Unit 6 Patho - Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of micturition?

A

Micturition is the process of urination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What coordinates the relaxation of the internal sphincter and contraction of the bladder during micturition?

A

The pontine micturition center.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does the cerebral cortex affect micturition?

A

It primarily inhibits the process through conscious control of the external sphincter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What prevents the bladder from emptying until a certain pressure is reached?

A

The internal sphincter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What allows for voluntary emptying of the bladder?

A

The external sphincter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What creates a hostile environment for bacteria in the urinary tract?

A

Acidic pH and the presence of urea in the urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the bacteriostatic secretions in men that help prevent infection?

A

Prostatic secretions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do glands in the distal urethra secrete in women to prevent bacterial spread?

A

Mucus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is urinalysis used for?

A

It is an essential lab test for all suspected problems of the GU system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What might dark, strong-smelling urine indicate?

A

Decreased renal function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What generally indicates an infectious process in urine?

A

Cloudy, pungent urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What should be recorded in a bladder diary?

A

Time, frequency, and volume of micturition, and incidents of incontinence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the primary organism responsible for community cases of bacterial cystitis?

A

Escherichia coli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are common clinical manifestations of cystitis?

A

Frequency, urgency, dysuria, suprapubic pain, pink or cloudy urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is acute pyelonephritis often caused by?

A

Obstruction or ureteral reflux.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are common risk factors for acute pyelonephritis?

A

Pregnancy, diabetes mellitus, anatomical abnormalities, obstructive causes.

17
Q

What is a classic sign of acute pyelonephritis?

A

Flank pain.

18
Q

What are the phases of acute tubular necrosis?

A

Prodromal phase, oliguria phase, post-oliguric phase.

19
Q

What is defined as an increase in serum creatinine by >0.3 mg/dL within 48 hours?

A

Acute Kidney Injury (AKI).

20
Q

What are the three types of kidney injury in acute kidney injury?

A

Pre-renal, intrinsic/intra-renal, post-renal.

21
Q

What are the stages of chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

A

1- kidney damage with normal GFR, 2- mildly decreased GFR, 3- moderately decreased GFR, 4- severely decreased GFR, 5- end-stage kidney disease.

22
Q

What is nephrotic syndrome characterized by?

A

Urinary elimination of > 3 to 3.5 grams of protein per day.

23
Q

What are common causes of nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • Idiopathic focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
  • Membranous nephropathy
  • Diabetes mellitus.
24
Q

What is autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)?

A

The most common hereditary cystic kidney disease involving both kidneys.

25
Q

What is the average age of diagnosis in the HALT Progression of Polycystic Kidney Disease trial?

26
Q

What are the types of peritoneal dialysis?

A
  • Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)
  • Continuous cycling peritoneal dialysis (CCPD).
27
Q

What is a major complication of peritoneal dialysis?

A

Peritonitis.

28
Q

What is the role of the RIFLE classification system?

A

To classify the severity of kidney injury and patient outcomes.

29
Q

What is the primary reason for initiating dialysis?

A

The development of uremia.

30
Q

What is the expected outcome of chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

A

Progression to end-stage renal disease (ESRD).

31
Q

What is the process of exchanging dialysate in Continuous Ambulatory Peritoneal Dialysis (CAPD)?

A

2 quarts of dialysate are infused into the peritoneum through a catheter, remaining for 4-5 hours before being drained and discarded.

32
Q

How does Continuous Ambulatory Peritoneal Dialysis (CAPD) allow patients to manage their daily activities?

A

While the dialysate resides in the peritoneal cavity, patients have more freedom to continue usual activities at work, school, or home.

33
Q

What is Continuous Cycling Peritoneal Dialysis (CCPD)?

A

A dialysis method where each cycle during sleep lasts 1.5 hours, allowing for home treatment and continued daily activities.

34
Q

What is a potential serious complication of peritoneal dialysis?

A

Peritonitis.

35
Q

What type of patients is Continuous Renal Replacement Therapy (CRRT) used for?

A

In-hospital AKI patients.

36
Q

How does Continuous Renal Replacement Therapy (CRRT) filter and dialyze blood?

A

It performs continuous hemofiltration and hemodialysis without interruption.

37
Q

Who is CRRT designed for?

A

Patients not hemodynamically stable enough to tolerate large quantities of blood removed during typical hemodialysis.