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Biology 30 > Unit A - Nervous & Endocrine System > Flashcards

Unit A - Nervous & Endocrine System Flashcards

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1
Q

Which gland in the endocrine system is a neuroendocrine gland?

A

Posterior pituitary gland

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2
Q

What are the two peripheral nervous system parts?

A

Somatic and autonomic

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3
Q

The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system are part of which system?

A

Autonomic (peripheral) nervous system

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4
Q

What is sensory adaptation?

A

The ability of the brain to filter out redundant, insignificant or repetitive information.

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5
Q

What are the four types of sensory receptors?

A

Photoreceptors, chemoreceptors, mechanoreceptors and thermoreceptors.

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6
Q

Define homeostasis.

A

The tendency of the body to maintain a relatively constant environment; critical for survival.

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7
Q

What part of the brain receives impulses from chemoreceptors in the tastebuds?

A

The parietal lobe.

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8
Q

What part of the brain receives impulses from chemoreceptors in the olfactory cells?

A

The temporal lobe.

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9
Q

What structure receives info from olfactory sensory receptors and transmits it to the brain?

A

Olfactory bulb

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10
Q

What is the sensory pathway for the nose/smell?

A

Sensory receptors > sensory neurons > olfactory bulb > temporal lobe (cerebrum)

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11
Q

What type of sensory receptors relay tactile acuity?

A

Mechanoreceptors

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12
Q

What is tactile acuity?

A

The minimum separation needed for the brain to perceive more than one point separately.

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13
Q

What type of sensory receptors are present in the retina?

A

Photoreceptors

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14
Q

What are the two types of photoreceptors in the retina?

A

Rods and cones.

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15
Q

List three differences between the two photoreceptors in the eye?

A

Cones exist primarily in the fovea centralis, rods are in the peripheral only.

Cones need adequate light to function and perceive colour by detecting different light wavelengths. Rods function in low light and do not register colour, only contrast/shape.

Cones have dedicated receptors. Multiple rods are connected to a single receptor.

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16
Q

Name the two humours of the eye and their functions.

A

Aqueous humour: maintains shape of cornea and provides oxygen to surrounding cells.

Vitreous humour: maintains shape of eyeball.

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17
Q

What causes the condition glaucoma?

A

Fluid in the aqueous chamber doesn’t drain properly, it builds up and causes tunnel vision as cells in the peripheral (retina) deteriorate.

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18
Q

What are the two structures of the external eye layer?

A

Sclera and cornea.

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19
Q

What are the four intermediate structures of the eye?

A

Choroid, iris, pupil and ciliary muscles.

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20
Q

What is the function of the cornea?

A

Bends light rays into the eye.

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21
Q

What is the function of the choroid?

A

Absorbs scattered light rays, and contains blood vessels to nourish cells.

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22
Q

What structure of the eye regulates the amount of light that enters it?

A

Iris.

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23
Q

What is the function of the pupil?

A

Opening for light to enter the eye.

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24
Q

What controls the shape of the lens?

A

Ciliary muscles.

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25
Q

What is the fovea centralis?

A

A small depression in the back of the eye that contains a high concentration of cones (for acute vision).

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26
Q

What structure focuses light on the fovea centralis?

A

Lens.

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27
Q

What structure transmits information from the photoreceptors in the eye to the brain?

A

Optic nerve.

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28
Q

The ability of the lens to focus light on the retina is called?

A

Accommodation.

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29
Q

Steroid hormones, which include the male and female sex hormones and cortisol, are made from?

A

Cholesterol

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30
Q

Transmission in a neuron is one way because of the:

a) flow of charges across the membrane
b) flow of sodium
c) location of the synaptic vesicles
d) myelination of the axon

A

c) location of the synaptic vesicles

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31
Q

Myxedema is the result of:

a) hyposecretion of insulin
b) hyper secretion of insulin
c) hyposecretion of thyroxine
d) hypersecretion of thyroxine

A

c) hyposecretion of thyroxine (hypothyroidism)

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32
Q

________ hormones are made from amino acids and include insulin, epinephrine and growth hormones.

A

Protein

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33
Q

Inadequate production of dopamine could degenerate into which disease?

A

Parkinson’s disease

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34
Q

Human growth hormone (hGH) is produced where?

