Unit 5 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Etiologies of Vesicouretral Reflux

A

Congenitally short intravesicular portion of ureter
Bladder atony
Outlet obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Outcomes of Vesicouretral Reflux

A

Infection
Hydronephrosis
Chronic Renal Failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cystitis Symptoms

A

Urinary frequency
Dysuria
Hematuria
Incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cystitis Etiologies

A

Infection
Noninfectious Chemical Irritants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cystitis Complications

A

Pyelonephritis
Renal failure
Renal calculi
Fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Histopathology of Hemorrhagic Cystitis

A

Blood in lamina propria of bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Interstitial Cystitis Clinical Presentation

A

Symptoms of bladder infection without infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Interstitial Cystitis Cystoscopy Finding

A

Mucosal fissuring of bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Interstitial Cystitis Histopathology

A

Fibrosis of Lamina Propria
Granulation Tissue
Mast Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Main Etiology of Renal Calculi

A

Urinary stasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bladder Cancer Main Age Group

A

Older people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Main Risk Factor of Bladder Cancer

A

Cigarette Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Two Morphologies of Bladder Tumors

A

Flat
Papillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Three Types of Papillary Bladder Tumor

A

Nonmalignant Papilloma
Papillary Carcinoma
Invasive Papillary Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Two Types of Flat Bladder Tumor

A

Flat Noninvasive Carcinoma
Flat Invasive Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Urothelial Carcinoma Clinical Presentation

A

Painless hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Urine Cytology Shortcoming in Cancer Diagnosis

A

Will only show positive in high grade cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cryptorchidism Incidence

A

1% in 1 year old boys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cryptorchidism Tumor Risk

A

5 to 10 times increased risk for tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Granulomatous Orchitis Etiology

A

When the blood contacts the sperm and attacks the sperm as foreign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

This infection preferentially attacks the structures adjacent to the testes

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

These infections preferentially attack the testes

A

Mumps
Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Testicular Atrophy Main Cause

A

Atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Most Common Type of Testicular Tumor

A

Germ cell tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Impact of Male Puberty on Testicular Tumors

A

Tumors that occur before puberty tend to be more benign and less aggressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Behavior of Seminoma vs Mixed Testicular Tumor

A

Pure seminomas tend to be better behaved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Seminoma Classic Histopathology

A

Fried egg cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Common Testicular Germ Cell Tumor Markers

A

HCG
AFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Most Common Benign Penile Tumor

A

Condyloma Acuminatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cause of Condyloma Acuminatum

A

Low Risk HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Causes of Penile Carcinoma

A

High Risk HPV 16 or 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Site of Most Prostate Cancer

A

Peripheral Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Site Most Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

A

Transitional Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Histopathology of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

A

Multinodular proliferation of both stroma and glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia Therapies

A

5a Reductase Inhibitors
Simple Prostatectomy
Transurethral Resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Most Common Cancer in Men

A

Prostatic Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Somatic Mutations of Prostatic Adenocarcinoma

A

TMPRSS2 promotor ERG/ETV1 Gene Fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Prostate Cancer Screening Steps

A

Elevated PSA
DRE and TRUS
Biopsy sent to pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

PSA Velocity

A

Rate of change of PSA, which increases in cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does high total PSA but low free PSA indicate?

A

Higher chance of cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Grading System for Prostate Cancer

A

Gleason Scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

This biopsy report is suspicious but not indicative of prostate cancer

A

Atypical Small Acini

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Portions of the Cervix

A

Ectocervix
Endocervix
Transformation Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Histology of Ectocervix and Vagina

A

Lined by stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hystology of Endocervix

A

Columnar mucin secreting epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Transformation Zone Location

A

Area between the ectocervix and endocervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Herpes Simplex Location of Infection

A

Sacral ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Herpes Simplex Clinical Presentation

A

Painful vesicles that eventually ulcerate and crust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Trichomonas Causative Organism

A

Parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Trichomonas Clinical Presentation

A

Abundant, purulent, foul smelling discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Trichomonas Diagnosis

A

Wet prep microscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Candidiasis Causative Organism

