Unit 5- Microbiology & Prokaryotes Flashcards

1
Q

How does prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes?

A

Prokaryotes have no membrane bound organelles, no nucleus and small in size.

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2
Q

What advantage does the simplicity of prokaryotic cells provide?

A

It allows for rapid growth and division due to a high surface area.

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3
Q

What is significant about antibiotics?

A
  • Derived from soil microorganisms.
  • Potent bacteriocides with high therapeutic index which means low toxicity to human cells but high toxicity to bacteria.
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4
Q

What is taxonomy?

A

The classification of organisms into ordered groups.

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5
Q

What is nomenclature?

A

The labelling of groups or individual members within those groups.

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6
Q

What are the levels of taxonomy for cellular living organisms?

A

Life, Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species.

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7
Q

What are the three domains of life?

A

Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes.

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8
Q

How are bacteria and archaea different despite both being prokaryotes?

A
  • Bacteria have peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
  • Archaea have a distinct evolutionary history based on mRNA sequencing.
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9
Q

What are the four kingdoms in the eukaryotic domain?

A
  • Protista: Includes algae, Protozoa, and slime molds
  • Fungi: Includes yeast (unicellular) and molds (multicellular).
  • Animalia: Includes multicellular animals like parasites.
  • Plantae: Includes multicellular plants that perform photosynthesis.
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10
Q

What characteristics are used to classify bacteria?

A
  • Morphology
  • Staining reactions
  • Culturing characteristics
  • Biochemical reactions
  • Antigenic capability
  • Nucleotide base composition (GC-ratio)
  • Presence, location, & shape of an endospore
  • Atmospheric preferences
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11
Q

What are the atmospheric preferences of bacteria?

A
  • Anaerobos: Grow without oxygen
  • Aerobes: Requires oxygen
  • Facultative anaerobes: Tolerates hypoxia
  • Microaerophiles: Prefer lower oxygen levels
  • Capnophiles: Thrive in elevated carbon dioxide levels.
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12
Q

What is the structure of the bacterial genome?

A

A single circular double-stranded DNA molecule, sometimes with plasmids coding for non-essential functions.

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13
Q

What it is the bacterial capsule, and what is this function?

A
  • A rigid cell wall surrounding the cell membrane, composed of loose polysaccharides.
  • Maintains cell shape, protects phagocytosis, and contributes to virulence.
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14
Q

How does the composition of the bacterial capsule affect virulence?

A

Capsule composition varies across phyla, influencing bacteria’s ability to survive in the human body & evade immune responses.

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15
Q

What are fimbriae, and what is their function?

A

Hair-like structures protruding from bacterial cells involved in bacterial conjugation.

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16
Q

What are pili, and what role do they play in bacteria?

A

Structures used by bacteria to share and swap plasmids during conjugation, often transferring antibiotic resistance.

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17
Q

What are endospores, and why are they significant?

A

Dormant bacterial structures formed under unfavourable conditions; they are extremely resistant to heat, dehydration, radiation, & chemicals.

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18
Q

What is glycocalyx, and what are its types?

A

An outermost layer of prokaryotic cells made of polysaccharides/polypeptides. Types include:
* Slimes: Unorganised, loose, water-soluble, sticky, & essential for biofilm formation.
* Capsules: Organised, firmly attached, & protective.

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19
Q

What are the functions of glycocalyces?

A
  • Protect the plasma membrane from stresses, desiccation, or chemicals.
  • Help bacteria attach to surfaces, initiating disease.
  • Aid in biofilm formation (slime only).
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20
Q

What are biofilms, and where can they form?

A

Aggregations of microorganisms embedded in a slime matrix, forming on living tissues (e.g. tooth paste) or non-living surfaces (e.g. catheters).

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21
Q

Why are biofilms more resistant to antibiotics and stresses?

A

Cells communicate via quorum sensing, coordinating actions like replication or secretion of harmful substances.

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22
Q

What is the composition of bacterial cell walls, an dhow does it differ from eukaryotes?

A
  • Bacteria: Peptidoglycan’s (NAG & NAM connected by amino acid cross bridges).
  • Eukaryotes: Pectin or cellulose (e.g. in fungi & plants).
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23
Q

What is the function of the bacterial cell wall?

A

Provides structural support, protecting the cell from osmotic pressure, drought & chemicals.

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24
Q

What is a pathogen?

A

A microorganism capable of causing disease in plants, animals, or insects.

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25
Q

What is pathogenicity?

A

The ability of a microbe to cause disease in a host organism.

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26
Q

Define virulence?

A

The degree of pathogenicity of a microbe, determined by its genetic, biochemical, or structural features.

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27
Q

Differentiate between obligate & opportunistic pathogens.

A
  • Obligate pathogens: Always associated with disease.
  • Opportunistic pathogens: Cause disease under specific conditions, such as when host defences are comprised.
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28
Q

What are the two mechanisms by which bacteria cause disease?

A
  • Invasiveness: Ability to invade tissues, involving colonisation and evasion of host defences.
  • Toxigenesis: Ability to produce toxins (exotoxins & endotoxins).
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29
Q

What is the difference between exotoxins & endotoxins?