A

The anterior pituitary gland.

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35
Q

The gaps between myelin sheath cells along an axon terminal are identified as?

A

Nodes of Ranvier

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36
Q

Alzheimer’s disease js associated with what neurological conditions, and related to a decrease in the production of?

A

Lack of memory and mental capacity. Decrease in the production of acetylcholine in the frontal lobe.

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37
Q

Uneven curvature of the cornea that causes light not to reach the focal point results in which condition? How is the vision affected?

A

Astigmatism. Blurred vision.

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38
Q

What is the physical condition that causes myopia? What kind of lens correction resolves it?

A

Cornea is too curved and/or eyeball is elongated. Concave lenses.

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39
Q

Hyperopia is caused by what physical condition? Which shape of lens corrects it?

A

Cornea is too flat and/or eyeball is shortened. Convex lens.

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40
Q

Fill in the blanks: light > _____ > _____ humour > pupil and lens > _____ humour > _____ > optic nerve > _____ lobe (brain)

A

Cornea, aqueous, vitreous, retina, occipital.

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41
Q

When visual information enters the brain, some of it crosses over to ensure each side of the brain receives some part of the visual field from each eye. Where does this occur?

A

The optic chiasm.

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42
Q

For the eyes to focus on a distant object the ciliary muscles _____ and the suspensory ligaments _____ to _____ the lens.

A

Relax, constrict, stretch.

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43
Q

When the eyes focus on nearby objects the _____ muscles contract (stretch) and the _____ ligaments relax to allow the lens to _____.

A

Ciliary, suspensory, bulge/thicken/compress.

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44
Q

Presbyopia is the inability of the _____ to adjust and focus light on the retina.

A

Lens.

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45
Q

The retina converts _____ energy into _____ impulses that transfer visual information into the brain.

A

Light, electrochemical.

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46
Q

By physical structure in the retina, how do rods and cones differ?

A

Cones have dedicated bipolar cells (receptors) while multiple rods are connected to a single bipolar cell.

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47
Q

What kind of cells attach to the retina and become part of the optic nerve? Hint: they’re transparent.

A

Ganglion cells.

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48
Q

Which cone colour is stimulated by long wavelengths (L-cones)?

A

Red

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49
Q

Which cone colour is stimulated by medium wavelengths (M-cones)?

A

Green

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50
Q

Which cone colour is stimulated by short wavelengths (S-cones)?

A

Blue

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51
Q

What type of receptors do rods and cones contain?

A

Photoreceptors

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52
Q

Rods and cones contain a vitamin A derivative called _____. When they absorb light, the molecules change shape to initiate nerve impulses. Until they return to their original shape, they can’t respond again. This is called _____.

A

Retinol, bleaching.

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53
Q

Rhodopsin in the _____ of the retina is extremely sensitive to light changes and _____. In high intensity light it is broken down as fast as it is used, causing the _____ to become non-functional and the _____ take over completely.

A

Rods, shapes/movement, rods, cones.

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54
Q

What eye condition is caused by protein degeneration, leading to the lens becoming opaque and resulting in cloudy vision?

A

Cataracts

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55
Q

Similar to hyperopia, presbyopia is the loss of near-focusing ability. It is caused by the hardening of the _____.

A

Lens

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56
Q

What structure of the eye is affected by glaucoma, what cells are caused to die, and how does the vision change?

A

Anterior chamber/aqueous humour. Retinal cells slowly die. Vision begins to deteriorate around the perimeter, causing tunnel vision.

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57
Q

When the cones of the retina are destroyed due to the thickening of the choroid vessels, what condition is caused and how does it affect vision?

A

Macular degeneration. Central vision becomes blurry.

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58
Q

If someone has night blindness, which photoreceptors are affected?

A

Rods

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59
Q

The outermost and most obvious part of the ear is called the?

A

Pinna

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60
Q

Sound waves entering the ear are first collected in the?

A

Auditory canal.

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61
Q

What is another name for the eardrum?

A

Tympanic membrane or tympanum.

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62
Q

The tympanum converts _____ energy/waves into _____ energy.

A

Sound, mechanical.

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63
Q

What two parts of the ear are considered the outer ear?

A

Pinna and auditory canal.

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64
Q

What are the four parts of the middle ear?