A

C. albicans fungus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Candidiasis Clinical Presentation

A

Cottage cheese discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Candidiasis Diagnosis

A

Pap
Gram Stain
KOH Prep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Bacterial Vaginosis Clinical Presentation

A

Noninflammatory discharge and fishy odor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Bacterial Vaginosis Causative Organism

A

Gardnerella vaginalis and anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Bacterial Vaginosis Histopathology

A

Clue cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Condyloma Acuminatum Causative Organism

A

Low risk HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Condyloma Acuminatum Histopathology

A

Koilocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Morphology of Primary Syphilis

A

Chancre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Morphology of Secondary Syphilis

A

Chondyloma lata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

US Cervical Cancer Statistics

A

14,000 new cases
4,300 deaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Worldwide Cervical Cancer Statistics

A

Fourth most common cancer in women
600,000 new cases
340,000 deaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Types of Cervical Cancer

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma 60 to 80%

Adenocarcinoma far less common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Lichen Sclerosis is associated with this pathology

A

Vulvar carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Lichen Sclerosis is associated with cancer in this age group

A

Over 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

HPV Viral Morphology

A

Icosahedral DNA Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Mucosotropic HPV Cell Preference

A

Basal and squamous epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Most Common High Risk HPV Types

A

16 and 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Most Common Low Risk HPV Types

A

6 and 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Classical Preinvasive Squamous Lesion Nomenclature

A

Mild, moderate, or severe dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

CIN Preinvasive Squamous Lesion Nomenclature

A

CIN I, II, and III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Dividing Line Between Clinical Tracking and Procedural Intervention in Preinvasive Squamous Lesions

A

Low grade SIL and High grade SIL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

This happens to most Pap tests

A

Screened by a cytotechnologist and usually never seen by a pathologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

HPV DNA Test Usage

A

Triage of ASCUS results on Pap test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Can the Pap Test screen for endometrial cancer?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Morphology of Menstrual Phase

A

Upper 1/2 to 2/3 of lining shed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Morphology of Proliferative Phase

A

Main straight tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Morphology of Secretory Phase

A

Basal Secretory Vacuoles
Serrated appearance of glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Secretory Phase Histology

A

Subnuclear secretory vacuoles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Functional Endometrial Disorder

A

Abnormal uterine bleeding with normal uterine anatomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Acute Endometrial Inflammation Causes

A

Retained miscarriage products
Bacterial infection after delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Chronic Endometrial Inflammation Causes

A

IUD
TB
Chronic PID
Chlamydial Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Chronic Endometrial Inflammation Histology

A

Plasma cells in uterine tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Endometriosis Gross Pathology

A

Endometrial tissue outside the uterine lining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Common Endometriosis Location

A

Rectovaginal Septum
Uterine Ligaments
Pelvic Peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Adenomyosis Gross Pathology

A

Endometrial glands and stroma within the myometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Endometrial Hyperplasia Gross Pathology

A

Increased gland to stroma ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Endometrial Hyperplasia Genetics

A

Inactivation of PTEN, which increases estrogen sensitivity and drives abnormal proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Two Types of Endometrial Hyperplasia

A

Without Cytologic Atypia
With Cytologic Atypia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Endometrial Hyperplasia with cytologic atypia increases risk for what

A

Endometrial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Endometrial Carcinoma Biochemical Etiology

A

Prolonged estrogen stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Endometrioid Type I Endometrial Cancer Etiology

A

Settings of Hyperplasia
Excess estrogen
Less aggressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Serous Type II Endometrial Cancer Etiology

A

P53 Mutation
More Aggressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Endometrioid Type I Endometrial Cancer Population

A

Obese
Middle Aged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Serous Type II Endometrial Cancer Population

A

Thin
Older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Two Myometrial Tumors

A

Leiomyoma
Leiomyosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Leiomyoma Gross Pathology

A

Benign smooth muscle tumor with well circumscribed, whorled cut surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Types of Non Neoplastic Uterine Cysts

A

Follicular
Luteal
Surface Epithelial
Polycystic Ovarian Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Polycystic Ovarian Disease Clinical Presentation

