Unit 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Name 2 Types of Antihypertensive Drugs

A
  1. Diuretics
  2. Sympatholytic
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2
Q

What do diuretics do; what diseases are they used for? Name examples and list adverse effects

A

Increase excretion of Na+ and H2O, reduce fluid in system and work on heart. Used for HTN and CHF. Thiazides, loop diuretics
(Lasix), and K+ sparing. Orthostatic hypo, weakness, confusion

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3
Q

What are sympatholytics? What are they used for? Name examples and adverse effects

A

Beta blockers. Bind to heart and block E/NE functions, so decrease HR and contraction force (reduce symp. responses). Used
for HTN, angina, arrhythmias, HF, recovery from MI, migraines, Reynaud’s, situation anxiety. Propanolol (noncardioselective)
and metoprolol (cardioselective). Bronchoconstriction (esp with asthma and COPD), orthostatic hypo, psychotropic effects
(depression and lethargy), reduced max exercise capacity

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4
Q

How do vasodilators affect peripheral vasculature?

A

Act directly on vascular smooth muscle by inhibiting contraction. Used for HTN and HF. Adverse FX: reflex tachycardia,
orthostatic hypo, dizziness, headaches, edema. Avoid systemic heat.

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5
Q

Explain how drugs that control the renin-angiotensin system are useful for treating HTN and HF

A

The RAS helps to control BP- when it drops, angiotensinogen -> AngI (with renin) -> AngII (with ACE) -> powerful
vasoconstriction to increase BP. Drugs like ACE inhibitors, AngII receptor blockers, and renin inhibitors prevent acute
vasoconstriction, help reduce BP, and prevent chronic FX of vascular hypertrophy from AngII. Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) often
causes dry cough from bradykinin, while Sartans (AngII receptor blockers) have fewer side FX

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6
Q

Explain why calcium channel blockers can help reduce blood pressure and/or treat certain cardiac dysrhythmias

A

Calcium causes the heart and arteries to contract more strongly. By blocking calcium entry into cardiac cells, calcium channel
blockers can slow down the electrical activity of the heart, which can be useful in treating certain arrhythmias, and allows
blood vessels to dilate, reducing BP.

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7
Q

What are Ca2+ channel blockers used for and what are adverse FX?

A

Used for HTN, angina, arrhythmias “-ipine drugs” but adverse FX include swelling in feet, orthostatic hypo, altered
HR/arrhythmia. Avoid systemic heat. May increase risk of MI?

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8
Q

Justify the use of nitroglycerin when treating angina pectoris.

A

It dilates peripheral vasculature, reducing preload via venous dilation and reducing afterload via arterial dilation, thereby
reducing workload and oxygen demand on the heart. Can relieve angina within 1-3 mins, though only lasts 30-60 mins
sublingually. Adverse fx: headache, dizziness, orthostatic hypo. No systemic heat.

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9
Q

Categorize the drugs used to control arrhythmias

A

I. Sodium channel blockers – used for PVCs and Vtach. Stabilizes excitability by inhibiting abnormal sodium channel opening in
cardiac cells. (includes lidocaine and apoquin)
II. Beta blockers – Afib, Vtach
III. Drugs that prolong repolarization – used for Afib, Vfib, and Vtach. Lengthen time between Aps to allow heart to rest prob
by reducing K+ efflux in repolarization. (includes amiodarone)
IV. Calcium channel blockers – Afib, supraventricular tachycardias
*these drugs can have a proarrhythmic effect so monitor HR and symptoms, look for fatigue and dyspnea especially during
exercise

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10
Q

Name the classes of drugs commonly used to treat HF that work to reduce the workload of the heart, slow the progression,
and increase the contractility of the heart

A

Diuretics, beta blockers, vasodilators, renin-ang drugs, and positive inotropic drugs

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11
Q

Differentiate the positive effects of digitalis from possible negative effects when treating heart failure.

