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Dental Nursing 313 & 315 > Unit 315 > Flashcards

Unit 315 Flashcards

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1
Q

What type of material is alginate?

A

An irreversible hydrocolloid

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2
Q

What is zinc oxide and eugenol impression paste used for?

A

Permanent reline of dentures

Lower secondary impressions

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3
Q

What is zinc oxide and eugenol used for in restorations?

A

As a lining
Soothing temporary filling
Indirect pulp capping

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4
Q

What filling material must zinc oxide not be used under?

A

Composite

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5
Q

What is glass ionomer used for in restorations?

A

Class l, ll, lll and V cavitites
Temporary restorations
Fissure fillings

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6
Q

What is glass ionomer luting cement used for?

A

Permanent cementation of crowns, bridges, inlays and orthodontic bands

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7
Q

What is zinc polycarboxylate cement used for?

A

Permanent cementation of crowns, bridges, inlays and orthodontic bands
Cavity lining under restorations
Temporary fillings in deciduous teeth

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8
Q

What is zinc phosphate cement used for?

A

Permanent cementation of crowns, bridges, inlays and orthodontic bands
Temporary restorations
Cavity lining in shallow cavities

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9
Q

What is polyether rubber based impression material used for?

A

Accurate impressions for crowns, bridges, inlays and dentures

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10
Q

When does a cavity need filling?

A

When the decay has passed the ADJ

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11
Q

What is attrition?

A

Tooth loss caused by tooth on tooth contact

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12
Q

What is a Blacks classification l cavity?

A

Occlusal of a posterior tooth or the cingulum of the 1s

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13
Q

What is a Blacks classification ll cavity?

A

Occlusal plus mesial, distal or lingual on a posterior tooth

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14
Q

What is a Blacks classification lll cavity?

A

Single surface of an anterior tooth, not the incisal edge

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15
Q

What is a Blacks classification lV cavity?

A

Two surfaces of an anterior tooth, incisal plus mesial or distal

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16
Q

What is a Blacks classification V cavity?

A

A cavity on the cervical area of the tooth

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17
Q

What is a Blacks classification Vl cavity?

A

On the cusps of a posterior tooth

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18
Q

What revolutions per minute does an air turbine handpiece run?

A

500,000

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19
Q

What instruments can be used to remove carious dentine?

A

Spoon excavator or an air rotor handpiece

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20
Q

What revolutions per minute does an air rotor handpiece run?

A

40,000

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21
Q

What is meant by mechanical retention?

A

Ensuring the occlusal surface opening is smaller than the inside so the filling cannot fall out

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22
Q

What is meant by chemical retention?

A

Use of etch and bond when placing a composite filling

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23
Q

What are the two linings used under fillings?

A

Calcium hydroxide - stimulates secondary dentine

Zinc oxide and eugenol - sedative lining, not under composites

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24
Q

What is a plastic filling?

A

A filling which is soft upon insertion and sets once inserted

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25
Q

Why can’t amalgam fillings be polished at the appointment when they are placed?

A

They have a long setting time

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26
Q

What are millers forceps used for?

A

To hold articulating paper when checking occlusion

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27
Q

Why do we check occlusion after a restoration?

A

To prevent the tooth from pulpitis, strain or damage of the periodontal ligaments

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28
Q

What is an Arkansas stone used for?

A

Sharpening hand instruments - excavators, scalers etc

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29
Q

What are the components of amalgam?

A

Mercury and a metal alloy which contains 60% silver, copper, zinc and sometimes tin

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30
Q

What filling material are undercuts needed for?

A

Amalgam

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31
Q

What is done if there is not enough tooth structure to create uncercuts?

A

Dentine pins are placed

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32
Q

What is mandatorily needed when dealing with amalgam on a pregnant woman?

A

A rubber dam

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33
Q

What foil can be used to clear a mercury spillage?

A

Lead foil

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34
Q

What is a crocodile clip matrix clamp used for?

A

Celluloid matrix (clear strip)

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35
Q

What is a cariostatic filling material?

A

A filling material which prevents decay - GIC

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36
Q

What class of cavity is GIC best suited to?

A

Class V

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37
Q

Why is GIC usually used in deciduous teeth?

A

It requires minimal prep and releases fluoride

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38
Q

What can you add to GIC to make it stronger?

A

Powdered silver - reinforced glass ionomer cement

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39
Q

Why are temporary fillings used?

A

Pain relief
For permanent restorations which require more than one appointment - inlays
Insufficient time to prepare the cavity and insert the filling in one appointment

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40
Q

Why are cavity linings used?

