Unit F-Care of the Developing Child (Infant, Toddler, and Preschooler)) Flashcards
Which statement accurately describes an event associated with an infant’s physical
development?
a. Anterior fontanel closes by age 6 to 10 months.
b. Binocularity is well established by age 8 months.
c. Birth weight doubles by age 5 months and triples by age 1 year.
d. Maternal iron stores persist during the first 12 months of life.
ANS: C
Growth is very rapid during the first year of life. The birth weight approximately doubles by
age 5 to 6 months and triples by age 1 year. The anterior fontanel closes at age 12 to 18
months. Binocularity is not established until age 15 months. Maternal iron stores are usually
depleted by age 6 months.
The nurse assessing a 6-month-old healthy infant who weighed 7 lbs at birth, shares with the
parents that the infant should weigh approximately how many pounds?
a. 10 lbs.
b. 15 lbs.
c. 20 lbs.
d. 25 lbs.
ANS: B
Birth weight doubles at about age 5 to 6 months. At 6 months, an infant who weighed 7 lbs at
birth would weigh approximately 15 lbs. Ten pounds is too little; the infant would have gone
from the 50th percentile at birth to below the 5th percentile. Twenty pounds or more is too
much; the infant would have tripled the birth weight at 6 months.
The nurse is doing a routine assessment on a 14-month-old infant and notes that the anterior
fontanel is closed. This should be interpreted as:
a. a normal finding.
b. a questionable finding—the infant should be rechecked in 1 month.
c. an abnormal finding—indicates the need for immediate referral to a practitioner.
d. an abnormal finding—indicates the need for developmental assessment.
ANS: A
Because the anterior fontanel normally closes between ages 12 and 18 months, this is a
normal finding, and no further intervention is required.
By what age does the posterior fontanel usually close?
a. 6 to 8 weeks
b. 10 to 12 weeks
c. 4 to 6 months
d. 8 to 10 months
ANS: A
The bones surrounding the posterior fontanel fuse and close by age 6 to 8 weeks. Ten weeks
or longer is too late and indicates a problem.
The parents of a 9-month-old infant tell the nurse that they have noticed foods such as peas
and corn are not completely digested and can be seen in their infant’s stool. The nurse bases
her explanation on what fact?
a. Children should not be given fibrous foods until the digestive tract matures at age
4 years.
b. The infant should not be given any solid foods until this digestive problem is
resolved.
c. This is abnormal and requires further investigation.
d. This is normal because of the immaturity of digestive processes at this age.
ANS: D
The immaturity of the digestive tract is evident in the appearance of the stools. Solid foods are
passed incompletely broken down in the feces but it is not necessity to eliminate solid foods.
An excess quantity of fiber predisposes the child to large, bulky stools. This is a normal part
of the maturational process, and no further investigation is necessary.
A 3-month-old infant, born at 38 weeks of gestation, will hold a rattle if it is put in her hands;
however, she will not voluntarily grasp it. How should the nurse interpret this behavior?
a. Normal development
b. Significant developmental lag
c. Slightly delayed development caused by prematurity
d. Suggestive of a neurologic disorder such as cerebral palsy
ANS: A
This indicates normal development. Reflexive grasping occurs during the first 2 to 3 months
and then gradually becomes voluntary. No evidence of developmental lag, delayed
development, or neurologic dysfunction is present by this behavior
The nurse determines an infant of 7 months is demonstrating appropriate fine motor
development when performing which action?
a. Transferring a rattler from one hand to the other.
b. Using thumb and index finger to grasp a piece of food.
c. Holding a crayon and make a mark on paper.
d. Releasing cubes into a cup.
ANS: A
By age 7 months, infants can transfer objects from one hand to the other, crossing the midline.
The crude pincer grasp is apparent at about age 9 months. The infant can scribble
spontaneously at age 15 months. At age 12 months, the infant can release cubes into a cup.
In terms of gross motor development, what hallmark action should the nurse identify for the
parents of a 5-month-old infant to anticipate?
a. Roll from abdomen to back.
b. Roll from back to abdomen.
c. Sit erect without support.
d. Move from prone to sitting position.
ANS: A
Rolling from abdomen to back is developmentally appropriate for a 5-month-old infant. The
ability to roll from back to abdomen usually occurs at 6 months old. Sitting erect without
support is a developmental milestone usually achieved by 8 months. The 10-month-old infant
can usually move from a prone to a sitting position.