A

It increases CO and reduces symptoms especially in systolic HF by inhibiting the sodium potassium pump in heart cells – Na+
accumulates, less Ca2+ leaves and builds up -> stronger contraction. Also reduces HR by stimulating vagus n to increase fill
time. However, 25% of pts will develop digitalis toxicity even in normal serum range: GI distress, cramps, nausea, vomiting,
fatigue, confusion, depression, blurred vision, arrhythmia

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12
Q

2 other drugs given in severe/acute HF

A

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors and dopamine/dobutamine – given parenterally (IV) and not more effective than digitalis. Both
increase contractility

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13
Q

In the clotting cascade, both extrinsic and intrinsic eventually get to CFX which converts prothrombin to thrombin, and
thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin. But how are each of the diff systems activated?

A

Intrinsic: CFXII activated by contact with damaged vessel
Extrinsic: CFVII activated by thromboplastin

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14
Q

Explain how clots are broken down

A

Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) activates plasminogen which turns into plasmin and breaks down the clot

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15
Q

Differentiate conventional (unfractionated) heparin from low molecular-weight heparin.

A

Unfractionated is administered via IV, several times a day

Low molecular weight is administered subcutaneously once a day and has a more predictable, safer response “-parin” drugs

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16
Q

What kind of clots are anticoagulants used primarily for?

A

Venous thrombosis (like DVT)

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17
Q

How is heparin diff from warfarin?

A

Hep is given via injection/IV (parenterally), increases effects of antithrombin III, (slows down clotting) has rapid effects

Warfarin AKA coumadin is given orally, inhibits vit K fxn in liver so reduces synthesis of clotting factors, has a time lag 3-4 days

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18
Q

What’s cool about aspirin?

A

Can be used to prevent arterial clots in MI and stroke but also prevent DVT after surgery (antiplatelet drug)

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19
Q

What are the primary drugs used to treat arterial thrombosis? (decrease platelet-induced clots like MI/stroke)

A

Aspirin, ADP inhibitors (Plavix = clopidogrel), and glycoprotein inhibitors (block fx of fibrinogen on platelet)

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20
Q

How does aspirin work as a platelet inhibitor?

A

Inhibits prostaglandins and thromboxane (which stimulates platelet aggregation) biosynthesis by inhibiting the COX enzyme

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21
Q

Explain how thrombolytic drugs can be used to reduce morbidity and mortality in myocardial infarction and ischemic stroke.

A

tPA and other agents break down clots by activating plasmin. Can restore blood flow, prevent/reverse damage during MI and
ischemic stroke. Can reduce mortality in MI by 50% if given within 1 hr after onset of symptoms, still beneficial if given 3-12
hours after onset. Need to rule out hemorrhagic stroke 1st, but tPA can be used within 2 hours after symptom onset

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22
Q

Give an example of a thrombolytic drug

A

Urokinase AKA u-plasminogen activator

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23
Q

What is a rehab concern with anti-thrombotics?

A

Risk of hemorrhage: be gentle when changing dressings, debriding, performing joint mobility and chest percussion

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24
Q

Address the primary methods used to treat inadequate blood clotting.

A

Replace clotting factors, inhibit fibrinolysis (slow the breakdown of clots “Amicar”), and supplement with vit K (used for
warfarin OD)

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25
Q

Differentiate the primary drug strategies used to treat blood lipid disorders

A

Statins: reduce cholesterol synthesis, decrease LDL and VLDL, may reduce triglycerides and increase HDL
Fibric acids: reduce triglycerides and increase VLDL breakdown
Others: Niacin reduces VLDL and LDL synthesis, reduces triglycerides
Ezetimibe inhibits chol. Absorption from GI tract
Bile acid binding drugs increase GI excretion of bile acids and reduce plasma chol

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26
Q

What are predisposing factors to statin-induced myopathy?

A

women, adv. Age, genetics, renal or liver disease, other cholesterol meds, high dose, heavy exercise, lipophilic strain

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27
Q

What are rehab concerns for anti-lipid drugs?

A

Myopathy (can lead to rhabdo), arrhythmias, pancreatitis, liver toxicity, bloating, diarrhea, nausea

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28
Q

What controls HR, BP, and contractility after heart transplant?

