliquely

127
Q

describe the arrangement of bipennate muscle fibers

A

tendon lies in the center and fibers run to it from each side

128
Q

What arrangement do endurance (type I) muscle fibers have?

A

typically pennate

129
Q

what arrangement do power and speed (type II) fibers have?

A

typically parallel/fusiform

130
Q

Muscles that are responsible for carrying out a particular movement

A

primer move/agonist

131
Q

assits prime mover, gives more force to a movement, stabilizes a joint,or keeps a bone of originof the mover steady

A

synergist

132
Q

muscle that produces the opposite effect of the agonist

A

antagonist

133
Q

Define reciprical innervation

A

when a muscle contracts its antagonist relaxes

134
Q

Cofreflex phenomenon

A

both agonist and antagonist contract

135
Q

A pathology of the CNS

A

ALS

136
Q

what affect does ALS have?

A

both upper and lower motor neurons are destroyed

137
Q

A pathology of the PNS

A

Guillan-Barre syndrome

138
Q

What affect does Guillan-Barre syndrome have?

A

it demyelinates the PNS

139
Q

A pathology of the neuromuscular junction

A

myasthenia gravis, botulism,and meurotoxins

140
Q

A pathology of muscle fibers

A

muscular dystrophy, duschanne disorder

141
Q

When a muscle remains in a contracted state for a longtime that can sometimes be permanent it is called

A

contracture

142
Q

What helps to some degree with muscle regeneration?

A

satellite cells

143
Q

where are satellite cells located?

A

between the endomysium and sarcolemma

144
Q

What pathology prevents satellite cells from their function?

A

muscular dystrophy

145
Q

What comprises the upper extremity?

A

the shoulder girdle and free limb

146
Q

What comprises the shoulder girdle?

A

the scapula and clavicle

147
Q

What makes the free limb?

A

the arm, forearm, and hand

148
Q

Describe intramembranous ossification

A

bone cells replace mesenchyme

149
Q

Describe endochondral ossification

A

bone cells replace hyaline cartilage

150
Q

What is the first bone to undergo ossification?

A

the clavicle usually around the 5th-6th week of development

151
Q

How many ossification centers does the clavicle have?

A

two

152
Q

The centers appear near the center of the bone around when?

A

5th-6th week and its intramembranous

153
Q

When and where does the secondary ossification center appear?

A

around 17 y/o at the sternal end and its endochondral

154
Q

what is the last bone to ossify?

A

the clavicle around 25 y/o

155
Q

What is the most commonly broken bone?

A

the clavicle

156
Q

what part of the clavicle is usually broken?

A

the first lateral 3rd

157
Q

A hereditary condition in which ossification fails or is defective of the clavicle

A

cleidocranial dysostosis

158
Q

Where does the clinical arm start and end?

A

starts at the acromion process and ends at the distal part of the humerus

159
Q

An undescended scapula brought about by attachment to cervical vertebrae by either bone, cartilage, or fibrous attachment

A

Sprengel’sdeformity

160
Q

Failure of acromion to fuse with the rest of the bone

A

Os Acromidae

161
Q

Primary functions of female mammary glands

A

provide nourishment and immune benefits

162
Q

Describe estrogens affect on lactation

A

after being secreted by the ovaries and placenta it promotes growth of the duct system of glands

163
Q

Describe progesterones affect on lactation

A

after being secreted by the placenta and ovaries promotes growth of secretory cells

164
Q

Describe prolactins affect on lactation

A

after being secreted by the anterior pituitary it promotes production of milk after birth

165
Q

Describe oxytocins affect on lactation

A

after being secreted by the posterior pituitary it promotes the release of milk

166
Q

A creamy white yellowish fluid that is secreted during the first week of pregnancy

A

colostrum

167
Q

What benefits does colostrum provide?

A

its rich in immunoglobulins and lactoferrin as well as growth factors to help with the infants GI tract

168
Q

Describe transitional milk

A

from about day 6-15 its produced and is higher in lactose and fat than colostrum with lower immunoglobulin

169
Q

Describe Mature Milk

A

present from day 15 to weaning and is 88%water, 7% lactose, 4% fat, and 1% protein

170
Q

Inverted nipples

A

may be a carcinoma pulling in underlying lactiferous ducts

171
Q

Supernumerary nipples

A

extra nipples

172
Q

What type of tumor is breast cancer most common?

