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Basic Nursing Skills (LVN) > Unit 4 Review (Exam 3) > Flashcards

Unit 4 Review (Exam 3) Flashcards

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1
Q

What are Microorganisms?

A

Germs/Microbes; Able to be seen under a microscope.

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2
Q

What is a virulence?

A

The ability to overcome the immune system.

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3
Q

10 Types of Microorganisms

A
  • Nonpathogens
  • Pathogens
  • Bacteria
  • Viruses
  • Fungi
  • Rickettsiae
  • Protozoans
  • Mycoplasmas
  • Helminths
  • Prions
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4
Q

Survival of Microorganisms

A
  • Warmth
  • Darkness
  • Oxygen
  • Water
  • Nourishment
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5
Q

What is the Chain of Infection?

A

I.R.E.M.P.S.

  • Infectious Agent
  • Reserviors
  • Portal of Exit
  • Means of Transmission
  • Portal of Entry
  • Susceptible Hosts
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6
Q

What are the causes of Antibiotic Drug Resistance?

A

Taking an antibiotic w/ absence of infections.

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7
Q

What is the Means of Transmission?

A

How infectious microorganism move to another location.

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8
Q

What is Biologic Defense Mechanisms?

A

Anatomic or physiologic methods that stop microorganisms from causing an infectious disorder.

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9
Q

What are the 2 types of Biologic Defense Mechanisms?

A

Mechanical - physical barriers (skin)

Chemical - destroys or incapacitate microorganisms through natural biologic substances (saliva, acids, GI Tract).

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10
Q

What is the number range of WBC (White Blood Count)?

A

5,000 - 10,000 Infections

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11
Q

2 Types Pharmacologic Considerations for Antibiotics

A
  • Broad Spectrum Antibiotics; Active against a wide range of bacteria.
  • Narrow-spectrum; Antibiotic targets specific bacteria, less likely to kill nonpathogenic bacteria or results in resistance.
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12
Q

Concept Mastery Alert

A

Breaking the chain of infection can significantly reduce the risk for infectious diseases.

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13
Q

Gerontologic Considerations for Chain of Infection

A

Pneumonia, Influenza, Urinary Tract and Skin Infections, and TB are common in older adults.

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14
Q

What is Asepsis?

A

Practices that decreases contamination of microorganisms.

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15
Q

What is Health Care-Associated Infections?

A

Nosocomial Infection while a person is receiving care in a health care agency.

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16
Q

What is Medical Asepsis

A

Practice of clean techniques

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17
Q

Examples of Medical Asepsis

A

Handwashing, PPE (Personal Protective Equipment)

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18
Q

Types of Antimicrobial Agents

A

Soap, Detergent, Alcohol, Iodine, etc.

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19
Q

What are Antiseptics?

A

Bacteriostatic agents, inhibit the growth of, but do not kill microorganisms.

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20
Q

What are Disinfectants?

A

Germicides and bacteriocides that destroy active microorganisms but not spores.

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21
Q

What are the 2 Anti-Infective Drugs?

A
  • Antibacterials

- Antivirals

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22
Q

Pharmacologic Considerations for Anti-Infective Drugs

A

The discovery and use of antiviral medications has turned deadly viruses (HIV; Hepatitis C) into chronic illnesses.

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23
Q

What is Hand Hygiene?

A

Removing surface contaminants on the skin by either hand washing or hand antiseptics.

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24
Q

What is hand washing?

A

Medical Asepsis practice that involves cleaning the hands with soap, water, and friction to mechanically remove dirt and organic substances.

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25
Q

What are the guidelines for handwashing and hand antiseptics?

A
  • When hands are visibly dirty
  • When hands are contaminated with proteinaceous material
  • Before eating and after using the restroom
  • Before having direct contact with clients
  • After contact with a client’s intact skin
  • Before donning sterile gloves to insert invasive devices.
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26
Q

What are Resident Microorganisms?

A

Nonpathogens that are present on the skin.

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27
Q

What are Transient Microorganisms?

A

Pathogens that are picked up during brief contact with contaminated person.