A

Scant Menses
Hirsutism
Abnormal Hormone Levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Polycystic Ovarian Disease Clinical Correlations

A

Abnormal Androgen Biosynthesis
Insulin Resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Ovarian Surface Epithelial Cancer Risk Factors

A

No Kids
Family History
Gonadal Dysgenesis
BRCA1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Ovarian Surface Epithelial Cancer Main Screening Factor

A

BRCA1 and 2 Screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Most Effective Prevention for Ovarian Surface Epithelial Cancer

A

Prophylactic removal of tubes and ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Most Common Ovarian Tumors

A

Serous
Mucinous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Morphology of Benign Ovarian Tumors

A

Singel layered epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Morphology of Borderline Ovarian Tumors

A

Some cellular atypia by no invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Morphology of Malignant Ovarian Tumors

A

Marked cellular atypia with invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Origin of Serous Ovarian Tumors

A

Uterine Tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Origin of Bilateral Mucinous Ovarian Tumors

A

Usually cancer of the appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Key Symptom of Appendix Cancer Spread to Ovaries

A

Pseudomyxoma Peritonei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Primary Risk Factor for Endometrioid Tumor

A

Endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Most Common Germ Cell Tumor

A

Teratoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Cell Types of Malignant Teratoma

A

Immature cells and tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Endometrial Sinus Tumor Severity

A

Always Malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Most Common Primary Origins of Malignant Ovarian Tumors

A

Breast
Stomach
Biliary Tract
Pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Aphthous Ulcer Etiology

A

Unknown
Celiac
IBD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Herpes Stomatitis Histopathology

A

Viral inclusion bodies
Glassy nuclei
Lifted epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Herpes Stomatitis Test

A

PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Pyogenic Granuloma Morphology

A

Bright red, ulcerated, nodular gingival lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Leukoplakia Morphology