A

adenocarcinoma

173
Q

Describe chronic cystic mastitis

A

benign cysts

174
Q

Secretions from the breasts that are not associated with pregnancy or lactation

A

galactorrhea

175
Q

Origin of Pectoralis Major

A

Clavicle, sternum and upper ribs, and external oblique muscle

176
Q

Insertion of Pectoralis major

A

lateral aspect of intertubercular groove

177
Q

Actions of Pectoralis Major

A

Adduction and medial rotation of the humerus

Forced inspiration when rib cage is raised and humerus stabilized

178
Q

Nerve supply to Pectoralis Major

A

medial (C8-T1) and lateral (C5-C7) pectoral nerves

179
Q

Origin of Pectroalis Minorr

A

Upper ribs

180
Q

Insertion of Pectoralis Minor

A

coracoid proccess

181
Q

Actions of Pectoralis Minor

A

Involved with protraction/retraction

Forced expiration

182
Q

Nerve Supply of Pectoralis Minor

A

Medial Pectoral (C8-T1)

183
Q

Describe Poland Syndrome

A

Unilateral condition in which both the pectoralis minor and major are missing accompanied by atrophy by mammary glands, missing ribs, and hand of affected side shows webbing

184
Q

Origin of Subclavius

A

first rib

185
Q

Insertion of Subclavius

A

subcclavian grooce

186
Q

Actions of Subclavius

A

Pulls clavicle medialy and stabilizes SC joint

serves as cushion between fractured clavicle and ruptured blood vessels

187
Q

Nerve supply to Subclavius

A

nerve to the subclavius (C5-C6)

188
Q

The anterior wall of the axilla is formed by

A

the pectoralis major

189
Q

the posterior wall is formed by

A

the latissimus dorsi and teres major

190
Q

the medial wall is formed by

A

the serratus anterior and upper ribs

191
Q

the lateral wall is formed by

A

the proximal medial aspect of the arm

192
Q

The upper trunk of the brachial plexus is formed from

A

C5 and C6

193
Q

The middle trunk of the brachial plexus is formed from

A

C7

194
Q

The lower trunk of the brachialplexus is formed from

A

C8 and T1

195
Q

The lateral cord of the brachial plexus is formed from

A

the anterior division ofthe upper and middle trunks and fibers from C5-C7

196
Q

The medial cord of the brachial plexus is formed from

A

the anterior division of the lower trunk and fibers from C8-T1

197
Q

The posterior cord of the brachial plexus is formed from

A

the posterior division of all three cords and fibers from C5-T1

198
Q

Two nerves directly from spinal nerves

A

the dorsal scapular and long thoracic

199
Q

Nerves from upper trunk

A

suprascapular and subclavius

200
Q

Nevres from the lateral cord

A

lateral pectoral, musculocutaneous, and part of median

201
Q

Nerves from medial cord

A

medial pectoral, medial brachial cutaneous, medial antebrachial cutaneous, ulnar, and part of median

202
Q

Nerves from the posterior cord

A

upper subscapular, lower subscapular, thoracodorsal, axillary, and radial

203
Q

The segmental innervation of Dorsal scapular nerve

A

C5

204
Q

The motor supply of dorsal scapular nerve

A

rhomboid major and minor, and levator scapula

205
Q

The articular supply of the dorsal scapular nerve

A

acromioclavicular nerve

206
Q

The segmental innervation of long thoracic nerve is

A

C5-C7

207
Q

The motor supply of long thoracic nerve is

A

serratus anterior

208
Q

The segmental innervation of the suprascapular nerve is

A

C5-C6

209
Q

the motor supply of the suprascapular nerve is

A

the supraspinatus and infraspinatus

210
Q

the articular supply of the suprascapular nerve is

A

the shoulder joint

211
Q

The segmental innervation of the subclavius is

A

C5-C6

212
Q

The motor supply of the subclavius is

A

the subclavius and diaphragm

213
Q

The articular supply of the subclavius is

A

the sternoclavicular joint

214
Q

The segmental innervation of the lateral pectoral nerve is

A

C5-C7

215
Q

the motor supply of the lateral pectoral nerve is

A

the pectoralis major

216
Q

The musculocutaneous nerve continues into the forearm as the

A

lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve

217
Q

the segmental innervation of the musculocutaneous nerve is

A

C5-C7

218
Q

the motor supply of the musculocutaneous is

A

the coraobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis

219
Q

the articular supply of the musculotaneous nerve is

A

the elbow joint

220
Q

the cutaneous supply of the musculocutaneous nerve is

A

the lateral aspect of the forearm

221
Q

the segmental innervation of medial pectoral nerve is

A

C8-T1

222
Q

the motor supply of medial pectoral nerve is

A

the pectoralis major and minor

223
Q

the segmental innervation of the medial brachial cutaneous is

A

T1

224
Q

the cutaneous supply of medial brachial cutaneous nerve is

A

the medial aspect of the arm

225
Q

the segmental innervation of the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve is

A

C8-T1

226
Q

the cutaneous supply of the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve is the

A

medial aspect of the forearm

227
Q

Segemental innervation of Ulnar nerve

A

C8-T1

228
Q

Motor supply of the Ulnar nerve

A

flexor carpi ulnaris and half flexor digitorum profundus, and hypothenar muscles

229
Q

Articular supply of the Ulnar nerve

A

elbow and wrist joints

230
Q

Cutaneous supply of the Ulnar nerve

A

1/4 medial aspect of the palm and dorsum of the hand; skin of digit 5 and part D4

231
Q

What nerve is formed from more than one cord of the brachial plexus?

