Unit 5-6-7-8-9 Flashcards
*What types of counts are authorized to ensure accuracy of base materiel inventory records:
Complete and Special Inventory
*Complete inventory counts are conducted using what method:
Closed Warehouse Method
*What freeze code designates items under a complete inventory:
C
*What freeze codes are automatically assigned as the result of Inventory Count Record:
C
How many freeze Codes may be assigned to an Item Record:
1
*Emergency issues will be recorded on the inventory _________:
Recap Sheet
*What type of inventory counts reconciles out of balance conditions:
Special Inventory
*What are required for insufficient Balances or warehouse refusals:
Inventory Interrogations
*The purpose of Special Inventory Interrogation Input (1GP) is to __________:
assign freeze code “I” to the item
What freeze code is used when out of balance conditions exist:
I
*The physical inventory control section will establish an inventory schedule every:
Fiscal year
*Who ensures physical inventory control section and warehouse personnel coordinate closely during the creation of the warehouse location validation and inventory schedules:
LRS CC/APO
*How often are weapons inventoried:
Semi-Annually
*Warehouse validations must be completed within how many days prior to the inventory start date:
10 workdays
*What is the preferred method for inventory procedures:
ILS-S Inventory Function
*How many days before the inventory count is the AF Form 1991 inventory request due:
1 day
The items in DIFM status will be inventoried by the maintenance DIFM monitors how often:
Quarterly
*Who serves as the primary contact with units managing repair cycle assets:
FSC
*What ERRCD is a repair cycle asset that is considered as a recoverable item:
XD or XF
*Each repair cycle record indicates what:
The Org/Shop code
*What is considered part of the total base asset position whether serviceable or reparable:
Repair Cycle Assets
A demand for an XD or XF coded asset ensures for what kind of exchange:
One-for-one exchange
*Who is responsible for the repair cycle process:
LRS CC/APO
*Who will physically verify items returned by maintenance is correct and validate their documentation:
FSC personnel
*What TRIC ends the Repair Cycle Process:
TRIC: TIN
*What form provides means for controlling repairable items and must be returned to the LRS to clear DIFM detail Suspense Records:
AFTO Form 350 Tag
*What TRIC initiates start of repair cycle:
ISU MAINT
*What listing has all DIFM items:
Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23)
*Who retains a recent copy of D23 and contacts all shops having on-hand DIFM assets indicated on the listing:
FSC
Who performs “eyes on” for all DIFM assets during shop visits:
FSC
Once DIFM reconciliation is complete the final report of discrepancies and best practices will be sent within how many days:
10 workdays
*What indicates estimated percentage of time an XD or XF asset is repaired at the base level:
Percentage Base Repair (PBR)
*DIFM items inducted into maintenance repair will be returned to the LRS/Materiel Management Activity within how many days:
4 duty days
Base repairable assets assigned to back shops will be returned by the end of what day from the date of issue:
45th duty day
What are replacement parts called:
“Bits and Pieces”
*What is the list that contains all awaiting parts (AWP) due-out detail records with the linked due-in and status for the AWP end item:
Awaiting Parts Validation Listing (D19)
*How do you identify unserviceable detail records:
The activity code, “R”, the Organization Code of “920” and the Shop Code of “RW”
All unserviceable assets must be stored where:
Separately from serviceable items to prevent accidental issues
*How often will Stock Control receive a copy of the D23 Part 4:
Weekly
What provides the means to record demand data in the MMSY for repairs in place or removal, repair, and reinstallation of a recoverable item without ordering a replacement:
Turnaround Action (TRN)
Who acts as a turnaround processing point:
FSC
*Who appoints a primary and alternate TRN Manager:
The LRS/Materiel Management Activity
*What form does turnaround manager use to prepare and process a maintenance turnaround input:
AFTO Form 350 Tag Part 2
What has the same effect as an issue, repair, and subsequent serviceable turn-in of a XD and XF asset:
Turnaround
What are extensions of LRS warehouse stock:
Supply points
What TRIC is used to create a Supply Point Detail:
FSP
What listing is used to perform a physical count to verify balances:
Supply Point Listing (Q13)
What are Supply Points considered:
“Over the counter”
*What are managed at forward locations:
Supply points
*What TRIC is used to issue from a supply point:
“MSI” activity code “S”
*TCTO items are modified by using what:
Kit
*TCTO kits stock numbers are identified by a ___ in the fifth position:
“K”
*What TRIC is used to load, change, delete the input of the TCTO flag:
FCD
*If a TCTO changes its form, fit, or function what code is assigned:
NPPC of “4”
*Who serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity (ERAA):
Equipment Accountability Element (EAE)