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28
Q

Advantages of Alcohol-Based Hand Rubs

A
  • Take less time drying; Doesn’t require paper towels
  • More accessible; Doesn’t require sinks/water
  • Easier to perform
  • Convenient
  • Reducing costs; Less paper towels/waste management
  • Less irritating/drying than soap; contains emollients.
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29
Q

5 Moments of Hygiene

A
  • Before touching a patient
  • Before clean/aseptic procedures
  • After body fluid exposure risk
  • After touching a patient
  • After touching patient surroundings
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30
Q

What are Surgical Hand Antiseptics?

A

Medically aseptic hand-hygiene procedure that is performed before donning sterile gloves and garments.

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31
Q

Why do we wear Personal Protective Equipment?

A

To reduce the transfer of microorganisms between ourselves and clients.

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32
Q

Why do we wear Uniforms?

A

To reduce the spread of microorganisms onto or from the surface of clothing worn from home.

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33
Q

Why do we wear Scrub Suits and Gowns?

A

Often worn instead of a uniform; to prevent from bringing microorganisms on clothing into working environment.

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34
Q

Why do we wear Respirators?

A

To prevent the transmission of TB (Tuberculosis).

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35
Q

Why do we wear gloves?

A
  • To prevent direct hand contact with blood, bodily fluids, secretions, excretions, mucous membrane, and nonintact skin.
  • To protect clients from microorganisms transmitted from nursing personnel when performing procedures.
  • To protect ourselves from potential transfer of microorganisms from one client or object to another.
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36
Q

Why do we wear Hair and Shoe Covers?

A

To reduce the transmission of pathogens present on the hair or shoes.

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37
Q

Why do we wear Protective Eye Wear?

A

A possibility that bodily fluids will splash into the eyes.

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38
Q

Why are Confining Soiled Articles done?

A

To contain reservoirs of microorganisms.

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39
Q

What are the 2 types of Utility Rooms?

A
  • Clean Room

- Dirty Room

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40
Q

TRUE/FALSE: The dirty or soiled utility room contains covered waste receptors.

A

TRUE

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41
Q

Examples of Waste Receptables

A
  • Sharps Containers
  • Plastic Bags
  • Waste Baskets
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42
Q

Who is responsible for keeping the environment clean?

A

Housekeeping Personnels

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43
Q

What is a Concurrent Infection?

A

Measures that keep the client environment clean on a daily basis.

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44
Q

What is a Terminal Disinfection?

A

Measures used to clean a client’s environment after discharge.

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45
Q

What are Sterile Techniques?

A

Practices that avoid contaminating microbe-free items.

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46
Q

What is Sterilization?

A

Physical and chemical techniques that destroy all microorganisms, including spores.

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47
Q

What is Surgical Asepsis?

A

Once equipment and areas are free of microorganisms, you can remain in that state if contamination is prevented.

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48
Q

What does Physical Sterilization consist of?

A

Microorganisms/Spores are destroyed physically through radiation/heat, boiling water, free-flowing steam, dry heat, and steam under pressure.

49
Q

What does Chemical Sterilization consist of?

A

Gas and liquid chemicals are used to sterilized invasive equipment.

50
Q

Review the “Principles of Surgical Asepsis”.

A

Nursing Skills and Concepts Textbook, pg. 150.

51
Q

How do you create a Sterile Field?

A

Use the inner surface of a cloth or paper wrapper that holds sterile items (table cloth).

52
Q

True/False: The Nurse must be careful to keep the inside of the wrapper and its contents sterile.

A

TRUE.

53
Q

True/False: Sometimes, it is necessary to add sterile items or sterile solutions to the sterile fields.

A

TRUE

54
Q

What are Sterile Solutions?

A
  • Known as Normal Saline

- Some containers are sealed with a rubber cap or screw top.

55
Q

How do we put on/remove Sterile Gloves?

A

Use the process of Asepsis; put on/remove sterile gloves without touching their more contaminated other surface.

56
Q

Nurses generally identify pertinent nursing diagnosis like those that follow when caring for particularly susceptible client by?

A
  • Risk for Infection
  • Ineffective Protection
  • Delayed Surgical Recovery
  • Deficient knowledge
  • Readiness for enhanced knowledge
57
Q

True/False: Never turn your back on sterile equipment

A

TRUE.

58
Q

What are Infectious diseases?

A

Diseases that are spread by pathogens or toxins among susceptible individuals.