A

Small raised white patch on mucosal surface

122
Q

Leukoplakia Etiology

A

Usage of chewing tobacco

123
Q

Leukoplakia can progress into this pathology

A

Oral Cancer

124
Q

Erythroplakia Morphology

A

Red, velvety, and granular

125
Q

Erythroplakia Malignant Transformation Rate

A

Greater than 50%

126
Q

Oral Cancer Predominat Type

A

95% squamous cell carcinomas

127
Q

Oral Cancer Etiologies

A

Tobacco and Alcohol Use
High Risk HPV

128
Q

Genetics of Tobacco Related Oral Cancer

A

TP53
p63
NOTCH1

129
Q

Oral Cancer Area of Spread

A

Cervical Lymph Nodes

130
Q

Sialadenitis Etiology

A

Mumps
Other Virus
Bacteria
Autoimmune

131
Q

Mucocele Etiology

A

Trauma to the salivary gland prevents salivary drainage into mouth

132
Q

Most Common Location of Salivary Tumors

A

Parotid Gland

133
Q

Most Common Salivary Tumor Type

A

Benign Pleomorphic Ademoma

134
Q

Warthin Tumor Location

A

Exclusively parotid gland

135
Q

Warthin Tumor Demographic

A

Male smokers

136
Q

Most Common Malignant Salivary Tumor

A

Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

137
Q

Dentigerous Cyst Location

A

Around the crown of an unerupted tooth

138
Q

Odontogenic Keratocyst Location

A

Posterior Mandible

139
Q

Breast Lesion Clinical Anatomical Description

A

Clock face orientation and distance from nipple

140
Q

Terminal Duct Lobular Unit Definition

A

Very most proximal area of breast acinus
Most lesions arise from here

141
Q

Two Layers of Breast Gland and Duct

A

Epithelium
Myoepithelium

142
Q

This histopathological feature indicates a benign tumor

A

Involvement of two different tissue layers

143
Q

Sentinel Lymph Node Definition

A

First node encountered by lymphatic drainage of a tumor

144
Q

Fibrocystic Change Definition

A

Gross appearance of benign non neoplastic breast proliferative disease

145
Q

Proliferative Fibrocystic Change Definition

A

Hyperplasia of breast ductal epithelium

146
Q

Proliferative Fibrocystic Change Risk

A

1.5 to 2 fold increased risk for developing subsequent malignancy

147
Q

Breast Fibroadenoma Definition

A

Well circumscribed, biphasic benign breast tumor

148
Q

Breast Fibroadenoma Age Group

A

20s and 30s

149
Q

Most Common Breast Cancer Presentation in United States

A

Detection on imaging

150
Q

Single Mammogram Sensitivity To Cancer

A

80 to 90%

151
Q

Mammography Looks for These Things

A

Densities
Calcifications

152
Q

Breast Cancer Genetic Risk Factors

A

BRCA1
BRCA2
TP53
CHEK2

153
Q

In Situ Carcinoma Histopathology

A

Confined to the lumen and bound by the basement membrane

154
Q

Two In Situ Breast Malignancies

A

Ductal Carcinoma In Situ
Lobular Carcinoma In Situ

155
Q

Ductal Carcinoma In Situ Approach

A

Always surgery because this pathology is premalignant

156
Q

Lobular Carcinoma In Situ Approach

A

Sometimes watchful waiting because this pathology is not always premalignant

157
Q

Paget Disease of Breast

A

DCIS that has spread to the skin surface

158
Q

Invasive Mammary Carcinoma Occurence Rates

A

80% Ductal
10% Lobular
10% Special Types

159
Q

Entity of High Stage Breast Cancer

A

Inflammatory carcinoma

160
Q

Breast Cancer T Stage

A

Tumor Size

161
Q

Breast Cancer N Stage

A

Number of regional lymph nodes involved

162
Q

Breast Cancer M Stage

A

Distant metastasis present or not

163
Q

Sites of Common Breast Cancer Metastasis

A

Lung
Bone
Brain
Liver

164
Q

Three Pathways of Breast Cancer Development

A

Luminal
HER2 Enriched
Tripple Negative

165
Q

Luminal Breast Cancer Molecular Characteristics

A

ER Positive
HER2 Negative

166
Q

HER2 Enriched Breast Cancer Molecular Characteristics

A

ER Positive
HER2 Positive

167
Q

Triple Negative Breast Cancer Molecular Characteristics

A

All negative

168
Q

Most Breast Tumors Are Positive for This

A

Estrogen and progesterone receptors

169
Q

ER PR Positive Tumor Treatment

A

Hormonal therapy usually works

170
Q

HER2 Positive Tumor Treatment

A

Antibodies to HER2

171
Q

Cellular Lining of Esophagus

A

Squamous epithelia

172
Q

Organisms of Infectious Esophagitis

A

Candida
