Unit 5 Flashcards
Which of the following involves an offer or sale?
A) A stock dividend
B) A pledge of stock
C) A gift of an assessable security
D) An exchange of securities due to a reorganization
C) A gift of an assessable security
The gift of an assessable security, where the recipient may be required (assessed) to put up money, involves both an offer and a sale.
Under the Uniform Securities Act, an offer and sale does NOT exist if it is
I. the result of a class vote by stockholders regarding a merger or consolidation
II. a bona fide pledge or loan
III. an act incident to a judicially approved reorganization in which a security is issued in exchange for one or more outstanding shares
IV. a gift of nonassessable securities
A) I and II
B) I, II, III, and IV
C) II and IV
D) I, II, and III
B) I, II, III, and IV
The Uniform Securities Act specifically excludes all 4 choices from the definition of an offer and a sale.
Under the Uniform Securities Act, as a result of a hearing, the disciplinary actions that may be taken by the Administrator include which of the following?
I. Permanent revocation of a registration
II. Bar from employment with any registrant
III. Restriction on a registrant’s performance of any activity in the advisory or brokerage business
A) I and III
B) II and III
C) I and II
D) I, II, and III
D) I, II, and III
Once the registrant is found guilty at a hearing, the Administrator is authorized to take any or all of the above actions against a person’s registration.
Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following concerning the withdrawal of an agent’s registration is NOT true?
A) Absent any disciplinary proceedings, withdrawal is effective 30 days after application.
B) Absent any disciplinary proceedings, withdrawal is effective 60 days after application.
C) Disciplinary proceedings may be taken against an agent after the agent’s withdrawal is effective.
D) At the Administrator’s discretion, disciplinary proceedings may delay effectiveness of a withdrawal application indefinitely.
B) Absent any disciplinary proceedings, withdrawal is effective 60 days after application.
Under the USA, withdrawals of registration are generally effective on the 30th day after filing, unless a disciplinary action is instituted. The Administrator may institute a revocation or suspension proceeding within 1 year after an agent’s withdrawal has become effective.
Under the Uniform Securities Act, an Administrator investigating violations
A) may appoint an officer who has the power to subpoena records, administer oaths, or require production of documents and books
B) must maintain the confidentiality of all records
C) may subpoena records but may not compel individuals to testify
D) may subpoena records only with court approval
A) may appoint an officer who has the power to subpoena records, administer oaths, or require
Public or private investigations may be conducted by the Administrator to determine whether violations of the act are about to take place or have already occurred. These investigations may take place inside or outside the state. In conducting the investigation, the Administrator, or any officer designated by him, may subpoena records or compel testimony from individuals.
Under the Uniform Securities Act, a civil suit to recover damages may not be brought by an advisory client if
I. more than 2 years ago, the client realized the advice rendered was improper
II. the adviser has died
III. the client willingly signed a statement waiving the IV. adviser’s compliance with the provision of the act on which the suit is based
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) I only
D) I, II, and III
C) I only
The statute of limitations for civil cases is 2 years after discovery or 3 years after the event, whichever is sooner. The death of neither the adviser nor the client removes a cause of action for civil liability, and clients may not waive an adviser’s compliance with the rules.
An applicant for registration as an investment adviser discloses on Form ADV that it plans to use palm readers to help determine investments most suitable for their clients. Under the Uniform Securities Act, the Administrator
A) may deny applications only on the basis of the limitations of the law
B) is empowered to deny this application
C) will probably turn to the SEC for guidance
D) will request that the applicant furnish past performance records to determine whether this method of investment analysis has merit
A) may deny applications only on the basis of the limitations of the law
A denial of registration must be based on the concept of law. There are stated reasons, such as felony convictions, outstanding injunctions, and insolvency. Although it is required to disclose methods of analysis used, the Administrator is not empowered to pass judgment on them.
Under the Uniform Securities Act, the Administrator has the power to do all of the following EXCEPT
A) administer oaths
B) subpoena witnesses
C) take evidence
D) indict offenders
D) indict offenders
While the Administrator is authorized to refer violations for possible criminal prosecution, the actual powers of criminal prosecution belong to others. For example, indicting offenders is the function of a grand jury. The Administrator has the power to administer oaths, subpoena witnesses, and take evidence. The Administrator also has the power to compel testimony and require the production of books and records.
