Unit 5 Pharmacology: Opioid Agonists & Antagonists Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 4 steps of pain transmission?

A

Transduction
Transmission
Modulation
Perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe transduction

A

Inquired tissues release a variety of chemicals that activate peripheral nerves and/or cause immune cells to release pro inflammatory compounds. The peripheral nerves transduce this chemical soup into an action potential, so that the extent of tissue injury can ultimately be interpreted by the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What nerve fibers transmit pain? Which type of pain?

A

A-delta fibers transmit fast pain that is sharp and well localized
C fibers transmit slow pain that is dull and poorly localized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the role of inflammation in pain transduction?

A

It contributes to:
Reduced threshold to pain stimulus - allodynia
Increased response to pain stimulus - hyperalgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe pain transmission:

A

The pain signal is relayed through the 3-neuron afferent pain pathway along the spinothalmic tract:
1st order neuron: periphery to dorsal horn (cell body in the dorsal root ganglion)
2nd order neuron: dorsal horn to thalamus (cell body in dorsal horn)
3rd order neuron: thalamus to cerebral cortex (cell body in thalamus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Discuss the process of pain modulation:

A

The pain signal is modified (inhibited to augmented) as it advances towards the cerebral cortex.
The most important site of modulation is the substantia gelatinosa in the dorsal horn (Rexed lamina II & III).
Pain is inhibited when:
-spinal neurons release GABA and glycine (inhibitory neurotransmitters)
-the descending pain pathway releases NE, 5-HT, and endorphins
Pain is augmented by:
-central sensitization
- wind-up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Discuss the process of pain perception:

A

Describes the processing of afferent pain signals in the cerebral cortex and limbic system (how we “feel” about pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

List the 4 types of opioid receptors:

A

Mu (MOP)
Delta (DOP)
Kappa (KOP)
ORL1 (NOP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the mechanism of action of opioids?

A

Each opioid receptor is linked to a G protein, and agonism of the receptor instructs the G protein to “turn off” adenylate cyclase. This reduces the intracellular concentration of cAMP (second messenger), which alters ionic currents and reduces neuronal function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

6 steps of opioid MOA

A
  1. Opioid binds to receptor
  2. G protein is activated
  3. Adenylate cyclase is inhibited
  4. Less cAMP is produced
  5. Ca+2 conductance is decreased
  6. K+ conductance is increased
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What occurs due to the Ca+2 conductance decrease that occurs with opioids?

A

It reduces neurotransmitter release from presynaptic neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What occurs due to the increase in K+ conductance that occurs with opioids?

A

Hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic neuron
TP further RMP
More resistant to stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What opioid receptor contributes to most of the classic signs of opioids?

A

Mu receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where are opioid receptors located?

A

Brain: periaqueductal gray, locus coeruleus, and rostrum ventral medulla
Spinal cord: primary afferent neurons in the dorsal horn and the interneurons
Peripheral: sensory neurons and immune cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the precursors of the endogenous opioids?

A

Pre-proopiomelanocortin -> endorphins (Mu receptor)
Pre-enkephalin -> enkephalins (Delta receptor)
Pre-dynorphins -> dynorphins (Kappa receptor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the endogenous ligand(s) of the Mu receptor?

A

Endorphin

  • Beta-endorphin
  • Endomorphin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the endogenous ligand of the Delta receptor?

A

Enkephalin

  • Leu-enkephalin
  • Met-enkephalin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the endogenous ligand of the kappa receptor?

A

Dynorphin

  • dynorphin A
  • dynorphin B
  • neodynorphin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where do the opioid receptors produce analgesia?

A

Supraspinal and spinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which opioid receptors are responsible for respiratory depression?

A

Mu
Delta
Kappa ??

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What opioid receptors are responsible for Bradycardia?

A

Mu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What opioid receptors are responsible for sedation?

A

Mu

Kappa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What opioid receptors are responsible for euphoria?

A

Mu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What opioid receptors are responsible for Dysphoria

A

Kappa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What opioid receptors are responsible for Prolactin release?

A

Mu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What opioid receptors are responsible for Hallucinations?

A

Kappa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What opioid receptors are responsible for mild hypothermia?

A

Mu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What opioid receptors are responsible for delirium?

A

Kappa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What CNS effects are the delta receptors responsible for?

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What opioid receptors are responsible for miosis?