*Who provides overall management of base equipment:
LRS CC/APO
*Who is responsible for updating ILS-S, DPAS and assisting equipment custodians with processing equipment transactions:
Equipment Accountability Element (EAE)
*Within how many days of arrival must the LRS CC/APO conduct face-to-face responsibility briefings with all incoming Squadron Commanders:
90 Days
*Who is responsible for equipment on their account(s) and may be held financially liable:
Equipment/Property Custodians
*Who appoints primary and alternate equipment/property custodians in writing for all equipment accounts in their organization and sends a copy to the LRS EAE:
Organizational Commanders
*What must Equipment/Property Custodians complete annually:
Block 3 refresher training
Within how many hours of return from a deployed location must inventory be completed:
Within 24 hours
What must Deployed Equipment/Property Custodians do upon return to home-station:
Perform a 100% inventory of returned assets
*What is the ERRCD for Non-Equipment that do not require accounting:
Nonexpendable Field (NF)
What is the ERRCD for Equipment:
Nonexpendable Depot (ND)
What is another acronym for Accountable Property Systems of Record (ASPR):
DPAS (Defense Property Accountability System)
*What is the business system/application used to account for and maintain accountability of government property:
Accountable Property Systems of Record (APSR)
*Equipment Authorization Inventory Data (EAID) are accounted for on what listing:
The R14 – Custodian Inventory Report
*Non-EAID assets are assigned an Equipment Management Code (EMC) of ___:
“1”
All EAID assets that are requisitioned through ILS-S use the activity code ___:
“E”
*EMC 1 equipment costing $5,000 or greater must be accounted for on what listing:
R15 – Organizational Visibility List
*Non-EAID assets requisitioned through ILS-S will use the activity code ___:
“P”
*Who are responsible for establishing and maintaining Authorization Ids that determine the support equipment needed to accomplish the mission:
Authorization Managers
When are Authorization Ids reviewed:
Biennial (Every other year)
*What module does Equipment Accountability Element (EAE) utilize to identify what the equipment custodian is authorized:
The Force System Management (FSM)
*What is a 7-Position alpha/numeric code that is unique to the type of equipment or weapon system supported:
The Authorization Id
Who utilize the custodian Inventory Report (CIR/R14) to account for all items on their accounts:
Property Custodians
What report is generated by EAE through the Defense Property Accountability System (DPAS):
Custodian Inventory Report
*What form is used to request equipment authorization changes such as a new request, increase, decrease, and delete authorizations on the account:
AF Form 601
*The property custodian will perform a ___________ style inventory when reviewing the CIR:
“Floor to book”
Within how many days will the CIR need to be signed and returned to EAE:
15 workdays
If an authorization change request is disapproved what will the FAM give the respective CEMF:
Justification for disapproval
*Who reviews the AF Form 601 for accuracy:
Centralized Equipment Management Flight (CEMF)
*If the AF Form 601 is properly filled out, who will the CEMF forward it to for review and approval:
The Functional Area Manager (FAM)
How many calendar days from the reassigned date does the Custodian or EAE have to make the necessary corrections:
15 Calendar Days
*What is the accepted Accountability Property System of Record (ASPR for the Department of Defense (DoD) and components managing over $1 Trillion in accountable property:
DPAS (Defense Property Accountability System)
*What is designed to manage large-ticket items, issues, and assets, in any DoD environment:
DPAS Property Accountability module
Within what module will users be able to track the lifecycle of an asset from receipt to disposition:
DPAS Property Accountability module
*What are the three different methods for managing equipment through the DPAS Property Accountability module:
- Serial-One Item, One Record
- Bulk-Multiple Items, One Record
- Component/Higher Assemblage and System
What module is used as a reporting and analytical tool to manage all software and assets:
DPAS Property Accountability Module
What are the four types of stock numbers:
- A-NSN (National Stock Number)
- J-MCN (Management Control Number)
- B-Part NBR (Part Number)
- I-Intangible (Intangible)
What are the three distinct functions of the DPAS Property Accountable module:
- Property Accountability
- Maintenance Utilization Tracking
- Warehouse Management
*What module is the primary source for managing equipment authorizations in the Air Force:
The Force Systems Management (FSM) module
*What module complements the Property Accountability (PA) module and provides the capability to create and customize equipment authorizations:
The Force System Management (FSM) module
*What is the Force System Management (FSM) module a component of, managing accountable equipment authorizations:
The Defense Property Accountability System (DPAS)