PTS:
At which age can most infants sit steadily unsupported?
a. 4 months
b. 6 months
c. 8 months
d. 10 months
ANS: C
Sitting erect without support is a developmental milestone usually achieved by 8 months. At
age 4 months, an infant can sit with support. At age 6 months, the infant will maintain a sitting
position if propped. By 10 months, the infant can maneuver from a prone to a sitting position.
By what age should the nurse expect that an infant will be able to pull to a standing position?
a. 6 months
b. 8 months
c. 9 months
d. 11 to 12 months
ANS: C
Most infants can pull themselves to a standing position at age 9 months. Any infant who
cannot pull to a standing position by age 11 to 12 months should be referred for further
evaluation for developmental dysplasia of the hips (DDH). At 6 months, the infant has just
obtained coordination of arms and legs. By age 8 months, infants can bear full weight on their
legs.
According to Piaget, the 6-month-old infant would be in what stage of the sensorimotor phase? a. Use of reflexes b. Primary circular reactions c. Secondary circular reactions d. Coordination of secondary schemata
ANS: C
Infants are usually in the secondary circular reaction stage from age 4 months to 8 months.
This stage is characterized by a continuation of the primary circular reaction for the response
that results. For example, shaking of a rattle is performed to hear the noise of the rattle, not
just for shaking. The use of reflexes is primarily during the first month of life. The primary
circular reaction stage marks the replacement of reflexes with voluntary acts. The infant is in
this stage from age 1 month to 4 months. The fourth sensorimotor stage is coordination of
secondary schemata. This is a transitional stage in which increasing motor skills enable
greater exploration of the environment.
Which behavior indicates that an infant has developed object permanence?
a. Recognizes familiar face such as the mother
b. Recognizes familiar object such as a bottle
c. Actively searches for a hidden object
d. Secures objects by pulling on a string
ANS: C
During the first 6 months of life, infants believe that objects exist only as long as they can see
them. When infants search for an object that is out of sight, this signals the attainment of
object permanence, whereby an infant knows that an object exists even when it is not visible.
Between ages 8 and 12 weeks, infants begin to respond differentially to their mothers. They
cry, smile, vocalize, and show distinct preference for their mothers. This preference is one of
the stages that influence the attachment process, but it is too early for object permanence.
Recognizing familiar objects is an important transition for the infant, but it does not signal
object permanence. The ability to understand cause and effect, such as pulling on a string to
secure an object, is part of secondary schema development.
A parent asks the nurse “At what age do most babies begin to fear strangers?” The nurse
responds that most infants begin to fear strangers at what age?
a. 2 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 12 months
ANS:C
Between ages 6 and 8 months, fear of strangers and stranger anxiety become prominent and
are related to the infant’s ability to discriminate between familiar and nonfamiliar people. At
age 2 months, the infant is just beginning to respond differentially to the mother. At age 4
months, the infant is beginning the process of separation individuation when the infant begins
to recognize self and mother as separate beings. Twelve months is too late and requires
referral for evaluation if the infant does not fear strangers at this age
The nurse is interviewing the father of 10-month-old. When the child, playing on the floor and
notices an electrical outlet and reaches up to touch it, the father says “No” firmly and removes
the child away from the outlet. The nurse should use this opportunity to teach the father that
the child is capable of understanding what association?
a. Understand the word “No.”
b. Father always means “No.”
c. Electrical outlets are dangerous.
d. Spanking as a deterrent
ANS: A
By age 10 months, children are able to associate meaning with words. The child should be old
enough to understand the word “No.” The 10-month-old is too young to understand the
purpose of an electrical outlet and is not likely to always associate her father with the word
“No.” The father is using both verbal and physical cues to teach safety measures and alert the
child to dangerous situations. Physical discipline should be avoided.
Sara, age 4 months, was born at 35 weeks’ gestation. She seems to be developing normally,
but her parents are concerned because she is a “more difficult” baby than their other child,
who was term. The nurse should explain that:
a. infants’ temperaments are part of their unique characteristics.
b. infants become less difficult if they are not kept on scheduled feedings and
structured routines.
c. Sara’s behavior is suggestive of failure to bond completely with her parents.
d. Sara’s difficult temperament is the result of painful experiences in the neonatal
period.
ANS: A
Infant temperament has a strong biologic component. Together with interactions with the
environment, primarily the family, the biologic component contributes to the infant’s unique
temperament. Children perceived as difficult may respond better to scheduled feedings and
structured caregiving routines than to demand feedings and frequent changes in routines.