A

Mu and kappa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What opioid receptors are responsible for urinary retention?

A

Mu and Delta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What opioid receptors are responsible for diuresis?

A

Kappa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What opioid receptors are responsible for N/V?

A

Mu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What opioid receptors are responsible for increase biliary pressure?

A

Mu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What opioid receptors are responsible for decreased peristalsis?

A

Mu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What opioid receptors are responsible for pruritus?

A

Mu and Delta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What opioid receptors are responsible for antishivering?

A

Kappa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

List opioid side effects caused by Mu-1: (7)

A
Analgesia (supraspinal and spinal)
Bradycardia
Euphoria
Low abuse potential
Miosis
Hypothermia
Urinary retention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

List opioid side effects caused by Mu-2: (4)

A

Analgesia (spinal only)
Respiratory depression
Constipation
Physical dependence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

List opioid side effects caused by Mu-3

A

Immune suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the unique effects of kappa stimulation? (5)

A
Antishivering effect
Diuresis
Dysphoria
Delirium
Hallucinations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How do opioids affect heart rate?

A

Bradycardia is the result of mu stimulation (mu-2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which opioid can produce increased HR? How?

A

Meperidine can increase HR: atropine like ring in chemical structure produces anticholinergic effects: tachycardia, mydriasis, and dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How do opioids affect blood pressure?

A

There in a minimal effect on BP in healthy patients
Hypotension with morphine or meperidine is likely the result of histamine release
Dose dependent vasodilation
Baroreceptor reflex is not affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How do opioids affect myocardial function?

A

Contractility is not affected

Myocardial depression can occur if combined with N2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How do opioids affect ventilation?

A

Opioids stimulate the mu and delta receptors (and possibly kappa) to produce their ventilatory effects:
Decreased ventilatory response to CO2 (CO2 response curve shifted to the right)
Decreased RR and compensatory increase in Vt (partial compensation)
Increased PaCO2 -> increased ICP if ventilation is not maintained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How do opioids affect the pupil?

A

Edinger Westphal nucleus stimulation -> increased PNS stimulation of ciliary ganglion and oculomotor nerve (CN III) -> pupil constriction
Tolerance does not develop to miosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How do opioids produce nausea and vomiting?

A

Mu receptor stimulation:
Chemoreceptor trigger zone stimulation (area postrema of medulla)
Possible interaction with the vestibular apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Do opioids affect SSEPs?

A

Minimal effects on evoked-potentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How do opioids affect biliary pressure?

A

GI effects through mu receptor stimulation
Contraction of sphincter of Oddi -> increased biliary pressure
Reversed by naloxone or glucagon
Meperidine causes the lowest incidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How do opioids affect gastric emptying?

A

GI effects through mu receptor stimulation

Gastric emptying is prolonged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How do opioids affect peristalsis?

A

GI effects through mu receptor stimulation

Peristalsis is slowed -> constipation

53
Q

How do opioid contribute to urinary retention?

A
Mu and delta receptor stimulation
Detrusor relaxation (contraction is needed to pass urine into the urethra)
Urinary sphincter contraction (relaxation is needed to void)
54
Q

What are the immunologic effects of opioids?

A
Histamine release (morphine, meperidine, codeine)
Inhibition of cellular and humoral immune function
Suppression of natural killer cell function
55
Q

How do opioids affect thermoregulation?

A

Opioids reset the hypothalamic temperature set point -> decreased core body temperature

56
Q

What are the gender differences in opioids?

A
In women morphine is associated with a:
Greater analgesic potency
Slower onset of action
Longer duration of action
Lower post op opioid consumption
57
Q

Rank the IV opioids in terms of potency:

A

Sufentanil > Fentanyl = Remifentanil > Alfentanil > Hydromorphone > Morphine > Meperidine

58
Q
Compare the equianalgesic opioid doses relative to 10 mg of morphine; relative potency:
Meperidine
Morphine
Hydromorphone
Alfentanil
Fentanyl
Remifentanil
Sufentanil
A
Meperidine 100 mg ; 0.1
Morphine: 10 mg; 1
Hydromorphone: 1.4 mg; 7
Alfentanil: 1000 mcg; 10
Fentanyl: 100 mcg; 100
Remifentanil: 100 mcg; 100
Sufentanil: 10 mcg; 1000
59
Q

What about the relative potency of methadone?