A

the median nerve (lateral and medial cord)

232
Q

Segmental innerveation of the Median nerve

A

C6-T1

233
Q

Motor supply of the Median Nerve

A

prontor teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicus longus, pronator quadratus, and halfof the flexor digitrum profundus, and thenar muscles

234
Q

Articular supply of the Median nerve

A

elbow and wrist joint

235
Q

Cutaneous supply of the Median nerve

A

lateral 3/4 of palmar surface and skin of first 3 1/2 digits

236
Q

Segmental innervation of upper subscapular nerve

A

C5

237
Q

motor supply of the upper subscapular nerve

A

subscapularis

238
Q

Segmental innervation of the lower subscapular nerve

A

C6

239
Q

motor supply of the lower supscapular nerve

A

subscapularis and motor supply

240
Q

Segemtnal innervationof thoracodorsal nerve

A

C6-C8

241
Q

motor supply of thoracodorsal nerve

A

latissumus dorsi

242
Q

Segmental innervation of axiallary nerve

A

C5-C6

243
Q

motor supply of axiallary nerve

A

deltoid and teres minor

244
Q

articular supply of axillary nerve

A

shoulder joint

245
Q

cutaneous supply of axillary nerve

A

lateral aspect of arm

246
Q

Segmental innervation of radial nerve

A

C5-T1

247
Q

motor supply of radial nerve

A

triceps brachii and aconeus; allposterior forearm muscles

248
Q

articular supply of radial nerve

A

elbow and wrist joints

249
Q

cutaneous supply of radial nerve

A

posterior arm and forearm; dorsum of hand and small area below thumb on palmar sider

250
Q

What is a prefixed brachial plexus?

A

instead of C5 being first and T1 last, C4 is first and C8 last

251
Q

What is a postfixed brachial plexus?

A

instead of C5 being first and T1 last, C6 is first and T2 last.

252
Q

Define pararlysis

A

complete loss of muscular movement

253
Q

Define Paresis

A

movement can be performed but is weak

254
Q

Define anesthesia

A

partial or complete loss of sensation w/ or w/o loss of consciousness

255
Q

Define paresthesia

A

loss of cutaneous sensation

256
Q

Describe Erb-duchenne palsy

A

comes from a traction injury that damages C5/C6 and one will have impaired shoulder movement along with loss of sensation in C5/C6 deratomes

257
Q

What could cause Erb-duchennes?

A

Difficult birth that stretches infants neck, falling blow to shoulder, or heavyweight hitting shoulder

258
Q

Describe Klumpke’s Palsy

A

comes from a traction injury to C8/T1 in which one will have issues moving hand and digits and a loss of sensation along C8/T1 deratomes

259
Q

What could cause Klumpke’s Palsy

A

an individual falling and catching themselves or forced pulling on should of infant during birth; forceful abduction of humerus

260
Q

What is a longer than normal cervical transverse process called?

A

Cervical rib

261
Q

What issues could a cervical rib pose?

A

interferencer with bracial plexus

262
Q

Describe Thoracic Outlet Syndrome (TOS)

A

a compression of the cords of the brachial plexus and axillary artery

263
Q

List some synptoms of TOS

A

pain, paresthesia, decreased skin temp, and fatigue of limb

264
Q

What is the first branch of the axillary artery?

A

the superior thoracic which emerges just as the axillary artery comes out from under the clavicle

265
Q

What muscles does the superior thoracic supply?

A

Pectoralis major and minor, subclavius, and wall of thorax

266
Q

Which branch of the axillary artery curls around the upper border of the pec. major?

A

the thoracoacromial

267
Q

List the branches of thoracoacromial

A

acromial, pectoral, clavicular, and deltoid

268
Q

Which branch of the axillary artery is along the lateral border of the pec. major?

A

the lateral thoracic

269
Q

Whart muscles does the lateral thoracic artery supply?

A

serratus anterior, both pecs, mammary glands, and intercostal muscles

270
Q

What is the largest branch of the axillary artery?

A

the subscapular

271
Q

List the two branches of the subscapular artery

A

thoracodorsal and circumflex scapular

272
Q

What muscles does the thoracodorsal supply?

A

latissumus dorsi and subscapularis

273
Q

What muscles does the circumflex scapular artery supply?

A

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres major and minor, triceps brachii, and part of deltoid

274
Q

Which branch of the axiallary artery forms a circle around the surgical neck of the humerus?

A

the anterior and posterior humeral circumflex arteries

275
Q

What structures do the humeral circumflex arteries supply?

A

deltoid, shoulder joint, teres muscles. and proximal part of humerus

Gross Anatomy (2 decks)

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