Sara’s temperament has been created by both biologic and environmental factors. The nurse
should provide guidance in parenting techniques that are best suited to Sara’s temperament
Which information could be given to the parents of a 12-month-old child regarding
appropriate play activities for this age?
a. Give large push-pull toys for kinesthetic stimulation.
b. Place cradle gym across crib to facilitate fine motor skills.
c. Provide child with finger paints to enhance fine motor skills.
d. Provide stick horse to develop gross motor coordination.
ANS: A
The 12-month-old child is able to pull to a stand and walk holding on or independently.
Appropriate toys for a child of this age include large push-pull toys for kinesthetic
stimulation. A cradle gym should not be placed across the crib. Finger paints are appropriate
for older children. A 12-month-old child does not have the stability to use a stick horse.
Which is an appropriate play activity for a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation? a. Playing peek-a-boo. b. Playing pat-a-cake. c. Imitating animal sounds. d. Showing how to clap hands.
ANS: A
Because object permanence is a new achievement, peek-a-boo is an excellent activity to
practice this new skill for visual stimulation. Playing pat-a-cake and showing how to clap
hands will help with kinesthetic stimulation. Imitating animal sounds will help with auditory
stimulation.
At what age should the nurse expect an infant to begin smiling in response to pleasurable stimuli? a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 4 months
ANS: B
At age 2 months, the infant has a social, responsive smile. A reflex smile is usually present at
age 1 month. The 3-month-old can recognize familiar faces. At age 4 months, the infant can
enjoy social interactions.
The mother of a breastfed infant being seen in the clinic for the sixth month checkup is
concerned that the infant has begun thumb sucking. How should the nurse respond to the
mother’s concern?
a. Recommend that the mother substitute a pacifier for the infant’s thumb.
b. Assess the infant for other signs of sensory deprivation.
c. Reassure the mother that this behavior is very normal at this age.
d. Suggest that the mother breastfeed more often to satisfy sucking needs.
ANS: C
Sucking is an infant’s chief pleasure, and she may not be satisfied by bottle-feeding or
breastfeeding alone. During infancy and early childhood, there is no need to restrict
nonnutritive sucking. Dental damage does not appear to occur unless the use of the pacifier or
finger persists after age 4 to 6 years. The nurse should explore with the mother her feelings
about pacifier versus thumb. This is a normal behavior to meet nonnutritive sucking needs. No
data support that Latasha has sensory deprivation.
How should the nurse describe the fact that a 6 month old has 6 teeth?
a. Normal tooth eruption.
b. Delayed tooth eruption.
c. Unusual and dangerous.
d. Earlier-than-normal tooth eruption
ANS: D
This is earlier than expected. Most infants at age 6 months have two teeth, the lower central
incisors. Six teeth at 6 months is not delayed; it is early tooth eruption. Although unusual, it is
not dangerous.
A mother tells the nurse that she is discontinuing breastfeeding her 5-month-old infant. What
should the nurse recommend to be used as substitute for the breastmilk?
a. Skim milk
b. Whole cow’s milk
c. Commercial iron-fortified formula
d. Commercial formula without iron
ANS: C
For children younger than 1 year, the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the use
of breast milk. If breastfeeding has been discontinued, iron-fortified commercial formula
should be used. Cow’s milk should not be used in children younger than 12 months. Maternal
iron stores are almost depleted by this age; the iron-fortified formula will help prevent the
development of iron deficiency anemia.
When is the best age for solid food to be introduced into the infant’s diet?
a. 2 to 3 months
b. 4 to 6 months
c. When birth weight has tripled
d. When tooth eruption has started
ANS:B
Physiologically and developmentally, the 4 to 6 months old is in a transition period. The
extrusion reflex has disappeared, and swallowing is a more coordinated process. In addition,
the gastrointestinal tract has matured sufficiently to handle more complex nutrients and is less
sensitive to potentially allergenic food. Infants of this age will try to help during feeding. Two
to three months is too young. The extrusion reflex is strong, and the infant will push food out
with the tongue. No research base indicates that the addition of solid food to bottle-feeding
has any benefit. Tooth eruption can facilitate biting and chewing; most infant foods do not
require this ability
The parents of a 4-month-old infant tell the nurse that they are getting a microwave oven and
will be able to heat the baby’s formula faster. What recommendations should the nurse
provide the parents?
a. Never heat a bottle in a microwave oven.
b. Heat only 10 ounces or more.
c. Always leave the bottle top uncovered to allow heat to escape.
d. Shake the bottle vigorously for at least 30 seconds after heating.
