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3D156 Volume 3 > Unit 4. Tactical Airfield Systems > Flashcards

Unit 4. Tactical Airfield Systems Flashcards

1
Q

Transportable Tactical Air Navigation System, AN/TRN–41

  1. Capabilities and limitations
  2. What is the AN/TRN–41 designed to do?
A

It’s designed to provide a combat control team with a NAVAIDS to assist aircraft in locating landing zones, drop zones, or extraction zones in deployed locations.

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2
Q
  1. What are the seven major units of the AN/TRN–41?
A

(1) A radio receiver-transmitter. (2) Antenna.
(3) Support assembly.
(4) DC filter.
(5) Azimuth monitor.
(6) Radio frequency amplifier.
(7) Monitor support assembly.

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3
Q
  1. How does the aircraft determine azimuth information?
A

By comparing the phase angle between the detected modulation envelope and the reference burst signals transmitted by the TRN–41.

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4
Q
  1. What is the function of the radio receiver-transmitter?
A

To detect and decode weak interrogations at one frequency and generate high-power replies at another frequency.

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5
Q
  1. What functions does the antenna perform?
A

Receives interrogation signals from airborne TACAN transponders and delivers them to the receiver portion of the receiver-transmitter. It also modulates and radiates the RF energy delivered by the transmitter portion of the RT.

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6
Q
  1. What component does the RMA interfaces with to obtain power and provide information for RF transmission?
A

The AN/PRC–77 Radio Set.

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7
Q
  1. Block diagram theory of operation

1. What is the primary power source of the AN/TRN–41?

A

A battery or a generator.

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8
Q
  1. What are the three modes of operation of the AN/TRN–41?
A

(1) Standby or demand only mode.
(2) TACAN and DME only mode.
(3) Normal operation.

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9
Q
  1. How does the RT maintain constant average transmit power?
A

The RT automatically inserts random squitter pulses between the reply transmissions in sufficient quantity to hold the average output power constant.

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10
Q
  1. What is the overall reply delay for X and Y channel transmissions?
A

50 +- 1 us for X,56+- 1 us for Y.

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11
Q
  1. How does the anti-CW jamming circuit compensate for CW jamming?
A

It reduces the gain of the IF amplifier under conditions of CW jamming.

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12
Q
  1. What benefits does the receiver section’s logarithmic amplifier offer?
A

Much wider dynamic range without losing essential timing information.

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13
Q
  1. What does the echo suppression circuit do after detecting a relatively high-level interrogation?
A

Increases the deadtime, thus eliminating the relatively low level echoes to these interrogations.

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14
Q
  1. What happens to the RF signal in the transmitter’s 100-watt amplifier?
A

The RF signal gets modulated with a Gaussian shaped pulse and amplified to a level of approximately 150 watts.

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15
Q
  1. The Morse code identification burst may consist of up to how many characters every 37.5 seconds?
A

Four.

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16
Q
  1. How long must a monitored parameter exceed its alarm limit for an RT alarm condition to exist?
A

Five seconds.

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17
Q
  1. What function is performed by the antenna reference trigger sensor assembly, 2A2?
A

It generates the 15-, 135-, and 1350-Hz sensor triggers which produce the reference trigger pulses sent to the RT.

18
Q

4–2. Mobile Microwave Landing System, AN/TRN–45

  1. Capabilities and limitations
  2. What three types of guidance are supplied by the AN/TRN–45?
A

(1) AZ.
(2) EL.
(3) Range (distance) guidance.

19
Q
  1. What is meant by a split site configuration when installing an AN/TRN–45?
A

The elevation station and azimuth station are installed on opposite ends of the runway.

20
Q
  1. For optimum reception, at what distance in front of the equipment antennas do you place the monitor antennas?
A

90 to 110 feet from the equipment antennas.

21
Q
  1. On how many channels can the AZ/EL equipment operate?
A

200.

22
Q
  1. Block diagram theory of operation

1. Briefly describe how the DME/P equipment supplies distance information to an aircraft.

A

The DME/P equipment replies to double coded interrogations from inbound aircraft, delays them, processes replies, and sends them back into space to the aircraft. The aircraft equipment calculates distance from the overall time elapsed from interrogation to reply.

23
Q
  1. If an aircraft MLS receiver receives a TO and FRO sweep from the AZ station with no difference in sweep times, where in the coverage area is the aircraft located?
A

Runway centerline.

24
Q
  1. When setting up an AN/TRN–45 EL station, how can you avoid interference and shadowing?
A

The scan area can be reduced during installation to avoid scanning lower elevations.

25
Q
  1. What is the purpose of a “preamble period” prior to a beam sweep in the EL or AZ station?
A

It allows the aircraft receiver to acquire the elevation (EL) or azimuth (AZ) stations.

26
Q
  1. What parameter is checked when MEAN GLIDEPATH is monitored in the EL station?
A

The station is being monitored to ensure the proper glide angle is being transmitted.

27
Q
  1. Name the four operating modes for the AN/TRN–45.
A

(1) Off Air (standby).
(2) On.
(3) Maintenance.
(4) Service Demand.

28
Q
  1. How long will the EL or AZ station batteries last in the Service Demand mode?
A

8 hours.

29
Q
  1. How often is a BIT automatically done?
A

Every 30 minutes.

30
Q

4–3. Tactical Control Tower, AN/MSN–7

  1. Capabilities and limitations
  2. What six functional groups make up the AN/MSN–7?
A

(1) Power Distribution.
(2) Meteorological.
(3) Communications.
(4) ECU.
(5) LON/MCP .
(6) Shelter.

31
Q
  1. What four pieces of information does the meteorological functional group of the AN/MSN–7 provide?
A

(1) Wind speed and direction.
(2) Temperature.
(3) Altitude data.
(4) Current time.

32
Q
  1. What functional group monitors and displays the current status of the other functional groups in the AN/MSN–7?
A

LON/MCP .

33
Q
  1. How fast can the AN/MSN–7 be driven on improved roads?
A

50 MPH.

34
Q
  1. Block diagram theory of operation

1. When can utility power be used to power the facility?

A

When within acceptable limits.

35
Q
  1. What electrical/mechanical relay automatically switches either generator power or utility power from the auto-transformer?
A

AC power contactor A15K1.

36
Q
  1. How many wind sensors are found in the Meteorological Functional Group?
A

2

37
Q
  1. Describe the LMR antennas in the AN/MSN–7.
A

The LMR Antennas consist of a total of two vertical omni-directional unity gain elements that provide G/G transceiver communications from a single collinear antenna. The antenna consists of two VHF elements (136 to 174 MHz), capable of handling up to 50W of RF power. Antennas are connected directly to the LMRs via the antenna entry panel.

38
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the CCU?
A

The CCU provides overall control of shelter communications, interfaces the audio and control of the two LMRs, seven G/A transceivers, 12 landlines, six external radios, VRS A8A2, and three CAUs from one central location.

39
Q
  1. How many channels are used in the VRS System in the AN/MSN–7?
A

The VRS has 32-channels but only 30 channels are used.

40
Q
  1. What is used to program frequencies in the LMR?
A

The MCP.

41
Q
  1. What switch allows the operator to manually select either generator or utility power?
A

The power override switch.

42
Q
  1. What are the two hazard detectors on the AN/MSN–7?
A

The CO and smoke detectors.

3D156 Volume 3 (4 decks)

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