HSV
CMV

173
Q

Infectious Esophagitis Population

A

Usually immonocompromized in some way

174
Q

Infectious Esophagitis Clinical Symptoms

A

Odynophagia and dysphagia

175
Q

Candida Esophagitis Gross Pathology

A

White plaques on mucosal surface

176
Q

Herpes Esophagitis Gross Pathology

A

Multiple small punched out ulcers

177
Q

CMV Esophagitis Gross Pathology

A

Few larger lesions

178
Q

Herpes Esophagitis Histopathology

A

Nuclear inclusions in squamous epithelia

179
Q

CMV Esophagitis Histopathology

A

Large inclusions that enlarge cells in ulcer base

180
Q

Common Causes of Pill Esophagitis

A

NSAIDS
Antibiotics
Iron

181
Q

Common Location of Pill Esophagitis

A

Mid esophagus

182
Q

Complication of Reflux

A

Ulcer
Stricture
Barrett Esophagus

183
Q

Barrett Esophagus General Definition

A

Normal esophageal epithelium replaced with glandular epithelium

184
Q

Barrett Esophagus Histological Presentation

A

Must have goblet cells

185
Q

Barrett Esophagus Gross Pathology

A

Red tongue of tissue in the esophagus

186
Q

Eosinophilic Esophagitis Clinical Presentation

A

Dysphagia
Food Impaction
Heartburn

187
Q

Eosinophilic Esophagitis Associations

A

Eczema
Asthma

188
Q

Eosinophilic Esophagitis Histopathology

A

Eosinophils in normal esophageal tissue

189
Q

Two Main Types of Esophageal Tumors

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma

190
Q

Most Common Cancer of Esophagus in the United States

A

Adenocarcinoma

191
Q

Risk Factors for Esophageal Adenocarcinoma

A

Reflux
Barrett Esophagus
Tobacco Use

192
Q

Risk Factors for Squamous Cell Esophageal Cancer

A

Alcohol Use
Tobacco Use

193
Q

Location of Esophageal Adenocarcinoma

A

Distal Esophagus

194
Q

Acute Hemorrhagic Gastritis Etiology

A

Severe trauma damage protective surface epithelia, which enables acid to break down the deeper tissues

195
Q

Helicobacter Gastritis Tissue Type

A

Foveolar gastric epithelium

196
Q

Helicobacter Gastritis Spread

A

Fecal oral

197
Q

Helicobacter Gastritis Associated Cancers

A

MALT Lymphoma
Adenocarcinoma

198
Q

Helicobacter Gastritis Protective Adaptation to Acid

A

Urease

199
Q

Helicobacter Gastritis Histopathology

A

Profound inflammatory response in lamina propria of stomach

200
Q

Helicobacter Microscopic Location Preference

A

Atop the stomach epithelium

201
Q

Duodenal Histological Response to Injury

A

Gastric Metaplasia

202
Q

Two Types of Metaplastic Atrophic Gastritis

A

Environmental
Autoimmune

203
Q

Chemical Gastritis Histopathology

A

Reactive foveolar changes but little inflammation

204
Q

Drug Induced Gastric Injury Etiology

A

Topical Damage thru ion trapping
Impaired healing thru decreased prostaglandins

205
Q

Location of Autoimmune Metaplastic Atrophic Gastritis

A

Stomach body and diffuse stomach

206
Q

Location of Environmental Metaplastic Atrophic Gastritis

A

Greater in the antrum

207
Q

Autoimmune Metaplastic Atrophic Gastritis Demographics

A

Northern European

208
Q

Autoimmune Metaplastic Atrophic Gastritis Histopathology

A

Low parietal and chief cells

209
Q

Autoimmune Metaplastic Atrophic Gastritis Associations

A

Pernicious Anemia
Gastric Cancers

210
Q

Environmental Metaplastic Atrophic Gastritis Histopathology

A
211
Q

Two Major Histological Types of Gastric Adenocarcinoma

A

Intestinal
Diffuse

212
Q

Histopathology of Intestinal Type Gastric Adenocarcinoma

A

Discrete mass forming
Makes Glands

213
Q

Histopathology of Diffuse Type Gastric Adenocarcinoma

A

Single cells infiltrating lamina propria
Signet ring cells

214
Q

Hallmark of Acute Intestinal Inflammation

A

Neutrophils

215
Q

Neutrophils Within Intestinal Epithelium Indicate This

A

Cryptitis
Abscess

216
Q

Neutrophils Atop Intestinal Epithelium Indicate This

A

Exudate
Psuedomembrane

217
Q

Histopathology of Chronic Intestinal Epithelia

A

Crypt Distortion
Paneth Cell Metaplasia
Plasma Cells
Macrophages
Lymphocytes
Scarring

218
Q

Etiology of Viral Enteritis

A

Virus kills duodenal and upper jejunal cells, which are shed and replaced with poorly functional immature cells