ANS: A
Neither infant formula nor breast milk should be warmed in a microwave oven as this may
cause oral burns as a result of uneven heating in the container. The bottle may remain cool
while hot spots develop in the milk. Warming expressed milk in a microwave decreases the
availability of antiinfective properties and causes separation of the fat content. Milk should be
warmed in a lukewarm water bath. None of the other options adequately deals with the issue
of overheating.
The parent of a 2 week old asks the nurse if the infant needs fluoride supplements because
they plan to exclusively breastfed. What is the nurse’s best response?
a. “Your infant needs to begin taking them now.”
b. “They are not needed if you drink fluoridated water.”
c. “Your infant may need to begin taking them at age 6 months.”
d. “Your infant can have infant cereal mixed with fluoridated water instead of
supplements.”
ANS: C
Fluoride supplementation is recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics beginning
at age 6 months if the child is not drinking adequate amounts of fluoridated water. The
recommendation is to begin supplementation at 6 months, not at 2 weeks. The amount of
water that is ingested and the amount of fluoride in the water are evaluated when
supplementation is being considered.
A mother tells the nurse that she does not want her infant immunized because of the
discomfort associated with injections. The nurse should explain that:
a. this cannot be prevented.
b. infants do not feel pain as adults do.
c. this is not a good reason for refusing immunizations.
d. a topical anesthetic, eutectic mixture of local anesthetic (EMLA), will minimize
the discomfort.
ANS: D
Several topical anesthetic agents can be used to minimize the discomfort associated with
immunization injections. These include EMLA and vapor coolant sprays. Pain associated with
many procedures can be prevented or minimized by using the principles of atraumatic care.
With preparation, the injection site can be properly anesthetized to decrease the amount of
pain felt by the infant. Infants have the neural pathways to sense pain. Numerous research
studies have indicated that infants perceive and react to pain in the same manner as do
children and adults. The mother should be allowed to discuss her concerns and the alternatives
available. This is part of the informed consent process.
The parents of a 12-month-old child ask the nurse if the child can eat hot dogs. The nurse’s
reply should be based on what understanding?
a. The child is too young to digest hot dogs.
b. The child is too young to eat hot dogs safely.
c. Hot dogs must be sliced into sections to prevent aspiration.
d. Hot dogs must be cut into small, irregular pieces to prevent aspiration.
ANS: D
Hot dogs are of a consistency, diameter, and round shape that may cause complete obstruction
of the child’s airway. If given to young children, the hot dog should be cut into small irregular
pieces rather than served whole or in slices. The child’s digestive system is mature enough to
digest hot dogs. To eat the hot dog safely, the child should be sitting down, and the hot dog
should be appropriately cut into irregularly shaped pieces
The clinic is lending a federally approved car seat to an infant’s family. Where in the car
should the nurse explain is the safest place to put the car seat?
a. Front facing in back seat.
b. Rear facing in back seat.
c. Front facing in front seat if an air bag is on the passenger side.
d. Rear facing in front seat if an air bag is on the passenger side
ANS: B
The rear-facing car seat provides the best protection for an infant’s disproportionately heavy
head and weak neck. Infants should face the rear from birth to 20 lbs and as close to 1 year of
age as possible. The middle of the back seat provides the safest position. Severe injuries and
deaths in children have occurred from air bags deploying on impact in the front passenger
seat.
A nurse is teaching parents about prevention and treatment of colic. Which should the nurse
include in the teaching plan?
a. Avoid use of pacifiers.
b. Eliminate all secondhand smoke contact.
c. Lay infant flat after feeding.
d. Avoid swaddling the infant
ANS: B
To prevent and treat colic, teach parents that if household members smoke, they should avoid
smoking near the infant; smoking activity should preferably be confined to outside of the
home. A pacifier can be introduced for added sucking. The infant should be swaddled tightly
with a soft, stretchy blanket, and placed in an upright seat after feedings.
Parent guidelines for relieving colic in an infant include:
a. avoiding touching the abdomen.
b. avoiding using a pacifier.
c. changing the infant’s position frequently.
d. placing the infant where the family cannot hear the crying.
ANS: C
Changing the infant’s position frequently may be beneficial. The parent can walk holding the
infant face down and with the infant’s chest across the parent’s arm. The parent’s hand can
support the infant’s abdomen, applying gentle pressure. Gently massaging the abdomen is
effective in some infants. Pacifiers can be used for meeting additional sucking needs. The
infant should not be placed where monitoring cannot be done. The infant can be placed in the
crib and allowed to cry. Periodically, the infant should be picked up and comforted.