A

Since the heart is denervated, the adrenals and thyroid glands produce hormones that affect the heart (slow). Meds like
calcium channel blockers and beta blockers can reduce HR and contractility. The SA node’s intrinsic rate is 96-110 bpm. These
patients rely first on the Frank-Starling mechanism to augment SV and then on the catecholamine response to augment both
HR and SV. Resting HR and BP are elevated. Sympathetic reinnervation can happen ~4 years later.

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29
Q

What are common reasons for heart transplants?

A

Viral cardiomyopathy, ischemic cardiomyopathy, congenital heart disease, amyloidosis, sarcoidosis, chagas

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30
Q

What are the 2 types of heart transplants?

A

Orthotopic (OHT) – typical; heterotopic (HHT) – uncommon, involves 2 hearts

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31
Q

What are the types of lung transplants?

A

SLT (single) – COPD, pulmonary fibrosis; DLT (double) – CF, bronchiectasis, COPD, infectious dz; HLT (heart-lung) – pulmonary
HTN, CF, rare cases of COPD, sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, cor pulmonale; living donor – from parent to child

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32
Q

What are the 2 biggest complications with organ transplants?

A

Rejection, infection

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33
Q

Name 2 anti-rejection drugs

A

OKT3 and cyclosporine

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34
Q

What are signs of rejection in heart and lung transplant?

A

Heart: Fever, SOB, fatigue, swelling in legs, flu-like symptoms reduced exercise tolerance

Lungs: Fever, fatigue, malaise, myalgia, resp. difficulty, dyspnea, crackles reduced exercise tolerance

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35
Q

What are some good inpatient goals for heart/lung transplants?

A

Independent mobility, >20 min aerobic activity, 3+ strength, improve posture and flexibility, independent in pulm. Hygiene.
Exercise parameters: RPE 12-14, HR not to exceed 120 at rest, increase no more than 40
SBP not to exceed 170mmHg at rest, increase no more than 30
DBP not to exceed 120mmHg at rest, increase or decrease no more than 20

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36
Q

Can heart transplant pts feel angina with ischemia?

A

No b/c heart is denervated (so don’t use that as an endpoint to exercise testing).

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37
Q

What is heart rate inertia?

A

May fatigue rapidly with increased RPE. need a longer initial anaerobic component until the HR “catches up”
Heart rate slows more gradually with rest.

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38
Q

Post heart transplant, what does SBP and DBP look like?

A

Both higher than normal

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39
Q

Why would DBP be higher than normal?

A

Increased stiffness of ventricles from myocardial scarring and fibrosis impairs filling

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40
Q

How can you help your pt post-heart transplant?

A

Allow time to adapt to position changes (orthostatic hypo), extend warmup and cooldown by 5-10 mins

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41
Q

What are 3 major losses with lung transplants?

A

Denervation (loss of cough reflex and RR may not increase as much during exercise), Loss of lymphatics (post-op swelling and
mild restrictive disease increase work of breathing), loss of bronchial arteries (not a big deal)

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42
Q

Name some helpful treatments post lung transplant

A

Teach volitional coughing on a schedule, incentive spirometry, Acapella for clearance, frequent position changes, breathing
exercises especially thoracic mobility. Goals: improving gas exchange, airway clearance, pt positioning, reduce pain, reduce
mob restrictions

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43
Q

Name 4 prerequisites to being a lung donor

A

<40 yo, no infection, excellent gas exchange, clear CXR

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44
Q

What are exercise benefits for all transplant patients?

A

Increase aerobic function of skeletal muscle, increase maximal muscle force production, increase endothelial function,
increase BMD

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45
Q

Post-heart transplant, what are patients at risk for?

A

Graft failure, cancer, hyperlipidemia, diabetes, and HTN

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46
Q

Name some drugs used to quit smoking

A

Nicotine replacement, Buproprion (Wellbutrin) which prolongs FX of dopamine and NE in brain, Chantix which is a partial
agonist at nicotine receptors

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47
Q

What are other meds helpful in pulmonary disease, especially when ventilating a pt?

A

NMJ blockers (muscle paralytics help relax thorax and reduce work of breathing), opioid analgesics for pain, antianxiety agents
and sedatives, antibiotics and vaccinations to treat infections

48
Q

Why is COVID-19 more like ARDS than pneumonia?