A

It is variable and based on the patient’s daily opioid requirements and duration of therapy.

60
Q

Tolerance and physical dependence are most likely due to:

A

Receptor desensitization and increased synthesis of cAMP. These phenomena are not due to enzyme induction.

61
Q

Tolerance develops to nearly all of the side affects associated with opioids, what 2 exceptions are there?

A

Miosis

Constipation

62
Q

Early s/sx of opioid withdrawal: (3)

A

Diaphoresis
Insomnia
Restlessness

63
Q

Late s/sx of opioid withdrawal: (2)

A

Abdominal cramping

N/V

64
Q

Time course of withdrawal is a function of the drug’s half-life:
Fentanyl and meperidine
Morphine and heroin
Methadone

A

Fentanyl and meperidine: onset 2 - 6 hours, peak 6 - 12 hours, duration 4 - 5 days
Morphine and heroin: onset 6 - 18 hours, peak 36 - 72 hours, duration 7 - 10 days
Methadone: onset 24 - 48 hours, peak 3 - 21 days, duration 6 - 7 weeks

65
Q

What metabolism do opioids undergo?

A

All under hepatic biotransformation except for Remifentanil

66
Q

What opioids have an active metabolite?

A

Morphine

Meperidine

67
Q

What is the active metabolite of morphine, and why is it a problem?

A

Morphine is conjugated to morphine-3-glucuronide (inactive) and morphine-6-glucuronide (active).
Impaired renal function -> decreased MP6 excretion -> increased accumulation -> respiratory depression

68
Q

What is the active metabolite of meperidine, and why is it a problem?

A

Meperidine is demethylated in the liver to normeperidine:
Normeperidine is one half as potent as its parent compound.
It reduces the seizure threshold and increases CNS excitability.
Impaired renal function -> decreased normeperidine excretion -> increased accumulation -> seizures

69
Q

Meperidine should maybe be avoided in what patient population?

A

Those on dialysis and the elderly

70
Q

How is Remifentanil metabolized?

A

It is hydrolyzes in the plasma by erythrocyte and tissue esterases.

71
Q

How is Remifentanil dosed?

A

Always at lean body weight

72
Q

Meperidine is what type of opioid, and stimulates what receptors?

A

Synthetic phenylpiperidine

Mu and kappa receptor

73
Q

How is meperidine metabolized?

A

Demethylated to normeperidine by the CYP450 system in the liver

74
Q

Normeperidine is what potency compared to the parent compound?

A

1/2 the potency

75
Q

What is the elimination 1/2 life of meperidine?

A

15 hours, but it can exceed 35 hours in the patient with renal failure

76
Q

Discuss the co-administration of meperidine and MAO inhibitors

A

Meperidine is a weak serotonin reuptake inhibitor
Since MAO delaminates serotonin in the synaptic cleft, co-admin of meperidine and an MAO inhibitor can cause serotonin syndrome
S/SX: hyperthermia, mental status change, hyperreflexia, seizures, death
MAO inhibitors: phenelzine, isocarboxazid, tranylcypromine

77
Q

Meperidine has anticholinergic effects, why?

A

Structurally related to atropine

Tachycardia, mydriasis, dry mouth

78
Q

Why does meperidine have an antishivering effect?

A

It stimulated the kappa receptor

79
Q

What opioids cause histamine release from mast cells?

A

Meperidine
Morphine
Codeine
Oxycodone

80
Q

What opioid has the fastest onset of action? Why?

A

Alfentanil.
pKa is 6.5 which is less than physiologic pH
It is ~90% unionized and 10% ionized (unionized is what crosses BBB)
It has a low Vd and high degree of protein binding (alpha-1-acid glycoprotein)
Since it’s highly unionized and it doesn’t have a large Vd, more of the drug is available to enter the brain

81
Q

Which opioid has the largest Vd? Which has the smallest?

A

Largest: Fentanyl 4 L/kg
Smallest: Remifentanil 0.39 L/kg

Remifentanil doesn’t distribute to the fat, because it’s metabolized so quickly in the plasma.