The Administrator may
I. deny a registration if the registrant does not have sufficient experience to function as an agent
II. limit a registrant’s functions to that of a broker-dealer if, in the initial application for registration as an investment adviser, the registrant is not qualified to act as an adviser
III. take into consideration that the registrant will work under the supervision of a registered investment adviser or broker-dealer in approving a registration
IV. deny a registration, if it is prudent in view of a change in the state’s political composition
A) I and II
B) I and IV
C) II and III
D) III and IV
C) II and III
The Administrator may deny, suspend, or revoke a registration for many reasons, but those reasons must be in the interest of the public. The Administrator may determine that an applicant, in his initial application for registration for an investment adviser, is not qualified to act as an adviser and thus limit the registration to that of a broker-dealer. The Administrator can also take into consideration whether the registrant will work under the supervision of a registered investment adviser or broker-dealer when approving an application. Lack of experience is insufficient reason for denial.
Violations of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 are punishable by
I. a fine of up to $10,000
II. a prison term of up to 20 years
III. suspension of registration
A) I and II
B) I, II, and III
C) I and III
D) II and III
C) I and III
Criminal penalties for violations of the Advisers Act include a $10,000 fine and 5 (not 20) years in prison. Administrative penalties, such as revocation or suspension of registration, may also be imposed.
A fraudulent transaction was initiated by an agent in Indiana by contacting a client residing in Iowa. After evaluating the offer, the client agreed to purchase the recommended security while vacationing in Florida. Which Administrator(s) has (have) jurisdiction?
I. The Indiana Administrator
II. The Iowa Administrator
III. The Florida Administrator
A) II only
B) I, II, and III
C) I only
D) I and II
B) I, II, and III
Activities that originate in a state, are directed into a state, or are accepted in a state fall under the jurisdiction of the Administrator of each of those states.
An agent based in Alabama directs a solicitation to a customer who lives in Connecticut while the customer is temporarily in Indiana. The customer does not accept the offer until he arrives back in Connecticut. According to the Uniform Securities Act, the Administrators of which of the following states have jurisdiction?
A) Alabama and Connecticut
B) Alabama and Indiana
C) Alabama, Connecticut, and Indiana
D) Indiana and Connecticut
C) Alabama, Connecticut, and Indiana
The Administrator from any state from which an offer is made, directed, or accepted has jurisdiction over the offer.
Which of the following statements regarding the Administrator’s authority to examine the books and records of registrants is TRUE?
A) Broker-dealer records may be examined at any time during normal business hours, but the same is not so in the case of investment advisers.
B) The records may be examined at any time during normal business hours for any reason within or outside the state if it is in the public interest to do so.
C) If a broker-dealer’s or investment adviser’s records are located outside the Administrator’s state, they only may be examined to collect evidence for a hearing.
D) Such examinations are not necessary or appropriate for the protection of investors or in the public interest.
B) The records may be examined at any time during normal business hours for any reason within or outside the state if it is in the public interest to do so.
All required records must be made available for examination by a state Administrator during normal business hours, within or outside the state, as is appropriate or necessary in the public interest.
A customer determines that he has been sold unregistered, nonexempt securities in a prohibited transaction. In accordance with the USA, he can exercise the right to file a civil suit within
A) 1 year from discovery or 2 years from occurrence, whichever is later.
B) 1 year from discovery or 2 years from occurrence, whichever is sooner.
C) 2 years from discovery or 3 years from occurrence, whichever is later.
D) 2 years from discovery or 3 years from occurrence, whichever is sooner.
D) 2 years from discovery or 3 years from occurrence, whichever is sooner.
The civil liabilities provisions of the Uniform Securities Act provide for a statute of limitations equal to the sooner of 2 years from the date of discovery or 3 years from the date of the violation.
Which of the following statements describes the powers of the Administrator over the issuance of orders?
I. A final order may be appealed in the appropriate court within 60 days of the order being issued.
II. Appeal of a final order will act as a stay of the order, unless a court of competent jurisdiction rules to the contrary.
III. No final order may be issued without the opportunity for a hearing.
IV. Final orders must receive approval from the state legislature.
A) II and III
B) I and IV
C) II and IV
D) I and III
D) I and III
Any final order of the Administrator may be appealed within 60 days of the order. The appeal does not act as a stay of the order. Only a court of competent jurisdiction may issue a stay of the order. Because the final order is similar to passing sentence, an opportunity for a hearing must be granted. The Administrator’s orders are not related to the state legislature.
In conducting investigations, the Administrator may
I. require a person to file a statement in writing and under oath
II. publish information of any violation over the vigorous objections of a violator
III. make investigations both inside the state and in other states to determine whether violations of the USA have occurred in his state
IV. make investigations outside the state to determine whether violations of the USA have occurred in that other state
A) I, II, III, and IV
B) I and II
C) I, II, and III
D) II and III
C) I, II, and III
The Administrator may require written statements under oath, publicize violations, and investigate anywhere necessary to determine whether or not a violation of the act took place in his state. However, he is not authorized to conduct investigations in other states to determine whether a violation of the USA has occurred in those states.