A

Damaged capillaries leak fluid out affecting the alveoli and injuring them, which is why it’s a dry cough bc fluid is around the
alveoli not necessarily inside

49
Q

Why Is prone positioning so useful in covid?

A

Most alveoli are posterior. Useful when awake/non-intubated or receiving ventilation

50
Q

What are common s/s of covid? What are the severe s/s?

A

Common: dry cough, fever, SOB/dyspnea, fatigue
Severe: high fever, coughin up blood, reduced WBCs, kidney dysfxn

51
Q

What would you see on covid pt labs?

A

Increase C-reactive protein, increase BUN/creatinine, decrease lymphocytes and platelets

52
Q

What does a chest x-ray look like with covid? CT scan?

A

CXR- may be normal
CT- ground glass opacities, crazy paving, consolidation RARELY UNILATERAL. lower lobes, posterior, peripheral

53
Q

What is a principle feature of severe presentation with covid?

A

Acute onset hypoxemic respiratory failure with bilateral infiltrates not necessarily secretions but more leakiness from caps

54
Q

What ventilation settings would you want with covid pts?

A

Low TV, high PEEP

55
Q

Can covid pts have cardiac issues too?

A

Yes bc the binding site for the virus is also found in the heart (ACE2 receptors), so troponin rises/correlated with dz severity

56
Q

Why is airway clearance not recommended with covid?

A

Severe pulmonary edema (ARDS) is a relative contraindication and it also increases the risk of transmission

57
Q

What is the SpO2 target for covid pts?

A

92-96%

58
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for death from covid?

A

Older age

59
Q

When is covid best treated with immunosuppressives/anti-inflammatories/anti-thrombotics?

A

Once it has progressed to hypoxemic phase

60
Q

What two drugs are recommended for pts who require high flow O2 or noninvasive ventilation?

A

Remdesivir (antiviral) and dexamethasone (anti-inflam) + prophylactic dose of heparin to prevent VTE

61
Q

When should someone seek medical attention with covid?

A

Trouble breathing, persistent pain in chest, new confusion, inability to stay awake, cyanosis

62
Q

What interventions are helpful with covid?

A

prone positioning, ventilation, inspiratory muscle training, structured exercise and moderate aerobic activity

63
Q

What is long covid and it’s s/s?

A

Health issues persisting >4 weeks after infection, can last years. Multisystemic. Theory: inflame, hypoxia, coagulation cause
damage throughout body. S/S: persistent fatigue, myalgia, joint pain, LBP, cervicalgia, dyspnea, hair loss, diaphoresis, mental
fatigue, muscle atrophy, SOB

64
Q

What kind of PPE should be worn with covid pts?

A

Contact and airborne precautions: N95, gown, goggles/face shield, gloves (not shoe covers)

65
Q

What exercises can you do when pt is isolated in their room?

A

Standing tolerance w/ activity, timed marches/activity, step ups onto step, sit->stand from diff bed heights, circuit training,
amb. within room + resistance

66
Q

What imaging tech is best for visualizing bone? For soft tissues? for soft tissues during dynamic movement?

A

Bone: CT; soft tissue: MRI; dynamic: US

67
Q

What does windowing help with in CT imaging?

A

Discriminate between tissues of similar densities i.e. soft tissue window allows you to see gray and white matter of brain

68
Q

What conditions are CT scans indicated for?

A

high risk patients (trauma and/or intracranial bleeds), complex or subtle fractures, degenerative changes, spinal stenosis

69
Q

What tissues are brighter in T1 weighted MRI?

A

fats and bone

70
Q

What’s brighter in T2?

A

Fluid and fat

71
Q

What are 3 indications for the use of MRI?

A

soft tissue injuries, bone marrow changes, intervertebral disk pathology

72
Q

With US, what tissues are hyperechoic? What does this mean?

A

Tendons and ligaments relative to muscle, bone-soft tissue interface. Means it’s BRIGHT since it reflects lots of energy

73
Q

What tissues are hyperechoic or anechoic?

A

bone and fluid filled cysts. US doesn’t travel across air well either

74
Q

What is US good for?