219
Q

E coli 0157:H7 Etiology

A

Toxin damage to epithelium

220
Q

E coli 0157:H7 Symptoms

A

Watery diarrhea that becomes bloody

221
Q

E coli 0157:H7 Common Sequelae

A

Fibrin clots in kidneys that cause hemolytic anemia

222
Q

Organism of Antibiotic Associated Colitis

A

C difficile

223
Q

Antibiotic Associated Colitis Etiology

A

Overgrowth of C difficile that produces a toxin

224
Q

C difficile Colitis Histopathology

A

Often normal
Lack of epithelia in crypts

225
Q

C difficile Colitis Gross Pathology

A

Pseudomembranous colitis

226
Q

C difficile Colitis Chronic Changes

A

NONE

227
Q

Crohns Disease Location

A

Anywhere from mouth to anus but usually at the ileocolic junction

228
Q

Crohns Disease Histopathology

A

Focal areas of inflammation
Transmural inflammation
Granulomas

229
Q

Crohns Disease Gross Pathology

A

Aphthous ulcers

230
Q

Common Crohns Disease Presenting Sign

A

Perianal Fistulae

231
Q

Ulcerative Colitis Location

A

Distal colon which can move proximally

232
Q

Ulcerative Colitis Histopathology

A

Superficial Mucositis
Crypt Abscess

233
Q

Ulcerative Colitis Common Growth

A

Polyps

234
Q

Morphology of Dysplasia in Crohns and UC

A

Noninvasive atypical epithelia proliferation

235
Q

Hypotension Causes This in the Gut

A

Ischemia of watershed zone

236
Q

Histopathology of Colonic Ischemia

A

Atrophic crypts without inflammation

237
Q

Histopathology of Diverticular Disease

A

Thickened muscularis propria with mucosa herniated through wall

238
Q

Genetics of Celiac Disease

A

HLA DQ2 or DQ8

239
Q

Celiac Disease Serology Finding

A

Serum Transglutaminase

240
Q

Giardia Causative Organism

A

Parasites

241
Q

Giardia Clinical Symptoms

A

Diarrhea Without Blood
Gas
Malabsorption

242
Q

Most Common Colon Polyp

A

Serrated polyp

243
Q

Most Common Neoplastic Colon Polyp

A

Adenoma

244
Q

Hyperplastic Polyp Histopathology

A

Saw tooth glands with mucous cells

245
Q

Significance of Hyperplastic Polyps

A

Non neoplastic
Not a Cancer Precursor

246
Q

Morphology of Sessile Serrated Polyps

A

Larger than hyperplastic polyps
Dilated crypts and abnormalities at base

247
Q

Colorectal Adenoma Definition

A

Neoplastic precancer but not invasive or capable of metastasis

248
Q

Colorectal Adenoma Gross Pathology

A

Pedunculated
Sessile

249
Q

Colorectal Adenoma Histopathology

A

Tubular
Villous
Tubulovillous

250
Q

Risk Factors for Cancer in Colorectal Adenoma

A

Size
Villous Pattern
High Grade Dysplasia

251
Q

Predictive Symptoms of Colorectal Cancer

A

Frank Red Blood
Iron Deficiency Anemia
Melena with Negative EGD

252
Q

Colon Cancer Deaths in the United States

A

Fourth Most Common Cancer
Second Cause of Cancer Death

253
Q

Genetic Risks of Colon Cancer

A

Positive Family History
Lynch Syndrome
Adenomatous Polyposis Coli
Other Polyposis Syndromes