A

Tympanum (eardrum), ossicles, oval window and Eustachian tube.

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65
Q

What is the primary function of the ossicles?

A

To amplify vibrations as they reach the oval window.

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66
Q

What kind of receptors in the ear convert sound waves into electrochemical impulses?

A

Mechanoreceptors.

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67
Q

Which part of the ear is fluid-filled?

A

The inner ear.

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68
Q

Which structure of the ear contains the organ of Corti, and converts mechanical energy into nerve impulses?

A

Cochlea

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69
Q

What is the function of the round window in the ear?

A

Dissipating sound waves in the inner ear.

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70
Q

What structure composed of sensory fibres becomes the auditory nerve and transmits information to the brain?

A

Organ of Corti

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71
Q

The basilar membrane is made of sensory mechanoreceptors called?

A

Hair cells.

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72
Q

Which part of the cochlea moves up and down causing steriocilia to bend against the tectorial membrane?

A

Basilar membrane.

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73
Q

Fill in the blanks of the sound pathway: pinna > auditory canal > _____ > _____ > _____ window > _____ > auditory nerve > _____ lobe (brain)

A

Tympanum, ossicles, oval, cochlea, temporal.

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74
Q

In the base of the cochlea the basilar membrane is very _____ and only moves in response to _____ wavelengths or _____ frequency sounds.

A

Stiff, short, high.

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75
Q

Deeper inside the ear, in the apex cochlea, steriocilia are more _____ and respond to _____ wavelengths or _____ frequency sounds.

A

Flexible, long, low.

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76
Q

Which three structures of the eat function to amplify sound?

A

Auditory canal, tympanum and ossicles.

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77
Q

What can cause conduction deafness/hearing loss?

A

Damage to the tympanum, ossicles or the connection between the ossicles and the oval window; impacted earwax, colds or infections, physical trauma.

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78
Q

What part of the ear does perception deafness affect?

A

Inner ear.

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79
Q

Which three structures of the ear are responsible for maintaining balance?

A

The semicircular canals, saccule and utricle.

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80
Q

The semicircular canals of the ears are responsible for maintaining _____ equilibrium.

A

Rotational

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81
Q

_____ equilibrium is determined by nerve impulses in the utricle and saccule.

A

Gravitational

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82
Q

What is the function of Eustachian tubes in the ears?

A

Regulating air pressure in the middle ear.

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83
Q

What is the primary organ of hearing?

A

Organ of Corti

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84
Q

Steriocilia are embedded in what structure of the ear, to stimulate hair cells of the basilar membrane?

A

Tectorial membrane.

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85
Q

What are the two major components (sub-systems) of the peripheral nervous system’s motor pathways?

A

Somatic and autonomic nervous system.

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86
Q

The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are part of which other two nervous systems?

A

Autonomic and peripheral.

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87
Q

What parts of the peripheral nervous system communicate directly with the central nervous system?

A

Sensory and motor pathways.

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88
Q

Which nervous system responds to external stimuli?

A

Somatic nervous system.

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89
Q

Which part of the nervous system regulates internal body functions?

A

Autonomic nervous system.

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90
Q

Which nervous system regulates our fight-or-flight instincts?

A

Sympathetic nervous system.

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91
Q

What structure protects the brain from toxins and bacteria, but allows oxygen and glucose to transfer?

A

The blood-brain barrier.

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92
Q

List three opposite reactions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

A
  1. Dilates/constricts pupils
  2. Dilates/constricts blood vessels
  3. Increases/decreases heart rate
  4. Inhibits/stimulates tears/saliva
  5. Inhibits/stimulates defecation/urination
  6. Inhibits/stimulates digestion
  7. Prepares for intense physical activity/slows high energy body functions and relaxes
93
Q

What is the difference between grey and white matter?

A

Grey matter contains cell bodies of neurones with short fibres and primarily receives sensory information and sends motor information.

White matter contains long fibres of myelinated nerves that communicate to/from the brain.

94
Q

The _____ _____ is the closest brain structure to the spinal cord. It controls _____ bodily functions like heart rate, blood pressure, and _____ reactions like sneezing or vomiting.

A

Medulla oblongata, involuntary, reflex.

95
Q

What brain structure is located immediately above the medulla oblongata?