A

pediatric joints, assessing tissues in functional state, pt can have orthopedic hardware, can follow structure from start to end

75
Q

Starting with the IVC, what are the 9 bumps you should see of the mediastinum on CXR (clockwise)?

A

IVC, R atrium, ascending aorta, SVC, L subclavian A, aortic arch, pulm a, L atrium, L ventricle

76
Q

What are the 2 most frequent positions used for CXR?

A

erect PA, erect L lateral (but more rad exposure)

77
Q

How are CXRs viewed?

A

Always as if the pt is facing the examiner, regardless of a PA or AP approach. Heart is to viewer’s R

78
Q

What is a silhouette sign?

A

Loss of a border, indicates where a lesion is

79
Q

Where is the diaphragm usually on CXR?

A

at 10th pair of posterior ribs

80
Q

What imaging tech is number 1 for diagnosing pathologies of the lungs?

A

CXR

81
Q

Which conditions result in abnormally white areas of the lungs on CXR? Explain how they would look.

A

Pneumonia (any lobe, entire lung, or both lungs)

Atelectasis (mediastinum shifts toward collapsed lobe and hemidiaphragm elevates)

Pleural effusion (blunting of costophrenic angles. if CXR taken in s/l can be more detectable)

82
Q

What conditions result in abnormally black areas of the lungs on CXR? Explain how they would look

A

Pneumothorax (like in three kings. tension requires chest tube bc air accumulates with each breath in pleural space.
nontension just needs some O2 and PT. affected side is blacker, absence of lung vasculature, deep costophrenic angle, trachea
and mediastinum deviates away from collapsed lung)
COPD (bilateral hyperinflation increases radiolucency and flattens diaphragm. can see bullae- pockets of trapped air look
black.)

83
Q

What conditions result in an abnormally wide mediastinum on CXR?

A

aortic dissection (can see 2 diff layers in ascending aorta, trachea deviates to R)
mediastinal lymphadenopathy (can obstruct vessels or airways)

84
Q

What conditions cause an abnormally shaped heart on CXR?

A

CHF (cardiomegaly, Kerley B lines – small horizontal lines extending to pleura, batwing/butterfly pattern, pleural effusion)
Heart valve disease (straightening of L heart border when normally concave + double line density on R heart border from
superimposition of enlarged L atrium)

85
Q

What would you use to noninvasively examine the heart: see abnormal blood flow, cardiac output, ejection fractions,
functions of valves, and the motion/thickness of the heart wall?

A

Echocardiogram

86
Q

What nuclear imaging tool would you use to assess pulmonary embolism when contrast or radiation is contraindicated?

A

ventilation/perfusion scan

87
Q

What are some synonyms for myocardial perfusion studies (measure how well the coronary arteries perfuse the heart)?

A

thallium stress test, cardiac stress test, nuclear stress test. Used to diagnose CAD

88
Q

How would you diagnose nonreversible blockage/defect in CAD?

A

reduced perfusion of the heart both at rest and with exercise… indicates complete blockage

89
Q

What is considered the standard for the diagnosis of acute pulmonary embolism?

A

Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA)

90
Q

What is considered the gold standard for assessing narrowing of coronary arteries in CAD?

A

conventional coronary angioplasty

91
Q

What new technology is a “new gold std” in assessing blockages- aorta, branches, and renal arteries? It’s noninvasive and very
detailed

A

MRI angiography (cardiac MRI)

92
Q

What are the classes of obesity?

A

I: 30-34.9 II: 35-39.9 III: >40 “clinically severe”

93
Q

What is the hunger hormone? What is the satiety hormone?

A

Hunger: ghrelin; satiety: leptin

94
Q

List some “obesogens”

A

cigarette smoke, DDT, air pollution, flame retardants, BPA, PCBs

95
Q

What is involved in the pathophysiology of obesity?

A

Insulin resistance, dyslipidemia, prothrombosis, proinflammation, cell proliferation

96
Q

what’s a healthy way to lose 1lb/week?

A

reduce calories by 250/day, increase energy expenditure by 250/day (=3500 cal/week)

97
Q

What amount of physical activity per week leads to moderate weight loss? greatest weight loss?