A
  • Exotoxins: Released from bacteria, acting at sites distant from growth.
  • Endotoxins: Cell-associated, released when bacteria are lysed.
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30
Q

What are zoonoses?

A

Diseases transmitted from animals to humans.

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31
Q

How does the normal flora protect the host?

A

Competes with pathogens for colonisation sites & produces bacteriocins that suppress harmful organisms.

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32
Q

How does penicillin work?

A

Inhibits DD-transpeptidase, preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking in bacterial cell walls, leading to cell death.

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33
Q

What contributes to antibiotic resistance, such as MRSA?

A

Inappropriate antibiotic use & exposure to suboptimal antibiotic levels, leading to resistance mechanisms like B-lactamase production.

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34
Q

What are passive defence mechanisms of mucous membranes?

A
  • Mucociliary Clearance: Respiratory tract removes pathogens.
  • Tears: Contain lysozyme enzymes.
  • Mucus: Provides alternative binding sites for pathogens.
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35
Q

Name three types of antimicrobial agents.

A
  • Disinfectants: For non-living surfaces.
  • Antiseptics: For living tissue.
  • Antibiotics: Kill or inhibit microorganisms in the body.
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36
Q

What distinguishes viruses from other microorganisms/

A
  • Small size: much smaller than bacteria.
  • Genome: Contains only 1 type of nucleic acid (DNA/ RNA).
  • Metabolically inert: Can only replicate inside host cells.
37
Q

What is a virion?

A

The intact virus particle, comprising of a nucleic acid core & a protein coat (capsid).

38
Q

What is the role of vaccination in virus prevention?

A

Provides adaptive immunity by exposing the body to antigenic material from the virus.

39
Q

What is HIV, and what does it cause over time?

A

A single-stranded RNA retrovirus that eventually causes AIDS by denting the immune system.

40
Q

What causes influenza, and what are its symptoms?

A

Caused by a family of RNA viruses and causes symptoms of common cold (runny nose, sore throat, muscle pains, headaches, coughing, fatigue, and variable body temperatures).

41
Q

What causes chickenpox, and what are its symptoms?

A

Caused by the double-stranded DNA virus Varicella zoster virus & leads to red skin rashes that develop into itchy spots.

42
Q

What is the typical treatment for chickenpox?

A

No treatment, but calamine lotion is may be used to soothe the skin.

43
Q

What condition can Varicella zoster virus cause in adults, and how does it differ from chickenpox?

A

The virus can cause shingles in adults, which has similar but more intense and longer-lasting symptoms than chickenpox.

44
Q

What causes oral and genital herpes?

A

Both are caused by strains of the double stranded DNA virus Herpes simplex virus.

45
Q

What are the symptoms of a herpes outbreak?

A

Liquid-filled blisters appear on the skin, which burst to form painful sores.

46
Q

What is used to treat herpes and how does it work?

A

No cure, but over-the-counter antiviral creams can speed recover during an outbreak, which inhibit viral DNA polymerase, limiting viral DNA synthesis.

47
Q

What infections can Aspergillus moulds cause?

A

Can cause non-invasive infections like fungal sinusitis & invasive lung infections, especially in individuals with lung diseases.

48
Q

How do polyenes like amphotericin treat fungal infections?

A

Polyenes bind to ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane, form channels, & cause electrolyte leakage.

49
Q

Why is amphotericin treatment reserved for severe infections?

A

Amphotericin has high toxicity so it is used only for potentially fatal infections.

50
Q

What are dermatophytes, & what infections do they cause?

A

Dermatophytes are moulds causing nail infections (onychomycosis) & skin infections.

51
Q

How does terbinafine (Lamisil) treat dermatophyte infections?

A

Terbinafine inhibits fungal squalene epoxidase, blocking ergosterol production & compromising fungal cell membrane integrity.

52
Q

What is candida, & what infections does it cause?

A

Candida is a genus of commensalism yeast-like fungi that causes oral & vaginal thrush & fungal septicaemia, with Candida albicans being the most common strain.

53
Q

How is Candida treated?

A
  • Polyenes nystatin: Applied as a cream, sucked as tablets or used as vaginal pessaries.
  • Imidazoles (e.g. clortrimazole): Delivered topically & work like triangles to inhibit ergosterol synthesis.
54
Q

What increases the prevalence of systemic fungal infections?

A

Widespread use of broad-spectrum antibiotics.

55
Q

What is the cell wall of fungi made of?

A

Polysaccharides, polypeptides, and chitin.

56
Q

What are the 3 growth forms of fungi?

A
  • Unicellular (e.g. yeasts)
  • Multicellular (e.g. moulds with hyphae & mycelium)
  • Dimorphic (switch forms based on conditions)
57
Q

What are the 4 classifications of Protozoa based on locomotion?

A
  • Amoeba- cytoplasmic projections
  • Flagellates- use flagella
  • Sporozoa- non-motile as adults
  • Ciliates- use cilia
58
Q

What is the role of schizonts & merozoites in malaria?