A

The pons.

96
Q

What part of the unconscious brain receives sensory information from all parts of the body and communicates them to the cerebrum, serving as a “central relay station”?

A

Thalamus

97
Q

Which sensory inputs does the thalamus NOT receive?

A

Smell

98
Q

Which system (RAS) in the thalamus sorts out incoming stimuli, passing on only important information?

A

Reticular activating system.

99
Q

Which part of the unconscious brain controls balance and fine motor movement/muscle coordination like posture?

A

Cerebellum

100
Q

Which part of the unconscious brain maintains our internal environment? List at least 4 functions it manages.

A

Hypothalamus

  1. Hunger
  2. Sleep
  3. Thirst
  4. Body temperature
  5. Water balance
  6. Blood pressure
  7. Controls the pituitary gland
  8. Serves as a link between nervous and endocrine systems
101
Q

What structure of the brain connects the two hemispheres?

A

Corpus callosum

102
Q

Name the four lobes of the conscious brain.

A

Frontal, parietal, occipital and temporal.

103
Q

The _____ half of the brain is primarily responsible for motor information. The _____ half of the brain is primarily responsible for sensory information.

A

Front, back.

104
Q

What hemisphere is Wernicke’s area located in, and what is its primary function?

A

Left. Vocabulary, grammar, understanding language.

105
Q

Broca’s area is located in the _____ hemisphere and is responsible for what?

A

Left. The ability to speak.

106
Q

What are the four distinct things that are formed in the cerebrum?

A

Intellect, memory, learning and sensations.

107
Q

What small area is located in the frontal lobe, and what are at least five aspects controlled by the frontal lobe?

A

Boca’s area.

  1. Voluntary movement
  2. Higher intellect
  3. Problem solving
  4. Concentration
  5. Planning
  6. Judging consequence of behaviour
  7. Moving mouth & tongue to speak
  8. Personality
  9. Emotions
  10. Creativity
108
Q

Where is the parietal lobe located and what is it responsible for (four things)?

A

Upper/back.

  1. Sensations of touch: temperature, pressure, pain.
  2. Understanding speech.
  3. Sensation of taste.
  4. Proprioception (body position/orientation)
109
Q

Where is the occipital lobe located and what is it responsible for?

A

Back/lower.

  1. Visual information/association
  2. Combining visual info w/ other experiences
110
Q

What are the temporal lobe’s primary responsibilities and what small area is contained within it?

A
  1. Hearing/processing auditory information
  2. Retrieves visual and auditory memories
  3. Smelling
  4. Complex sensory patterns/music
  5. Interpretation of experiences

Wernicke’s area.

111
Q

Someone who lacks the ability to comprehend speech and language may have damage in which lobe or area of the brain?

A

Temporal lobe, Wernicke’s area.

112
Q

Someone who lacks the ability to feel temperature changes may have damage in which part of the brain?

A

Parietal lobe.

113
Q

Someone who lacks involuntary reflex reactions (like vomiting or coughing) may have damage in which part of the brain?

A

Medulla oblongata

114
Q

If someone is unable to perceive sensory information (other than smell), which part of their brain may be damaged?

A

Thalamus

115
Q

Which part of the brain acts as a link between the nervous and endocrine system?

A

Hypothalamus

116
Q

The dorsal root of the spine is made of _____ nerves that communicate from the body to the brain.

A

Sensory

117
Q

The _____ nerves of the ventral root in the spine communicate from the brain to effectors.

A

Motor

118
Q

Using magnets and radio signals, which technology examines the structure of the brain?

A

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

119
Q

There are five ways a drug can act in the body:

  1. _____ or 2. _____ the release of neurotransmitters.
  2. Combine with other neurotransmitters to _____ its breakdown.
  3. _____ neurotransmitters.
  4. _____ _____ so neurotransmitters can’t be received.
A
  1. Stimulate
  2. Block
  3. Prevent
  4. Mimic
  5. Block receptors
120
Q

Which drug enhances the action of acetylcholine?

A

Nicotine

121
Q

What are the two types of neurotransmitters?

A

Excitatory and inhibitory.

122
Q

Depressants either _____ the action of inhibitory transmitters or _____ the action of excitatory neurotransmitters.

A

Enhance, block.