A

150 min, 225-420 min

98
Q

What’s a healthy long term goal for weight reduction over 3-6 months?

A

5-10% of bodyweight

99
Q

How do you diagnose metabolic syndrome and what is it?

A

It’s a progression of the diabetes cluster and a precursor to diabetes. Must have at least 3 of the following: waist >40” for
men, >35” for women, triglycerides over 150, HDL >40 for men, >50 for women, BP >130/85, glucose >100

100
Q

What’s the gold standard indicator of glycemic control?

A

90 day A1c average

101
Q

Describe the problems with insulin in T2DM

A

Initially hyperinsulinemia with insulin resistance, then a deficiency when beta cell function declines

102
Q

Which type of diabetes does this describe? Metabolizes fats and proteins, not obese, ketones accumulate, hyperosmotic state,
dehydration

A

Type 1

103
Q

What is the target range of glucose levels for diabetics?

A

80-130

104
Q

Hypoglycemia (<70) is more dangerous than hyper. Describe the symptoms from mild to severe.

A

Tremor, anxiety, hunger, sweating, irritable, confusion, numbness, tingling, nausea, loss of consciousness, seizure, coma,
death

105
Q

List some symptoms of hyperglycemia.

A

Thirst, frequent urination, fatigue, headache, dry mouth, tachypnea, fruity breath, coma, death

106
Q

What’s the most common cause of death in ppl with DM?

A

cardiovascular and pulmonary complications (because of microvascular disease, neuropathies, thickening of alveolar
membrane)

107
Q

How might a type I diabetic prepare for exercise in regards to taking their insulin?

A

Taking less before exercise to start with higher glu levels (though some forms of exercise increase glu levels more than
decrease because the liver releases glu)

108
Q

Name 3 tests for autonomic neuropathy and what is considered normal/abnormal

A
  1. deep breathing, assess HR changes. normal is 10-15bpm, abnormal is <10
  2. sit to stand check BP @ 2 min. normal SBP rises >10, abnormal rises >30. normal DBP rises up to 16, abnormal decreases by
    10 or more
  3. isometric exercise: grip x 5 min. normal DBP increase by at least 16, abnormal decrease by 10 or more
109
Q

Reduced filtration and endocrine fxn is indicative of what disease?

A

Chronic kidney disease, caused most commonly by HTN and DM. Need dialysis when function is <10% (ESRD)

110
Q

What cardiovascular and pulmonary complications arise from CKD?

A

HTN, accelerated atherosclerosis, HF, CAD. Pulmonary edema, fibrinous pleuritis, reduced arterial PaO2/hypoventilation
from hemodialysis, pleural effusion and elevated diaphragm from peritoneal dialysis

111
Q

What MSK conditions are associated with CKD?

A

muscle wasting from malnutrition, dialysis, acidosis, inactivity, oxidative stress, comorbidities, and meds
impaired exercise tolerance and atrophy

112
Q

When is the worst time to exercise a pt with CKD? What do you want to do before each Tx?

A

right after dialysis. Check their labs- Hb, hematocrit, glucose, creatinine, BUN, WBC, platelets, etc

113
Q

Name some connective tissue diseases and the heart problems associated with them

A

Scleroderma, systemic lupus, ankylosing spondylitis, RA. valve prolapse, cardiomyopathy, aortic or mitral valve insufficiency,
dissecting aortic aneurism

114
Q

Name 3 infiltrative diseases that deposit substances in the lungs and heart

A

Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, and hemochromatosis

115
Q

Here we go again. What are the contraindications to exercise (broadly)?

A

unstable CHF/angina/arrhythmia, severe anemia, <90% O2sat, unstable vitals (>200/110 BP, >120 HR), unstable glu (>250 or
<80), heat stroke and fever

116
Q

Normal ABGs
1. pH
2. PCo2
3. PO2
4. HCO3-
5. % SAT

A
  1. pH 7.40 : range 7.35-7.45
  2. PCO2 40: range 35-45
  3. PO2 97: range >80
  4. HCO3- 24: range 22-28
  5. % SAT 97%: range >95%
117
Q
A