59
Q

What are Communicable Diseases?

A

Diseases that are transmitted from one source to another by infectious bacteria or viral organisms.

60
Q

What are Contagious Diseases?

A

Communicable diseases that can spread rapidly among individuals in close proximity to each other.

61
Q

What are Community-acquired infections?

A

Those that are not present or incubating prior to care provided by healthcare providers.

62
Q

What are Health care-associated infections?

A

Acquired within a health care facility in any setting.

63
Q

What are Noncommunicable diseases?

A

Toxins from food poisoning or in the environment.

64
Q

What is Colonization?

A

A condition in which microorganisms are present but the host does not manifest any signs or symptoms.

65
Q

Examples of Infection Control Precautions

A
  • Hand Hygiene
  • Standard Precautions
  • Transmission-based precautions
  • PPE
  • Cleaning/Disinfecting/Sterilizing Equipment
  • Keeping environment clean
66
Q

Why should we exercise Droplet Precautions?

A

To reduce the risk of transmitting pathogens within most droplets larger than 5 microns.

67
Q

True/False: Make sure you have all your equipment before going into an isolation room.

A

TRUE

68
Q

What are PPE’s?

A
  • Gloves
  • Mask
  • Goggles
  • Face Shield
  • Respirators
69
Q

True/False: Always wash hands after taking off gloves.

A

TRUE

70
Q

True/False: Geriatric patients are more susceptible for infections due to decreased immune response.

A

TRUE

71
Q

Nursing Implications for Infections

A
  • Risk for infection
  • Ineffective Protection
  • Risk for Infection Transmission
  • Impaired Social Interaction
  • Social Isolation
  • Risk for Loneliness
  • Deficient Diversional Activity
  • Powerlessness
  • Fear
72
Q

What is a N95 Respirator?

A
  • Filtering face piece respirator used to filter microorganisms.
73
Q

True/False: HIV is usually transmitted through sexual contact.

A

TRUE.

74
Q

True/False: Gown, gloves, and mask are not necessary all the time.

A

TRUE.

75
Q

When do we need to wear PPE’s (Personal Protective Equipment)?

A

Consistenly.

76
Q

Initial actions when placing patient on isolation precautions

A
  • Make sure to have all supplies when going into an isolation room.
  • Make sure room is clean and disinfected.
77
Q

What is the Course of Infectious Diseases?

A
  • 1st Stage: Incubation (Agent is present, Host is asymptomatic)
  • 2nd Stage: Prodromal (Mild Symptoms)
  • 3rd Stage: Acute (Severe Symptoms)
  • 4th Stage: Convalescent (Symptoms subside)
  • 5th Stage: Resolution (Recovery, pathogen is destroyed.)
78
Q

How do you get rid of soiled materials?

A

Double Bagging

79
Q

What is a Wound?

A

Damaged Skin/Soft Tissue resulting from trauma/injury.

80
Q

What are the two types of Wounds?

A
  • Open (surface of skin/mucous membrane not in tact)

- Closed (No opening in skin/mucous membrane)

81
Q

What is an Incision?

A

Clean separation of skin. (stitches)

82
Q

What is a Laceration?

A

A deep cut within the skin.

83
Q

What is an Abrasion?

A

Surface layers of skin are scraped away.

84
Q

What is an Avulsion?

A

large areas of skin removed; cartilage/bone exposed.

85
Q

What is an Ulceration?

A

Shallow crater; mucous membrane is missing.

86
Q

What is a Puncture?

A

Opening of skin caused by narrow, sharp, pointed object.

87
Q

What is a Contusion?

A

Bruise

88
Q

What are the 3 Wound Repair Stages?

A
  • Inflammation (2-5 days)
  • Proliferation (2 days - 3 weeks)
  • Remodeling (6mo. - 2 yrs.)
89
Q

What are the factors of Wound Healing?

A
  • Type of injury
  • Expanse of depth of wound
  • Quality of circulation
  • Amount of wound debris
  • presence of infection
  • Status of Client’s health
90
Q

What does 1st Intention Healing consists of?

A

Primary Intention; Wound edges are directly next to each other.

91
Q

What does the 2nd Intention Healing consists of?

A

Wound edges are widely separated; resulting in deep scar.