123
Q

What is the primary function of the nervous system?

A

It is our processing system that relates us to the external world.

124
Q

What are the two major nervous system divisions?

A

Central and peripheral nervous systems.

125
Q

What are the five major parts of a neuron?

A
  1. Dendrites
  2. Cell body
  3. Cell membrane
  4. Axon
  5. Axon terminal
126
Q

What type of cells differentiate white matter from grey matter and how do they affect impulse transmission?

A

Glial or Schwann cells. They are a fatty layer that insulate the axon and accelerate impulse transmission by forcing impulses to jump from node to node in between myelin sheaths.

127
Q

What is a reflex arc?

A

An involuntary neural pathway that communicates between stimulus and response, bypassing the brain, typically in response to concern for survival and safety.

128
Q

What are the five major components of a reflex arc?

A
  1. Stimulus (strong/intense)
  2. Sensory neuron
  3. Interneuron
  4. Motor neuron
  5. Effector (muscle/gland)
129
Q

Sensory neurons have short/long axons?

A

Short

130
Q

Motor neurons have short/long axons?

A

Long

131
Q

Interneurons have short/long axons?

A

They may have both.

132
Q

Which type of neuron is contained completely within the central nervous system?

A

Interneurons

133
Q

Nerve impulses are _____ changes that move in one direction along the length of a nerve fibre.

A

Electrochemical

134
Q

What is the voltage difference across the membrane if an axon called when it is NOT conducting an impulse?

A

Resting potential.

135
Q

During the resting potential sodium ions are ____ concentrated on the outside of the membrane than on the inside.

A

More

136
Q

Potassium ions are more concentrated on the outside of an axon membrane. This is maintained by _____ transport via the _____ which operate whenever the neuron is not conducting an impulse.

A

Active, sodium-potassium exchange pumps.

137
Q

What are the three distinct phases of a neuron when generating nerve impulses?

A

Resting phase, action phase, and recovery phase.

138
Q

What is an action potential?

A

The state in which a nerve is stimulated by an intense enough stimuli that the voltage of its membrane achieves threshold potential, and is able to carry a signal.

139
Q

Name one excitatory neurotransmitter and it’s inhibitory enzyme.

A

Acetylcholine, cholinesterase.

140
Q

Where and how does acetylcholine function?

A

In the synapse. It excites muscle membranes by binding to postsynaptic receptors, opening voltage-gated channels and depolarizing its membrane.

141
Q

Excitatory neurotransmitters push membrane potentials _____ threshold.

Inhibitory neurotransmitters push membrane potentials _____ threshold.

A

Towards, away.

142
Q

The gap between presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons is called the?

A

Synaptic cleft.

143
Q

List three examples of reflex reactions.

A
  1. Blinking eyes
  2. Dilating pupils
  3. Patellar reflex
144
Q

What are the five stages of nerve impulse transmission?

A
  1. Resting / polarized
  2. Action potential / depolarization
  3. Repolarization
  4. Hyperpolarization / refractory
  5. Return to resting / polarization
145
Q

What are the three primary mechanisms that create a separation of charge in neurons?

A
  1. In resting state, sodium ions are more concentrated on the outside of the neuron while potassium ions are more concentrated inside.
  2. There are negatively charged chloride ions and large negatively charged proteins inside the neuron that cannot pass through gates or channels.
  3. When the membrane is resting/polarized, the voltage-gated channels remain closed and if any transfer occurs, sodium-potassium exchange pumps quickly rebalance concentration.
146
Q

Why can impulses only travel in one direction across synapses?

A

Neurotransmitters are only released from one end of the neuron, at the axon terminal.

147
Q

What causes hyperpolarization and why is it important?

A

Potassium voltage-gated channels are slow to close after reestablishing resting potential, allowing additional potassium ions into the neuron. It takes time for sodium-potassium exchange pumps to rebalance concentrations. High potassium concentration inside the neuron (hyperpolarization) prevents an impulse from moving backwards and another impulse to be triggered. This is called the refractory period.

148
Q

What are two ways neurotoxins work in the body/brain?