*What are the four categories for the Force System Management Structure from top to bottom:
- Force (OFSC)
- Command
- Group
- Element
What 3 UTCs are the Force System Management (FSM) the primary source for:
- Mobility (Readiness Code A - Deployable)
- Non-Mobility (Readiness Code B - Non-Deployable)
- War Reserve Materiel (Readiness Code D)
*Document Control Personnel utilizes __________capability to manage delinquent documents (DDL):
The ILS-S Manage Document Control Record (DCR)
What capability allows users to insert comments and clear document control records:
Document control capability
*What capability provides ILS-S user’s the ability to upload, validate, view and query archived DCRs with scanned images:
The ILS-S Manage Document Control Record (DCR) capability
*What transaction is used to clear the DCR:
The 1SI transaction
*How long will TRICS: ISU, DOR, MSI, SHP, AXA, BSU, FCH, and FCU source documents be retained:
75 months (6 years and 3 months)
*Who needs to be notified for any security incidents if unauthorized individuals have signed for controlled materiel:
The LRS CC/APO and Squadron Security Manager
*Who are authorized to sign for equipment items with and ERRCD “ND” and “NF”:
Equipment custodians
*After documents are validated and quality control checks are performed the disposition document will be __________:
Digitally stored in ILS-S
*After how many days are On-Base documents considered delinquent:
After 6 Calendar Days
*After how many days are Off-Base documents considered delinquent:
After 11 Calendar Days
How long can ILS-S store scanned images associated with the DCR:
10 years
How are source documents filed:
According to Organization and ascending document number
*Who submits a letter to Customer Support, identifying the individuals authorized to receive controlled materiel:
Organization Commander
*When will the other initiating activity review the Authorization Receipt Listing provided by the LRS CC/APO:
Every June and December
*Who provides a letter of receipt authorization to activities that can process classified and NWRM property:
The LRS CC/APO
*What system gives the F-35 operators the ability to plan, maintain, and sustain their systems over the life of the aircraft:
Autonomic Logistics Information System (ALIS)
*What system integrates a broad range of capabilities, including operations, maintenance, prognostics, supply chain, customer support services, training, and technical data:
Autonomic Logistics Information System (ALIS)
*The Sustainment Supply Concept is an integral part of ___________:
ALIS
*What does ALIS turns data from many sources into __________:
Actionable information
*From lowest to highest, what are the 3 tiers within the ALIS Operating Structure:
- Squadron Operating Unit (SOU)
- Central Point of Entry (CPE)
- Autonomic Logistic Operating Unit (ALOU)
What Operating Structure Tier is the physical location where the F-35 is located (One per Operational Squadron):
Squadron Operating Unit (SOU)
What Operating Structure Tier is located in each owning country of the aircraft (One per Country):
Central Point of Entry (CPE)
What Operating Structure Tier is the sole operator for all-inclusive tiers, and there is only one per entire fleet of F-35s (One per Global Fleet):
Autonomic Logistics Operating Unit (ALOU)
*What is a cloud-native system that incorporates a new integrated data environment and a new suite of user-centered applications:
Operational Data Integrated Network (ODIN)
*ODIN is designed to decrease __________, and increase __________:
Decrease maintainer workload
Increase mission capability rates or mission support
*What is a customer-level software application that interfaces with the enterprise system to provide global inventory management capability:
Autonomic Logistics Information System (ALIS) Supply Chain Management (SCM)
*What is a concept that allows customers to purchase a package of support for F-35 sustainment:
Performance-based Logistics (PBL)
What receive, store, issue, and move retrograde F-35 assets to support flight operations:
Supply Warehouses
What are the four functions in ALIS SCM:
- IFS Navigator
- Top Toolbar
- Bottom Toolbar
- ALIS SCM Pages
What offers a single solution for line and shop maintenance and supports engineering, materials, and fleet management:
Computerized Maintenance Management System (CMMS)
*What functions as the primary communication tool between Maintenance and Operations:
Computerized Maintenance Management System (CMMS)
*Where is the IFS Navigator located on the ALIS SCM Homepage:
Top Left
Where is the Top Toolbar located on the ALIS SCM Homepage:
The right of the IFS Navigator Pane
Where is the Bottom Toolbar located on the ALIS SCM Homepage:
Below the page area
What are the four integrations pages within CMMS:
- Squadron Status Page
- AV Status Page
- Work Order List Page
- Support Equipment Status Page
*How many configured user roles are in the Computerized Maintenance Management System (CMMS):
9
*What is assigned when a work order is generated:
Job Control Number (JCN)
List the sortie generation lifecycle:
- Work Order Initiation
- Work Order Maintenance
- Work Order Completion