A

To protect the pulp from pain and possible death due to thermal shock or chemical irritation by non-metallic fillings

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41
Q

What can be used as a temporary filling?

A

Zinc oxide and eugenol cement
Zinc phosphate cement
Polycarboxylate cement
Gutta percha

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42
Q

Advantages of zinc oxide and eugenol

A

Non-irritant to the pulp

Most satisfactory lining for metal fillings

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43
Q

Disadvantages of zinc oxide and eugenol

A

Not compatible with composite filings

Burning sensation if it comes into contact with the lips

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44
Q

Advantages of zinc phosphate cement

A

It sets quickly

It is very adhesive so ideal for cementing

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45
Q

Advantages of calcium hydroxide

A

promotes formation of secondary dentine
Non-irritant to the pulp, can be used as a lining
Can be used for pulp capping, pulpotomy and RCT

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46
Q

Disadvantages of calcium hydroxide

A

Too thin to use under a metal filling

Found in some mercury spillage kits

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47
Q

What is a thymozin probe?

A

Used to apply calcium hydroxide as a lining

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48
Q

Advantages of gutta percha

A

No mixing
Sets immediately
Removed easily

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49
Q

Disadvantages of gutta percha

A

Very soft

Cannot be left in a cavity for too long as it decomposes

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50
Q

Where is an ultrasonic scaler the most efficient at removing calculus?

A

Supra gingival

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51
Q

Where is a push/cushing scaler the most efficient at removing calculus?

A

Interproximal areas, supra gingival

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52
Q

Where is a sickle scaler the most efficient at removing calculus?

A

Supra gingival

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53
Q

Where is a gracey curette scaler the most efficient at removing calculus?

A

Subgingival

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54
Q

Where is a jacquette scaler the most efficient at removing calculus?

A

Supra gingival

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55
Q

Where is a periodontal hoe the most efficient at removing calculus?

A

Sub and supra gingival - root planing

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56
Q

Where is a universal curette the most efficient at removing calculus?

A

Sub and supra gingival - root planing

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57
Q

What is used to test tooth vitality?

A

Ethyl chloride - cold test
Hot GP point - hot test
Electronic pulp tester - most efficient

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58
Q

What is used for a direct pulp cap?

A

Calcium hydroxide placed directly onto the exposed pulp

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59
Q

What is used for an indirect pulp cap?

A

Calcium hydroxide placed onto the dentine that is close to the pulp chamber

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60
Q

What teeth is a pulpotomy carried out on?

A

Deciduous and newly erupted teeth

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61
Q

What is removed during a pulpotomy?

A

The coronal pulp tissue

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62
Q

Why can a pulpectomy not be carried out on a deciduous tooth?

A

Filling material in the roots cannot be absorbed

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63
Q

What filling material is used during a pulpotomy?

A

Glass ionomer, zinc oxide and eugenol or IRM

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64
Q

Why is a rubber dam used in a pulpectomy?

A

To isolate the tooth - preventing bacterial contamination of the canals and protects the patient’s airway

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65
Q

What are gates glidden drills used for?

A

Opening the coronal end of the canal

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66
Q

What are barbed broaches used for?

A

To remove the canal contents - extirpate

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67
Q

What are hand files and reamers used for?

A

To clean and shape the canal walls

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68
Q

What are motor files used for?

A

To clean and shape the canal walls

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69
Q

What are fingers spreaders and lateral condensers used for?

A

To condense GP points

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70
Q

What is angles classification l?

A

A normal bite - the upper first molars occlude with the buccal groove of the lower first molars, the incisal edge of the upper canines sit between the lower canines and first premolars

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71
Q

What is angles classification ll div 1?

A

Over jet - the mesiobuccal cusp of the upper first molars is in front of the buccal groove of the lower first molars - proclined upper incisors - horizontal

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72
Q

What is angles classification ll div 2?

A

Over bite - the mesiobuccal cusp of the upper first molars is in front of the buccal groove of the lower first molars - retroclined upper incisors - vertical

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73
Q

What is angles classification lll?

A

Negative over jet - the mesiobuccal cusp of the upper molars is behind the buccal groove of the lower first molars

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74
Q

What is the EDGEWISE system?

A

Square tubes in a fixed appliance and uses ligatures or elastic rings

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75
Q

What is the BEGG system?

A

Round tubes in a fixed appliance and uses brass pins

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76
Q

How do fixed appliances work?