Which clinical manifestations should cause the nurse to suspect that a child, diagnosed with a
digestive disorder, may be demonstrating signs of failure to thrive?
a. Avoidance of eye contact.
b. An associated malabsorption defect.
c. Weight that falls below the 15th percentile.
d. Normal achievement of developmental landmarks.
ANS: A
One of the clinical manifestations of nonorganic failure to thrive is the child’s avoidance of
eye contact with the health professional. A malabsorption defect would result in a physiologic
problem, not behavioral. Weight (but not height) below the 5th percentile is indicative of
failure to thrive. Developmental delays, including social, motor, adaptive, and language, exist.
Which consideration should be considered when planning care for an infant diagnosed with
failure to thrive?
a. Establishing a structured routine and follow it consistently.
b. Maintaining a nondistracting environment by not speaking to the infant during
feeding.
c. Placing the infant in an infant seat during feedings to prevent overstimulation.
d. Limiting sensory stimulation and play activities to alleviate fatigue.
ANS: A
The infant with failure to thrive should have a structured routine that is followed consistently.
Disruptions in other activities of daily living can have a great impact on feeding behaviors.
Bathing, sleeping, dressing, playing, and feeding are structured. The nurse should talk to the
infant by giving directions about eating. This will help the infant maintain focus. Young
children should be held while being fed, and older children can sit at a feeding table. The
infant should be fed in the same manner at each meal. The infant can engage in sensory and
play activities at times other than mealtime
What is an important nursing responsibility when dealing with a family experiencing the loss
of an infant from sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?
a. Explain how SIDS could have been predicted and prevented.
b. Interview parents in depth concerning the circumstances surrounding the infant’s
death.
c. Discourage parents from making a last visit with the infant.
d. Make a follow-up home visit to parents as soon as possible after the infant’s death.
ANS: D
A competent, qualified professional should visit the family at home as soon as possible after
the death and provide the family with printed information about SIDS. An explanation of how
SIDS could have been predicted and prevented is inappropriate. SIDS cannot be prevented or
predicted. Discussions about the cause will only increase parental guilt. The parents should be
asked only factual questions to determine the cause of death. Parents should be allowed and
encouraged to make a last visit with their infant.
With the goal of preventing plagiocephaly, the nurse should teach new parents to consider
which intervention?
a. Place the infant prone for 30 to 60 minutes per day.
b. Buy a soft mattress.
c. Allow the infant to nap in the car safety seat.
d. Have the infant sleep with the parents.
ANS:A
Prevention of positional plagiocephaly may begin shortly after birth by implementing prone
positioning or “tummy time” for approximately 30 to 60 minutes per day when the infant is
awake. Soft mattresses or sleeping with parents (co-sleeping) are not recommended because
they put the infant at a higher risk for a sudden infant death incident. To prevent
plagiocephaly, prolonged placement in car safety seats should be avoided.
The parents of a 3-month-old infant report that their infant sleeps supine (face up) but is often
prone (face down) while awake. The nurse’s response should be based on what knowledge?
a. Unacceptable because of the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).
b. Unacceptable because it does not encourage achievement of developmental
milestones.
c. Unacceptable to encourage fine motor development.
d. Acceptable to encourage head control and turning over
ANS: D
These parents are implementing the guidelines to reduce the risk of SIDS. Infants should sleep
on their backs and then be placed on their abdomens when awake to enhance development of
milestones such as head control. The face-down position while awake and positioning on the
back for sleep are acceptable because they reduce risk of SIDS and allow achievement of
developmental milestones. These position changes encourage gross motor, not fine motor
development.
The nurse should teach parents that at what age it is safe to give infants whole milk instead of commercial infant formula? a. 6 months b. 9 months c. 12 months d. 18 months
ANS: C
The American Academy of Pediatrics does not recommend the use of cow’s milk for children
younger than 12 months. At 6 and 9 months, the infant should be receiving commercial infant
formula or breast milk. At age 18 months, milk and formula are supplemented with solid
foods, water, and some fruit juices
A parent asks the nurse whether her infant is susceptible to pertussis. The nurse’s response
should be based on which statement concerning susceptibility to pertussis?
a. Neonates will be immune the first few months.
b. If the mother has had the disease, the infant will receive passive immunity.
c. Children younger than 1 year seldom contract this disease.
d. Most children are highly susceptible from birth.