A
  1. Block receptors in postsynaptic neurons and prevent neurotransmitters from binding, causing paralysis.
  2. Inactivate enzymes that break-down neurotransmitters in the synapse, causing a build-up and overstimulation and fatigue.
149
Q

Parkinson’s disease can cause muscle and joint stiffness, poor posture, and loss of balance and fine motor skills. What’s happening in the brain to cause these symptoms?

A

Nerve cells that control muscle movement are gradually destroyed, inhibiting dopamine production. Inadequate levels of dopamine do not allow for an action potential to be achieved in postsynaptic neurons, so messages communicating voluntary movements are interrupted.

150
Q

What is the primary function of the endocrine system?

A

Detecting and responding to external stimuli and maintaining homeostasis by regulating body systems.

151
Q

The boss of the nervous system is?

A

The brain.

152
Q

The boss of the endocrine system is?

A

The hypothalamus-pituitary complex.

153
Q

What are the two primary functions of the pituitary gland?

A

Cellular respiration and metabolism.

154
Q

What are some of the ways that the nervous and endocrine system overlap (four)?

A
  1. Some nervous system tissue secretes hormones (cells in the hypothalamus, pituitary and adrenal glands).
  2. Some chemicals act as neurotransmitters and hormones, depending on where they’re found in the body.
  3. Both systems include responses regulated by negative feedback loops.
  4. Some physiological processes involve both systems working in conjunction.
155
Q

How does the endocrine system communicate with the body?

A

Hormones, transmitted through the bloodstream.

156
Q

What are the two types of hormones, what are they made of and where do they bind?

A
  1. Lipid soluble/steroid hormones; cholesterol; bind to receptors inside target cells (can diffuse across membranes).
  2. Water soluble/protein hormones; amino acids; bind to receptors on surface of target cells.
157
Q

What inactivated hormones?

A

Enzymes

158
Q

What is a negative feedback loop?

A

A structure that has an opposite reaction to its result: if it results in a high level of hormone concentration in the blood, production of the hormone that stimulated it is inhibited.

159
Q

Hormones that stimulate the release of other hormones are called? Give three examples.

A

Tropic hormones.

  1. FSH
  2. LH
  3. ACTH
  4. TSH
160
Q

Hormones that counteract other hormones are called? Give two examples.

A

Antagonistic hormones.

  1. Insulin / glucagon
  2. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) / calcitonin
161
Q

What two hormones does the hypothalamus produce and store in the pituitary gland?

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin.

162
Q

What gland secrets human grown hormone (hGH)?

A

Anterior pituitary gland.

163
Q

What gland produces prolactin (PRL)?

A

Anterior pituitary gland.

164
Q

What gland produces calcitonin?

A

Thyroid gland.

165
Q

What gland produces antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

A

Hypothalamus, but the pituitary gland releases it.

166
Q

What gland produces cortisol?

A

Adrenal cortex.

167
Q

What gland produces testosterone?

A

Testicles

168
Q

What gland produces epinephrine?

A

Adrenal medulla.

169
Q

What gland produces inhibit?

A

Testicles

170
Q

What gland produces melatonin?

A

Pineal gland.

171
Q

What gland produces aldosterone?

A

Adrenal cortex.

172
Q

What three hormones respond to positive feedback?

A

Oxytocin, prostaglandins and prolactin.

173
Q

What is the major difference between the anterior and posterior pituitary gland?

A

The posterior pituitary gland is made of modified nerve cells, is connected to the hypothalamus by neurons and is considered a “neuroendocrine gland”.

The anterior pituitary gland is made of secretory cells and is connected to the hypothalamus by blood vessels.

174
Q

What is the major difference between ADH and aldosterone?

A

Aldosterone promotes water reabsorption by stimulating the reuptake of sodium in the kidneys.

ADH targets the nephrons of the kidneys, causing tubules to become more permeable to water.

175
Q

The inability to produce ADH results in the _____ production of urine and a loss of _____ from the blood. What is this condition called?

A

Increased, ions, diabetes inspidus.

176
Q

Other than the reabsorption of water (and ions), what is an effect of ADH that makes it a “vasopressin”?

A

It causes blood vessels to restrict and increases blood pressure.

177
Q

What type of receptors detect changes in the ADH feedback loop?

A

Osmoreceptors (detect osmotic concentration in bloodstream).