A

Schizophrenic form in the liver & release merozoites that invade red blood cells.

59
Q

How does quinine treat malaria?

A

It inhibits haem polymerase, causing parasitic death through haem poisoning.

60
Q

What are 2 main groups of helminths?

A
  • Nematodes (roundworms)
  • Flatworms (trematodes & cestodes).
61
Q

How are helminth infections commonly transmitted?

A

Poor hygiene, contaminated water, undercooked meat, or skin contact.

62
Q

What causes schistosomiasis, and how is it treated?

A

Schistosoma trematodes; treated with praziquantel.

63
Q

What role do Cyanobacteria play in ecosystem?

A

Responsible for most photosynthesis & oxygen production.

64
Q

How does the micro biome benefit humans?

A

It regulates the immune system & aids digestion.

65
Q

What is the difference between pathogenicity and virulence?

A

Pathogenicity: ability to cause disease
Virulence: degree of pathogenicity

66
Q

Name 5 virulence factories used by microbes.

A
  • Adhesion factors
  • Biofilm formation
  • Extracellular enzymes
  • Toxins (exotoxins & endotoxins)
  • Antiphagocytic factors.
67
Q

How does endotoxins affect host?

A

Trigger immune response like fever, inflammation, & blood clotting.

68
Q

What are exotoxins, & how are they classified?

A

Secreted toxins classified as cytotoxins, neurotoxins, or enterotoxins.

69
Q

What are Antimicrobials?

A

Chemicals that either kill microbes or inhibit their growth.

70
Q

What is selective toxicity in antimicrobials?

A

The ability of antimicribials to target microbial cells without harming host cells.

71
Q

Why are antimicrobial drugs more abundant than anti-fungal, anti-protozoal, or antiviral drugs?

A

Pathogenic bacteria differ significantly from human cells, enabling selective toxicity. Fungi, Protozoa, helminths, & viruses share more similarities with human cells, making selective toxicity harder to achieve.

72
Q

What are the main categories of antimicrobial mechanisms of action?

A
  • Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
  • Inhibition of protein synthesis
  • Inhibition of general metabolic pathways
  • Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis.
  • Disruption of cell membrane structure
73
Q

What are beta-lactams, & how do they work?

A

Beta-lactams are bactericidal agents that inhibit cell wall synthesis & are effective against actively growing bacteria.

74
Q

What are penicillins effective & ineffective against?

A
  • Effective mainly against G+ve bacteria
  • Ineffective agaist mycoplasma & ureaplasma ( no cell wall).
75
Q

What are examples of gycopeptide antibiotics, & what do they target?

A

Vancomycin & bleomycin, which act mainly on G+ve bacteria.

76
Q

How do aminoglycosides work?

A

They bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit, preventing the formation of an initiation complex with mRNA.

77
Q

What’s re characteristics of aminoglycosides?

A
  • Bactericidal & broad-spectrum
  • Administered I.V or I.M. (Unstable in GIT)
  • Poor tissue penetration
  • Can cause ototoxicity & nephrotoxicity.
  • Reserved for serious G-ve infections.
78
Q

How do tetracyclines work, & what are their uses?

A

They inhibit the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the 30S ribosomal subunit, making them broad-spectrum & bacteriostatic. Used for acne, chlamydia, & syphilis in penicillin-allergic patients.

79
Q

Hat are the side effects of tetracyclines?

A

Teeth discolouration, bone and nail formation issues in infants (only used in adults).

80
Q

What is chloramphenicol, & hoe does it act?

A

A broad-spectrum, bacteriostatic agent that binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit, inhibiting peptide transferase.

81
Q

What are the uses & side effects of chloramphenicol?

A
  • Crosses blood-brain barrier (BBB); used for meningitis & brain abscesses.
  • Severe side effects limit systemic use. Commonly used topically for bacterial conjunctivitis (eye drops).
82
Q

What are macrolides, & how do they function?

A

Bacteriostatic agents that bind to the 50S ribosomal subunit & inhibit peptidyl transferase or translocation.

83
Q

When are macrolides used?

A

In penicillin-allergic patients to treat G+ve bacteria & some bacilli.

84
Q

What is the function of DNA replication inhibitors?

A

Inhibit DNA gyrase & topoisomerase II, which control bacterial DNA folding/unfolding.

85
Q

What are the uses of DNA replication inhibitors?

A

Used for lower respiratory infections, sepsis, & in penicillin-allergic patients.

86
Q

What are polymyxins, & how do they act?

A

They disrupt bacterial cell membrane structure, acting mainly against G-ve bacteria.

87
Q

What are the limitations of polymyxins?

A

Not absorbed from the gut (cannot be given orally) & reserved for serious infections due to toxicity.

88
Q

What is the role of hospitals infection control department?

A
  • Advising on antibiotics for rare or difficult infections.
  • Restricting certain antibiotics to prevent resistance.
  • Providing advise on reducing infections & cleaning protocols.
  • Recommending disinfectants & hygiene measures.