A

Force is applied to the teeth through the brackets meaning more complex movements can be carried out

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77
Q

How are teeth moved when using a fixed appliance?

A

Through the action of the archwire
Through the force produced by intraoral elastics running between the brackets or from the maxilla to the mandible - teeth have to travel along the archwire preventing tipping

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78
Q

What is an archwire?

A

Piece of wire bent to the shape of the dental arch to be achieved at the end of the treatment

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79
Q

What are orthodontic brackets?

A

Attached to the teeth on the labial or buccal surface of anteriors and premolars to hold the archwire in place

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80
Q

What is used to cement brackets to the teeth?

A

GIC or composite

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81
Q

What are buccal tubes?

A

Tubes that are bonded to the tooth or welded to the orthodontic bands (usually on the first molars)

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82
Q

What is a ligature wire?

A

Tiny wires or elastic rings which hold the archwire onto the brackets

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83
Q

What are separating pliers used for?

A

To place separating rings between the teeth to create space

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84
Q

What are ligature cutters used for?

A

To trim the ligature wires

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85
Q

What are molar band pushers used for?

A

To push the molar bands into place

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86
Q

What are mershon band pushers used for?

A

To place the molar bands

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87
Q

What are molar band removers used for?

A

To manipulate or remove the molar bands

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88
Q

What are bracket forceps used for?

A

For gripping the brackets and putting them into place

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89
Q

What are weingart pliers used for?

A

To place the archwire into the buccal tubes

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90
Q

What are howes pliers used for?

A

To bend the wire and band the molars

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91
Q

What is an archwire tucker used for?

A

Applies pressure so the archwire can be pushed into the buccal tubes

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92
Q

What are distal end cutters used for?

A

To trim the excess wire poking out of the molar bracket tube

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93
Q

What are mathieu needle holders used for?

A

Allows the ligature wires to be placed and tightened

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94
Q

What are needle holders used for in orthodontics?

A

To place elastic ligatures

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95
Q

What are Mitchells trimmer used for in orthodontics?

A

To seat the molar bands and remove excess cement from around the brackets

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96
Q

What are bracket removers used for?

A

To remove the brackets at the end of the treatment

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97
Q

What is the headgear/extraoral traction system used for?

A

Preventing the posterior teeth being pulled forward during treatment

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98
Q

What is the retentive component of a removable orthodontic appliance?

A

The Adams crib - these are clasps

Anterior retention may be needed through an incisor clasp or labial bow

99
Q

What are adams pliers used for?

A

To adjust the wires on removable appliances

100
Q

What are adams spring forming pliers used for?

A

To adjust or bend the springs

101
Q

What are mauns wire cutters used for?

A

To cut the wires - they are heavy duty

102
Q

What is a straight handpiece used for in orthodontics?

A

To trim the base plate of a removable appliance

103
Q

Advantages of a removable appliance

A

Can be carried out by a general practitioner
Takes less chairside time
Less expensive
Easier to clean

104
Q

Disadvantages of a removable appliance

A

Do not offer precise control
Types of corrections are limited
Difficult to close extraction gaps
Treatment takes longer

105
Q

How do functional appliances work?

A

Use the force of the muscles in the face and mouth to create movement

106
Q

What angles classifications does a functional appliance correct?

A

Class ll div l and some class lll

107
Q

What is the acquired (salivary) pellicle?

A

The layer on top of the enamel. It is where bacteria colonate

108
Q

The types of bacteria in plaque

A

Day 1 - gram positive streptococci
Day 3 - gram negative cocci, bacilli and filamentous
Day 8 - streptococci veridans, fusiform bacilli, spirochetes and vibrios

109
Q

What is an intrapulpal injection?

A

Injecting anaesthetic into the pulp

110
Q

What is an intraoesous injection?

A

Injecting anaesthetic into the bone

111
Q

What is an intraligamentary injection?

A

Injection into the ligaments (down the side of the tooth)

112
Q

What is an infiltration?

A

Injection local to the site of the treatment

113
Q

What is an anaesthetic block?

A

Anaesthetizing all lower teeth by injecting into the inferior dental nerve

114
Q

What is the general length and gauge of a short needle?

A

20mm and 30 gauge

115
Q

What is the general length and gauge of a long needle?

A

32mm and 27 gauge

116
Q

What acid causes tooth decay?

A

Lactic acid

117
Q

What is the critical PH?

A

5.5

118
Q

What is the normal PH?

A

7

119
Q

How long does bacilli take to build up?

A

3-4 days

120
Q

How long does treponema take to build up?