82
Q
Alfentanil:
pKa
Unionized %
Protein binding %
Vd L/kg
A

pKa: 6.5
Unionized %: 89
Protein binding %: 92
Vd L/kg: 0.6

83
Q
Remifentanil:
pKa
Unionized %
Protein binding %
Vd L/kg
A

pKa: 7.2
Unionized %: 58
Protein binding %: 93
Vd L/kg: 0.39

84
Q
Morphine:
pKa
Unionized %
Protein binding %
Vd L/kg
A

pKa: 7.9
Unionized %: 23
Protein binding %: 35
Vd L/kg: 2.8

85
Q
Sufentanil:
pKa
Unionized %
Protein binding %
Vd L/kg
A

pKa: 8.0
Unionized %: 20
Protein binding %: 93
Vd L/kg: 2

86
Q
Fentanyl:
pKa
Unionized %
Protein binding %
Vd L/kg
A

pKa: 8.4
Unionized %: 8.5
Protein binding %: 84
Vd L/kg: 4

87
Q
Meperidine:
pKa
Unionized %
Protein binding %
Vd L/kg
A

pKa: 8.5
Unionized %: 7
Protein binding %: 70
Vd L/kg: 2.6

88
Q

Which opioid has the highest pKa? The lowest?

A

Highest: meperidine - 8.5
Lowest: alfentanil - 6.5

89
Q

Which opioid has the highest unionized %? The lowest?

A

Highest: alfentanil - 89
Lowest: meperidine - 7

90
Q

Which opioid has the highest protein binding? The lowest?

A

Highest: Remifentanil and Sufentanil- 93%
Lowest: morphine - 35%

91
Q

Which opioid has the highest Vd? Lowest?

A

Highest: fentanyl - 4 L/kg
Lowest: Remifentanil - 0.39 L/kg

92
Q

Alfentanil’s effect side equilibration is ~____ minutes. Fentanyl? Sufentanil?

A

Alfentanil: 1.4 min
Fentanyl: 6.8 min
Sufentanil: 6.2 min

93
Q

Alfentanil undergoes what type of metabolism?

A

N-dealkylation and O-demthylation by the hepatic cytochrome P450 system, specifically CYP3A4

94
Q

What drug inhibits alfentanil’s metabolism and can result in prolonged respiratory depression?

A

Erythromycin

95
Q

Does renal failure alter alfentanil clearance?

A

No

96
Q

Remifentanil is a ___ agonist

A

Mu

97
Q

Maintenance infusion for Remifentanil:

A

0.1 - 1.0 mcg/kg/min

98
Q

Context-sensitive half time is about ____ regardless of infusion duration of Remifentanil

A

4 minutes

99
Q

Remifentanil is highly lipophilic, but behaves as though it has a small Vd, why?

A

Very fast rate of clearance in the plasma

100
Q

How is Remifentanil ALWAYS dosed?

A

Calculated with lean body weight because it does not distribute into fat

101
Q

What is the significance of Remifentanil’s ester linkage?

A

This makes it susceptible to hydrolysis by erythrocyte and tissue esterases.

102
Q

Remifentanil causes acute opioid induced hyperalgesia following discontinuation, what is the significant post op? How can this be prevented?

A

Post op opioid consumption is high in these patients.

Can be prevented with ketamine or magnesium sulfate

103
Q

Can Remifentanil be used for neuraxial anesthesia? Why or why not?

A

Remifentanil powder is mixed with a free base glycine to provide a buffered solution following reconstitution.
Glycine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter
It can cause skeletal muscle weakness, so it should no be administered in the epidural or intrathecal space

104
Q

How does methadone reduce pain?

A

By 3 mechanisms:
Mu receptor agonist
NMDA receptor antagonist (only opioid that has this effect)
Inhibits reuptake of monoamines in the synaptic cleft

105
Q

Methadone is a racemic mixture. T/F

A

True

106
Q

When administered orally methadone has a bioavailability of ___%

A

80%

107
Q

DOA of methadone?

A

3 - 6 hours, however chronic administration prolongs its elimination half-life as well as its duration of analgesia

108
Q

How is methadone metabolized? Does it have an active metabolite?

A

In the liver by CYP450 system

No active metabolite

109
Q

Which opioid is most likely to cause QT prolongation?

A

although a rare event, methadone can potentially increase the QT interval. This can lead to Torsades de pointes

110
Q

What is the etiology of opioid induced skeletal muscle rigidity?