ANS:D
The acellular pertussis vaccine is recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics
beginning at age 6 weeks. Infants are at greater risk for complications of pertussis. The
vaccine is not given after age 7 years, when the risks of the vaccine become greater than those
of pertussis. The infant is highly susceptible to pertussis, which can be a life-threatening
illness in this age-group.
In teaching parents about appropriate pacifier selection, the nurse should explain that a
pacifier should have which characteristics? (Select all that apply.)
a. Easily grasped handle
b. One-piece construction
c. Ribbon or string to secure to clothing
d. Soft, pliable material
e. Sturdy, flexible material
ANS: A, B, E
A good pacifier should be easily grasped by the infant. One-piece construction is necessary to
avoid having the nipple and guard separate. The material should be sturdy and flexible. An
attached ribbon or string and soft, pliable material are not characteristics of a good pacifier.
In terms of gross motor development, what would the nurse educate the parents to expect a
5-month-old infant to do? (Select all that apply.)
a. Roll from abdomen to back.
b. Put feet in mouth when supine.
c. Roll from back to abdomen.
d. Sit erect without support.
e. Move from prone to sitting position
ANS: A, B
Rolling from abdomen to back and placing the feet in the mouth when supine are
developmentally appropriate for a 5-month-old infant. Rolling from back to abdomen is
developmentally appropriate for a 6-month-old infant. An 8-month-old infant should be able
to sit erect without support. A 10-month-old infant can usually move from a prone to a sitting
position.
A nurse is conducting education classes for parents of infants. The nurse plans to discuss
sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which risk factors should the nurse include as
increasing an infant’s risk of a SIDS incident? (Select all that apply.)
a. Breastfeeding
b. Low Apgar scores
c. Male sex
d. Birth weight in the 50th or higher percentile
e. Recent viral illness
ANS: B, C, E
Certain groups of infants are at increased risk for SIDS: those with low birth weight, low
Apgar scores, or recent viral illness, and those of male sex. Breastfed infants and infants of
average or above-average weight are not at higher risk for SIDS.
Which interventions should the nurse implement when caring for a family of a sudden infant
death syndrome (SIDS) infant? (Select all that apply.)
a. Allow parents to say goodbye to their infant.
b. Once parents leave the hospital, no further follow-up is required.
c. Arrange for someone to take the parents home from the hospital.
d. Avoid requesting an autopsy of the deceased infant.
e. Conduct a debriefing session with the parents before they leave the hospital.
ANS: A, C, E
An important aspect of compassionate care for parents experiencing a SIDS incident is
allowing them to say good-bye to their infant. These are the parents’ last moments with their
infant, and they should be as quiet, meaningful, peaceful, and undisturbed as possible.
Because the parents leave the hospital without their infant, it is helpful to accompany them to
the car or arrange for someone else to take them home. A debriefing session may help health
care workers who dealt with the family and deceased infant to cope with emotions that are
often engendered when a SIDS victim is brought into the acute care facility. An autopsy may
clear up possible misconceptions regarding the death. When the parents return home, a
competent, qualified professional should visit them after the death as soon as possible.
Which factor is most important in predisposing toddlers to frequent infections such as otitis
media, tonsillitis, and upper respiratory tract infections?
a. Respirations are abdominal.
b. Pulse and respiratory rates are slower than those in infancy.
c. Defense mechanisms are less efficient than those during infancy.
d. The presence of short, straight internal ear/throat structures and large
tonsil/adenoid lymph tissue.
ANS: D
Toddlers continue to have the short, straight internal ear canal of infants. The lymphoid tissue
of the tonsils and adenoids continues to be relatively large. These two anatomic conditions
combine to predispose the toddler to frequent infections. The abdominal respirations and
lowered pulse and respiratory rate of toddlers do not affect their susceptibility to infection.
The defense mechanisms are more efficient compared with those of infancy.
What are the psychosocial developmental tasks of toddlerhood?
a. Development of a conscience.
b. Recognition of sex differences.
c. Ability to get along with age mates.
d. Ability to withstand delayed gratification
ANS: D
If the need for basic trust has been satisfied, toddlers can give up dependence for control,
independence, and autonomy. One of the tasks that the toddler is concerned with is the ability
to withstand delayed gratification. Development of a conscience occurs during the preschool
years. The recognition of sex differences occurs during the preschool years. The ability to get
along with age mates develops during the preschool and school-age years.