178
Q

Complete this feedback loop: osmoreceptors > hypothalamus > RH > _____ gland > _____ > kidney tubules = reduced _____ volume and _____ blood pressure & volume

A

Posterior, ADH, urine, increased.

179
Q

What are the two functions of oxytocin?

A

Begins contractions of smooth muscles in uterus at the end of pregnancy/the beginning of childbirth. Also causes smooth muscles of milk glands to contract and squeeze milk out of nipples.

180
Q

What are the primary functions of hGH (four)?

A
  1. Stimulates growth plates at the end of long bones, causing them to lengthen.
  2. Regulates muscle growth by stimulating protein synthesis.
  3. Inhibits fat storage by encouraging its use for cellular respiration / encourages fat metabolism.
  4. Inhibits use of carbohydrates as glucose.
181
Q

What are the risks of hGH overproduction in adults?

A
  1. After growth plates are sealed, the soft tissues and bones widen instead of lengthen, causing jaws, ribs, fingers, toes and nose to enlarge.
  2. Can cause cardiovascular disease as heart enlarges, sugar intolerance (diabetes mellitus), breathing problems, muscle weakness, headaches and vision problems.
182
Q

A severe state of hyperthyroidism is called?

A

Grave’s disease.

183
Q

The overproduction of _____ causes anxiety, insomnia, heat intolerance, weight loss and difficulty concentrating.

A

Thyroxine

184
Q

What element is necessary for the synthesis of thyroxine?

A

Iodine

185
Q

What are some symptoms of the underproduction of thyroxine?

A

Intolerance to cold, stunted growth, fatigue, hair loss, slow pulse, puffy eyes, weight gain, slow speech.

186
Q

What is the function of thyroxine in the body?

A

Metabolism (use of macronutrients for energy); targets kidney, heart, skeletal muscles and liver.

187
Q

Complete the feedback loop: hypothalamus > _____ > _____ pituitary gland > _____ > thyroid > _____ > stimulation of cellular respiration.

A

TRH, anterior, TSH, thyroxine.

188
Q

What two hormones does the thyroid gland produce?

A

Thyroxine and calcitonin.

189
Q

Relentless stimulation of the thyroid gland by TSH, without the equal production of thyroxine can cause a?

A

Goitre

190
Q

Calcitonin _____ the concentration of calcium levels in the blood by stimulating the _____ of calcium to/from bones.

A

Decreases, reuptake.

191
Q

Which hormone acts as an antagonist to calcitonin by stimulating the decomposition of bones to release calcium into the bloodstream?

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH).

192
Q

When the body is stimulated to increase the calcium level in the bloodstream, which cells are stimulated to absorb it?

A

Intestinal cells are stimulated to absorb calcium from food.

193
Q

What is GnRH, where is it produced and what is its function?

A

Gonadotropin releasing hormone, the hypothalamus, stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to release FSH and LH.

194
Q

Hyponatremia is a condition where too little _____ is present in the bloodstream, and may cause nausea, a decreased ability to balance, seizures, coma, or difficulty processing thoughts.

A

Sodium

195
Q

What is the innermost part of the adrenal gland called?

A

Adrenal medulla.

196
Q

Which gland responds to short term stress?

A

Adrenal medulla gland.

197
Q

What are some of the bodily reactions to epinephrine?

A

Dilates pupils, increased breathing rate, bronchioles dilate, liver and muscles are stimulated to converge glycogen to glucose, heart rate and blood pressure increase, digestive system and peripheral skin vessels constrict to redirect blood, increased cellular respiration, increased sweat to cool body.

198
Q

What are the primary functions of cortisol in response to stress?

A
  1. Increase glucose metabolism for use as energy through long term stress.
  2. Raise blood pressure to improve circulation of oxygen and nutrients to body.
199
Q

What are the risks of long term stress?

A

Damage to the cardiovascular system, atherosclerosis, diabetes, inhibited immune system.

200
Q

In response to long term stress, the body releases cortisol and what other hormone?

A

Aldosterone (to increase blood pressure).

201
Q

Too much cortisol and aldosterone, resulting in excess back fat, puffy face, increased blood pressure and decreased resistance to infections is a condition called?

A

Cushing’s disease.

202
Q

Too little _____ and _____ causing destruction of the cells in the adrenal cortex, sodium imbalance, loss of water in urine, low blood glucose and decreased blood pressure is a condition called?