254
Q

NSAIDs Impact on Colon Cancer

A

Possibly protective

255
Q

IBD Impact on Colon Cancer

A

Increases risk of colon cancer

256
Q

Most Common Genetic Pathway of Colon Cancer

A

APC Beta Catenin Chromosomal instability

257
Q

Familial Adenomatous Polyposis General Genetics

A

Autosomal Dominant mutation on APC

258
Q

Lynch Syndrome Genetics

A

Autosomal Dominant inherited mutation on mismatch repair genes

259
Q

Malignant Polyp Morphology

A

Invasion of Muscularis Mucosa
Invasion of Polyp Stalk

260
Q

Colon Cancer Classic Imaging Finding

A

Apple Core Lesion

261
Q

T Staging of Colon Cancer

A

Based on how many colonic tissue layers it invades

262
Q

Colon Cancer Genetics With Best Prognosis

A

Mismatch repair deficiency

263
Q

Classic Endocrine Histology

A

Packets of cells
Salt and pepper chromatin

264
Q

Paraganglioma Location

A

Next to parasympathetic chains in the retroperitoneal abdomen and neck

265
Q

Endocrine Hyperplasia General Etiology

A

Generally reactive

266
Q

Adenoma General Morphology

A

Generally solitary

267
Q

Panhypopituitarism Definition

A

Deficiency of all pituitary hormones

268
Q

Most Common Clinical Manifestations of Panhypopituitarism

A

TSH and ACTH deficiency

269
Q

Most Common Infection of the Adrenals

A

TB

270
Q

Three Pathologies of Pancreas

A

Congenital
Pancreatitis
Tumors

271
Q

Most Common Congenital Anomaly of Pancreas

A

Pancreas Divisum

272
Q

Pancreas Divisum Anatomy

A

Pancreas has two separate distinct buds

273
Q

Ectopic Pancreas Occurrence

A

2% of population

274
Q

Ectopic Pancreas Anatomy

A

Normal pancreas growing outside of the pancreas

275
Q

Acute Pancreatitis General Definition

A

REVERSIBLE pancreatic acinar cell injury associated with acute inflammation, edema, and fat necrosis

276
Q

Chronic Pancreatitis General Definition

A

Multiple bouts of acute pancreatitis IRREVERSIBLY replaces exocrine pancreas with fibrosis

277
Q

Most Common Etiologies of Acute Pancreatitis

A

Alcohol
Gallstones

278
Q

Gall Stone Pancreatitis Population

A

Mostly women

279
Q

Alcohol Pancreatitis Population

A

Mostly men

280
Q

Acute Pancreatitis Presentation

A

Acute Onset
Constant intense epigastric pain that radiates to the back
Fever
Respiratory Distress
DIC
Shock

281
Q

Acute Pancreatitis Pathophysiology

A

Enzymatic autodigestion of pancreas by activated pancreatic enzymes

282
Q

Acute Pancreatitis Diagnosis

A

Elevated Amylase
Elevated Lipase

283
Q

Elevated Amylase Timeline

A

Peaks at 24 hours and returns to normal within 48 to 72 hours

284
Q

Elevated Lipase Timeline

A

Peaks at 48 to 72 hours and remains elevated for 7 to 10 days

285
Q

Acute Pancreatitis Treatment

A

Pancreatic Rest Thru NPO
IV Fluids
Analgesics
NG Tube

286
Q

Acute Pancreatitis Outcomes

A

Pancreatic Pseudocysts 40 to 60%
Hemorrhagic Pancreatitis 5%
Mortality 20 to 40%

287
Q

Main Associations of Chronic Pancreatitis

A

Repeated acute pancreatitis from alcohol abuse
50% Idiopathic

288
Q

Chronic Pancreatitis Outcomes

A

Pseudocyts in 10% of patients
Pancreatic Insufficiency
Diabetes mellitus

289
Q

General Types of Pancreatic Tumors

A

Solid
Cystic Serous
Cystic Mucinous

290
Q

Serous Cystadenoma Anatomy

A

Does not connect to the duct

291
Q

Serous Cystadenoma Population

A

Mostly older women

292
Q

Serous Cystadenoma Gross Pathology

A

Cut grapefruit sign

293
Q

Mucinous Cystic Neoplasm Association With Carcinoma

A

1/3 of these are associated with adenocarcinoma

294
Q

Mucinous Cystic Neoplasm Histopathology

A

Ovarian like stroma

295
Q

Pancreatic Ductal Adenocarcinoma Anatomy

A

Head of pancreas
Ducts of pancreatic acini

296
Q

Common Pancreatic Ductal Adenocarcinoma Genetics

A

KRAS Mutations

297
Q

Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma Presentation

A

Abdominal pain
PAINLESS Jaundice

298
Q

Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma Gross Morphology

A

Poorly circumscribed, gray white, hard stellate mass

299
Q

Pancreatic Endocrine Neoplasm Occurence

A

Less than 2% of all pancreatic neoplasms

300
Q

Pancreatic Endocrine Neoplasm Gross Pathology

A

Well circumscribed pink tan lesion
Common in pancreatic body and tail

301
Q

Most Common Pancreatic Endocrine Neoplasm

A

Insulinoma

302
Q

Gastrinoma Association

A

ZE syndrome from excessive acid production