Unit 7 - Emerging Targets Flashcards

1
Q

Discuss the principle of photodynamic therapy

A

Where a photosensitizer is administers to a patients which after a period of time will accumulate at the target tissue. Light of a specific wavelength will then be used to activate the photosensitizer – which will result in excitation and the production of ROS which can cause DNA damage and activate cell death pathways.
Examples – phenothiazinium salts

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2
Q

What are the 4 key characteristics of a photosensitizer?

A
  • Selectively accumulate in tumour cells
  • Minimal dark toxicity
  • Strong photo-cytotoxicity
  • Wavelength activation should be between 600-800nm
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3
Q

What are the advantages of photodynamic therapy?

A
  • Minimally invasive
  • Few side effects
  • Cosmetically better than surgery/radiotherapy
  • Radiosensitizer has short half-life
  • Relatively low cost
  • Can be used with standard care
  • Can be used in the same location several times
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4
Q

Discuss the importance of MMPs in cancer progression

A
  • Promote tumour proliferation through release of growth factors
  • Evade apoptosis by proteolytic inactivation of Fas receptors
  • Promote angiogenesis
  • Promote cell invasion by degradation of ECM and cell-adhesions
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5
Q

Name one of the original MMP inhibitors and describe the reasons these trials failed

A
  • Batimatastat/marimastat
  • At the time only 3 MMPs were known
  • Lack of MMP subtype specificity
  • Faulty design of clinical trials (patients had advanced disease and differences between mouse and human models)
  • Dose-limiting toxicity
  • Inhibition of anti-targets (MMP9/12/19 prevent angiogenesis)
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6
Q

How can MMPIs become more specific?

A
  • Due to the fact we now know about the various specificity sites – we can make the agents even more specific
  • Can add certain groups like phosphonate to go to specific tissues like the bone (binds to calcium)
  • Antibodies preventing interactions between MMPs and their ligands
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7
Q

Describe the purpose of MMP activated pro-drugs in cancer treatment and what characteristics must they have?

A

Molecules can be designed which contain certain molecules in an inactive form – and are activated by a specific protease that is overexpressed by the tumour of interest – specificity of treatment!! This may also be aided by a ligand to bind to a specific receptor – to further increase specificity!!!

  • Enzyme must be well characterised and cleavage preference known
  • Protease is present and elevated in the tumour microenvironment but low in normal tissue
  • It is absent or inactive in circulation
  • It shows high affinity and selectivity for the target
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8
Q

What are ADAMs and what role can they play in cancer progression?

A

A disintegrin and metalloproteinase – multidomain transmembrane proteins that play roles in cell signalling and migration. Has SH2 (p) and SH3 (proline rich) BINDING REGIONS. Can cleave specific ECM targets.
ADAMs play an important role in EGFR activation
GPCRs can activate 2nd messengers and src to activate ADAMs (intracellular p-Tyr) which cleave these membrane bound ligands (HB-EGF) which allows them to activate EGFR ->PI3K and MAPK activation!!

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9
Q

Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of targeting ADAMs

A

Advantages
- Decreased proliferation due to less activation of EGFR
- Decreased tumour cell migration due to less cleavage of ECM and cell-adhesions and less CD44
- Increase immune surveillance
- Decrease chemokine agonists in inflammation
- Regulated intramembrane proteolysis may lead to proliferative signalling/activity
Disadvantages
- Decrease soluble antagonists – TNFR
- Decreased neuroprotection/regeneration

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10
Q

Discuss the possibility of ADAM15 targeting in cancer treatment

A

Is overexpressed in many cancers (including breast) which regulates endothelial cell permeability. Interact with collogens, receptors, cadherins as well as Src and Erk!!!
There are 5 splice variants (A-E) with different intracellular domains. ADAM15B is associated with reduced PFS in node-negative patients whilst ADAM15C in node-positive patients is associated with better outcome. B can bind to Src resulting in FGFR2 which is a tumour suppressor in breast cancer!!
But given some are beneficial and some are not – this likely means its not a good target!!!

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11
Q

Discuss the possibility of combination therapy with ADAM related therapy.

A

High ADAM activity is seen in cells with BRAF/KRAS mutations -leading to MET/Axl cleavage (poor prognosis). Cells treated with MEK inhibitors have reduced shedding of Met and Axl so they could activate Akt/Fos-Jun.
Hence block TIMPs and MAPK inhibition!