A

Cortisol, aldosterone. Addison’s disease.

203
Q

High sodium in blood = ???

Low sodium in blood = ???

A

Cushing’s disease / Addison’s disease

204
Q

The priority of a short term response to stress is increasing _____ and _____ in the bloodstream. In addition, the body’s long term stress response has an _____ effect which allows the body to intensify its sympathetic nervous system responses.

A

Glucose and oxygen. Anti-inflammatory.

205
Q

Among enzyme producing cells of the pancreas, the _____ of Langerhans are where pancreatic hormones are produced. What are the two types called?

A

Islets, alpha and beta.

206
Q

Insulin is produced in the _____ cells of the pancreas.

A

Beta cells.

207
Q

The less common _____ cells of the pancreas produce glycogen.

A

Alpha

208
Q

The pancreas is a hybrid gland because it much of the enzymes it produces are secreted into the small intestine through small ducts. What kind of gland is it?

A

Exocrine gland.

209
Q

As blood glucose levels rise (after eating), which protein hormone is released to decrease levels?

A

Insulin

210
Q

Rigorous exercise or fasting causes blood glucose levels to drop. This causes alpha cells to release which hormone?

A

Glucagon

211
Q

How does glucagon work to balance blood sugar levels?

A

It stimulates the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose.

212
Q

Which two types of cells does insulin act on to increase glucose permeability, and what do those cells use it for?

A

Muscle cells: for cellular respiration.

Liver cells: converts to glycogen.

213
Q

Insulin and glucagon, balancing blood sugar levels, are considered what class of hormones?

A

Antagonistic hormones.

214
Q

Which category of diabetes is caused by insulin abnormalities?

A

Diabetes mellitus.

215
Q

Diabetes _____, caused by insufficient _____, results in high urine volume and low ion concentration in the blood.

A

Insipidus, ADH.

216
Q

Without insulin, cells cannot obtain _____ from the blood. Cells starve and start metabolizing what instead?

A

Glucose; proteins and fats.

217
Q

Type _____ diabetes (mellitus), otherwise known as juvenile diabetes, means someone is insulin dependent or independent?

A

1, dependent.

218
Q

Type 2 diabetes, also known as _____ onset, means a person is insulin dependent or independent?

A

Adult, independent.

219
Q

Which pancreatic cells are destroyed by antibodies in type 1 diabetes? What is the result?

A

Beta cells; little to no insulin is produced.

220
Q

Insulin injections may help some people with type 2 diabetes, but why doesn’t it help others?

A

Because they have developed an insulin resistance / target cells do not respond to the insulin.

221
Q

Lacking insulin to utilize blood glucose for energy, the body will metabolism fats and proteins. _____ are released from fats and can smell like _____ on the breath.

A

Ketones, acetone.

222
Q

Which three hormones INCREASE blood glucose?

A
  1. Glucagon
  2. Cortisol
  3. Epinephrine
223
Q

Which two hormones DECREASE blood glucose levels?

A
  1. Insulin

2. Thyroxine

224
Q

Someone’s urine contains high sodium and high glucose concentration. What observations can you make about their hormone levels?

A

Low aldosterone (possibly Addison’s disease), low insulin (possibly diabetes mellitus).

225
Q

Someone’s urine sample tests high for the level of ketones. What condition do they likely have?

A

Type 1 diabetes mellitus.

226
Q

The endocrine system is faster/slower than the nervous system, and why?

A

Slower, because it relies on chemical messengers which travel slower than electrochemical impulses.

227
Q

Signals from the nervous system stimulus glands to _____ hormones or _____ to contract. Signals from the endocrine system result in changes to _____ _____.

A

Release, effectors. Metabolic activity.

228
Q

Why are epinephrine and norepinephrine released much faster than other endocrine hormones?

A

In response to short-term stress/immediate threats, the hypothalamus communicates with the adrenal medulla via the nerves of the sympathetic nervous system, instead of sending a chemical messenger through the slower bloodstream.

229
Q

What is one major difference between the reaction to epinephrine vs. Cortisol and aldosterone?

A

Cortisol and aldosterone have an anti-inflammatory effect that epinephrine does not.

Biology 30 (2 decks)

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