A

Rapid IV administration of the potent IV opioids can cause skeletal muscle rigidity (mu receptor stimulation in the CNS ultimately influencing dopamine and GABA motor pathways). Historically, this compilation has been described as chest wall rigidity or stiff chest syndrome, however current evidence suggests that the greatest resistance to ventilation occurs at the larynx. Opioids do not directly affect motor nerve conduction, the neuromuscular junction, or skeletal muscle.

111
Q

What opioids are more likely to produce skeletal muscle rigidity?

A

The potent (lipophilic) compounds such as sufentanil, fentanyl, Remifentanil, and Alfentanil

112
Q

What is the treatment for opioid induced skeletal muscle rigidity?

A

Best treatment is paralysis and intubation

Naloxone can also reverse rigidity (counterproductive just before surgery)

113
Q

Respiratory complications of opioid induced muscle rigidity: (7)

A
Hypoxia
Hypercapnia
Increased oxygen consumption 
Decreased SVO2
Decreased thoracic compliance
Decreased FRC
Decreased minute ventilation
114
Q

Cardiovascular complications of opioid induced muscle rigidity: (3)

A

Increased CVP
Increased PAP
Increased PVR

115
Q

Neuro complications of opioid induced muscle rigidity:

A

Increased ICP

116
Q

GI complications of opioid induced muscle rigidity:

A

Increased gastric pressure with mask ventilation

117
Q

Opioid partial agonists (agonist-antagonist) common characteristics:

A

Analgesia with a reduced risk of respiratory depression
Have a ceiling effect
Reduce the efficacy of previously administered opioids
Can cause acute withdrawal in opioid dependent patients
Cause cause Dysphoria reactions
Carry low risk of dependence
Are used in patients who cannot tolerate a full opioid agonist

118
Q
Buprenorphine:
Mechanism
Analgesia compared to morphine
Reversed by Naloxone
Key Features
A

Mechanism: Mu partial agonist
Analgesia compared to morphine: greater
Reversed by Naloxone: difficult due to high affinity for mu receptor
Key Features: long duration - 8hr; available via transdermal

119
Q
Nalbuphine:
Mechanism
Analgesia compared to morphine
Reversed by Naloxone
Key Features
A

Mechanism: Kappa agonist, mu antagonist
Analgesia compared to morphine: similar
Reversed by Naloxone: yes
Key Features: does not increase BP, PAP, HR, or RAP; useful with hx of heart dz

120
Q
Butorphanol:
Mechanism
Analgesia compared to morphine
Reversed by Naloxone
Key Features
A

Mechanism: kappa agonist, mu antagonist (weak)
Analgesia compared to morphine: greater
Reversed by Naloxone: yes
Key Features: useful for post op shivering, available in intranasal

121
Q

Naloxone is the prototype opioid antagonist, what receptor(s) does it antagonize?

A

Mu, kappa, and delta

it has the greatest affinity for the mu receptor

122
Q

Naloxone dose, duration?

A

Dose: 1 - 4 mcg/kg - it is best to give 20 - 40 mcg at a time to prevent overshooting
Duration: 30 - 45 minutes - this may be shorter than the opioid

123
Q

Naloxone metabolism?

A

Liver with significant first pass metabolism

124
Q

In a patient with pain, analgesic reversal actives the SNS, what are the implications of this? How can these effects be minimized?

A

This is the mechanism by which naloxone causes neurogenic pulmonary edema, tachycardia, cardiac dysrhythmias, and sudden death.
Slow titration minimizes these effects.
It can also cause N/V, slow titration over 2 - 3 minutes causes less N/V.

125
Q

Can naloxone cross the placenta?

A

Yes. So giving to an opioid abusing mother, it can precipitate acute opioid withdrawal in the neonate.

126
Q

Methylnatrexone is an antagonist that has a quaternary amino group, what is the significance of this?

A

It cannot cross the BBB, therefore can not be used to reverse respiratory depression.
It is useful for mitigating the peripheral effects of opioids, such as bowel dysfunction

127
Q

Nalmefene has a similar profile to naloxone, except for what? Dose?

A

Duration of action is about 10 hours.

Dose: 0.1 - 0.5 mcg/kg

128
Q

What opioid antagonist has the longest duration of action?

A

Naltrexone - up to 24 hours.
It does not undergo significant first pass metabolism.
An extended release formulation may be used for alcohol withdrawal treatment.
Can also be used to maintain recovering opioid abusers.