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12
Q

Discuss the role of ZIP7 in cancer

A

Is overexpressed in breast cancer and associated with Ki67 and anti-hormone resistance. Is phosphorylated by CK2 (S275/276) resulting in opening, release into the ER -> mitosis!
Hence Ck2 inhibitors could be useful!

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13
Q

Discuss why ZIP6 might be a good target in cancer?

A

It is involved in EMT
Is expressed by ER activity and is found on the ER membrane until cleavage -> plasma membrane. The zinc activity inhibits GSK-3β (along with Akt signalling) resulting in it not being able to phosphorylate SNAIL – so it stays in the nucleus and expresses genes associated with EMT (and blocks E-cadherin expression).
It also does this by interacting with ZIP10 and NCAM which can also inhibit GSK-3β – preventing NCAM phosphorylation and reduces interactions with integrins resulting in a loss of cell adhesion
It is involved in driving mitosis
- In interphase ZIP6 and ZIP10 expression is increased due to STAT3 signalling. This receptors sit on the ER with Jarid1B until a signal causes them to be cleaved and translocate to the cell membrane
- The resulting influx of zinc results in the changing of pS705STAT3->pS727STAT3 which binds to this heteromer.
- pS38Stathmin is also bound to this and responsible for microtubule reorganisation
- This results in the displacement of Jarid1B which is able to bind to histone H3 and take part in chromosome condensation
- Once mitosis has started a further cleavage of the ZIP6 N-terminus
- At the end of mitosis, the N-terminus of STAT3 is cleaved, removing the S727 residue so it restores its transcriptional activity in the pS705 form.

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14
Q

What is epigenetics?

A

Stable, heritable phenotype resulting from changes in chromosome structure rather than alterations in the DNA sequence

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15
Q

What are the potential advantages of targeting epigenetics in cancer treatment?

A
  • There are a considerable number of mutations in epigenetic regulators involved in driving cancers
  • Epigenetic modifications are largely reversible
  • Mutations in a single epigenetic regulator are prevalent in a broad range of cancers and responsible in regulating many genes
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16
Q

Discuss how mutations in DNAMTs can lead to cancer

A

Can be non-specific changes – e.g. LINE hyperactivation leading to insertion and disruption in genes like APC
Can be specific to particular tumour suppressors like p53/RB and BRCA
Causes unknown!!

17
Q

What agents were originally used to target DNAMTs and why were they unsuccessful?

A

Nucleoside analogues like azacytidine and non-nucleoside analogues like procainamide
Problems:
- Genome wide decrease in methylation result in reactivation of genes at random
- Molecules also interfere with DNA synthesis – toxicity in normal cells
- Their mechanism of action isn’t fully understood – interact with RNA or cause interferon signalling
- Drug resistance is common – usually due to changes in thymidine metabolism
- They have poor drug penetration

18
Q

What are the advantages of using DNA methylation as a biomarker in cancer?

A
  • Early and frequent occurrence in cancer
  • Ease of detection with established techniques
  • Stability of methylation in fixed biopsy samples/body fluid over time
    Epi ProColon for CRC
19
Q

What do HDACs do and name some molecules which are used to inhibit them?

A

They remove an acetyl group of lysine molecules – which leads to a tighter interaction with DNA and reduced expression – commonly mutated in cancer leading to Tumour suppression expression! May also alter other proteins like p53 and NFκB (and may be involved in resistance)
Vorinostat, Belinostat and romindespin in various T-cell lymphomas
Trials for HMTis (EZH2i’s) and HDMi’s – but specificity is difficult to obtain

20
Q

Describe another example of synthetic lethality

A

Loss of H3K36Me (overexpression of KDM4) with cell cycle checkpoint inhibitors like wee1 inhibitors will result in decreased levels of ribonucleotide reductase – nucleotide exhaustion – no replication – cell death

21
Q

How do MIRNAs work?

A

They can be incorporated into the RISC complex are a nucleotide sequence that is specific and has high affinity for a particular region of mRNA for a specific gene of interest.
This results in the recruitment of deadenylases which results in RNA degradation and prevents circulation of RNA required for translation initiation

22
Q

Compare the two approaches for miRNA manipulation

A

Anti-miRNA – single stranded oligonucleotides which are complimentary to the target miRNA – preventing them interacting with the RISC complex or target mRNA
MiRNA mimics – restore the endogenous miRNA activity

23
Q

How are miRNAs modified to increase activity

A

Chemical modifications LNA ribose sugars which increase nuclease resistance, decrease immunogenicity and forms more stable partners
Using PEG and liposomes to increase delivery