92
Q

What does the 3rd Intention Healing consists of?

A

Wound edges are intentionally left opened; delayed closure.

93
Q

True/False: The key to wound healing is adequate blood flow to the injured tissue.

A

TRUE.

94
Q

Factors that interfere with Wound Care

A
  • Poor circulation
  • Infection
  • Fluid accumulation
  • Tension/pulling on wound edges
  • Poor Nutrition
95
Q

What do you assess for Wound Healing Complications?

A
  • Undermining (erosion of tissue from under intact skin)
  • Slough (Dead tissue around the wound surface)
  • Necrotic Tissue (Dry; brown/black in color devitalized tissue)
96
Q

True/False: Necrotic tissue and slough must be removed for healing to take place.

A

TRUE.

97
Q

What is Dishiscience?

A

The separation of wound edges

98
Q

What is Evisceration?

A

Would separation with exposed organs

99
Q

True/False: Wound healing generally occur within 7-10 days after surgery.

A

TRUE.

100
Q

What is a Dressing?

A

A cover over a wound.

101
Q

What is the purpose of Dressings?

A
  • Keep wound clean
  • Absorb draining
  • Control bleeding
  • Hold medication in place
  • Protect wound from further injury
102
Q

What are the types of Dressings?

A
  • Gauze (woven, cloth fibers; great for great wounds
  • Transparent (Clear, acrylic wound covering; common for IV/Central Line Catheters.
  • Hydrocolloid
  • Hydrogel
  • Alginate
    ( Above: Self-Adhesive, opaque; contains granules of gelatin or pectin; repels body subtances such as urine and stool, need an 1 inch margin around wound)
103
Q

What are the procedures for Wound Dressing?

A
  • Pre-medicate
  • Wash cands
  • Don clean cloves
  • Remove old dressings
  • Wash hands
  • Don clean/sterile gloves
  • Cleanse per Dr. order
  • Apply dressing per Dr. order
  • Wash hands
104
Q

What is the method for documenting Wound Care?

A

S.A.L.T.T. Method

S - Size
A - Appearance
L - Location
T - Treatment
T - Tolerance
105
Q

What are the 3 Types of Drains?

A
  • Open (flat, flexible tubes that empty to dressing)
  • Closed ( Tubes that terminate in receptacle; Jackson-Pratt)
  • Vacuum-Assisted Closure/VAC (Wound packed with foam filler/sealed with occlusive dressing attached to a suction tube and pump.
106
Q

What are Sutures and Staples?

A
  • Sutures: Knotted ties that hold an incision together

- Staples: Wide, metal clips

107
Q

What are Bandages?

A

A strip or roll of cloth wrapped around a body part.

108
Q

What are Binders?

A

A type of cloth applied most commonly to abdomen or breasts.

109
Q

What are Antiembolism Stockings?

A
  • TED Hose
  • Compression Socks
  • Must have physician order
110
Q

What are the 4 methods of Debridement?

A

S.E.A.M.

S - Seam
E - Enzymatic
A - Autolytic
M - Mechanical

111
Q

What is a Debridement?

A

Removal of necrotic tissue to promote healing

112
Q

True/False: Always assess before applying heat/cold applications.

A

TRUE.

113
Q

What are Pressure Ulcers?

A

Pressure related injuries, bed sores, bed ulcers; most often appear over bony prominences.

114
Q

What are the 4 stages of Pressure Ulcers?

A

Stage I - Intact, reddened skin
Stage II - Red and accompanied by blistering/skin tear without slough
Stage III - Shallow skin that extends; serous/purulent drainage
Stage IV - Life-threatening, muscle/bone is exposed, foul order present, may present sepsis.

115
Q

What is a Serous Drainage?

A

Leaking plasma; Yellow, Clear fluid

116
Q

What is a Serosanguinous Drainage?

A

Thin, watery, and pink in color.

117
Q

What is a Sanguineous Drainage?

A

Fresh, bloody exudate (bright red/thick)

118
Q

What are some risk factors of Pressure Ulcers?

A
  • Inactivity
  • Immobility
  • Malnutrition
  • Dehydration
  • Sedation
  • Vascular Disease

Basic Nursing Skills (LVN) (4 decks)

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