A

A week

121
Q

What is the inflammatory process of the gingiva?

A

Toxins from bacteria irritate the gingiva causing inflammation

122
Q

What teeth is a tofflemire matrix used for?

A

Premolars

123
Q

What teeth is a siqveland matrix band used for?

A

Molars and premolars

124
Q

What are cervical matrixes for?

A

Cervical cavities (class V) - commonly buccal abrasions

125
Q

What is the term for the when the bone fuses with the implant?

A

Osseointegration

126
Q

Causative factors of caries

A

High NME sugar diet
Poor oral hygiene
Stagnation areas

127
Q

What is dental plaque biofilm made of?

A

Saliva, oral debris and normal mouth bacteria

128
Q

What are the three main areas of caries prevention?

A

Increase the tooth resistance to acid attacks
Modify the diet
Control the build up of plaque

129
Q

What component of tooth paste strengthens the enamel against acid attacks?

A

Fluoride

130
Q

What component of tooth paste acts as a plaque suppressant?

A

Triclosan

131
Q

What component of sensitive toothpastes helps with sensitivity?

A

Arginine
NovaMin
Stannous fluoride

132
Q

What is the least effective method of interdental cleaning?

A

Woodsticks

133
Q

What substance in mouthwash helps with sensitivity?

A

Potassium nitrate

134
Q

What substance in mouthwash helps with soft tissue inflammation?

A

Hydrogen peroxide

135
Q

What substance in mouthwash helps patients who suffer with periodontal infections?

A

Chlorhexidine

136
Q

What is a detergent food?

A

A food to be eaten at the end of a meal which is raw and hard food to stimulate salivary flow and requires chewing so brushes off excess food

137
Q

When will chewing gum have effectively cleansed the teeth?

A

After around 10 minutes - when the gum loses it’s flavour

138
Q

How much fluoride is in fluoride varnish?

A

22,600ppm

139
Q

What is enamel fluorosis?

A

When a child ingests excessive fluoride

140
Q

What does enamel fluorosis look like?

A

Mottled white areas in the enamel of newly erupted teeth

141
Q

How does local anaesthetic work?

A

Blocks the electrical transmutations from the source of the pain to the brain

142
Q

What components of local anaesthetic are classed as drugs?

A

The anaesthetic and the vasoconstrictor

143
Q

What waste should used locals anaesthetic cartridges go in?

A

Infectious hazardous waste

144
Q

What type of waste would out of date anaesthetic cartridges be put in?

A

Non hazardous waste

145
Q

What is the most common vasoconstrictor in local anaesthetic?

A

Adrenaline

146
Q

What medical conditions should adrenaline free local anaesthetics be used for?

A

Hypertension, cardiac disease and hyperthyroidism

147
Q

What group of people should avoid adrenaline containing anaesthetics?

A

Elderly patients

148
Q

What drugs could contra indicate anaesthetic?

A

HRT and thyroxin

149
Q

What are aspirating anaesthetic syringes used for?

A

Avoid injecting a blood vessel

150
Q

What types of injections are given for the extraction of an upper tooth?

A

Buccal and palatal infiltration

Sometimes a posterior superior dental nerve block for 2nd and 3rd molars

151
Q

What types of injections are given for the extraction of a lower tooth?

A

ID block or mental nerve block with lingual infiltration for premolars and anteriors
ID block and long buccal nerve infiltration for molars

152
Q

What doesn’t need to be anaesthetised for a restoration?

A

Palatal/lingual gingiva

153
Q

Where should sharps policies be present?

A

Wherever sharps are being used - ideally next to each sharps bin

154
Q

What is paraesthesia?

A

Pins and needles feeling when anaesthetic is wearing off

155
Q

What are the two main types of anxiety control?

A

General anaesthetic and conscious sedation

156
Q

Which type of anxiety control retains the patients protective reflexes against blockage of the airway

A

Conscious sedation

157
Q

What is an enamel chisel used for?

A

Removing any unsupported enamel from the cavity edges

158
Q

What is a gingival margin trimmer used for?

A

To trim the margin of the cavity to ensure no unsupported enamel remains

159
Q

What is the dove tail technique?

A

Technique in ensuring that the inside of the cavity is larger than the opening so the filling does not fall out of the medial and distal surfaces

160
Q

What is microleakage?

A

Minute amounts of fluid and debris are able to leak through gaps between the filling and the walls and contaminate the pulp

161
Q

Why are linings placed in cavities in relation to microleakage?

A

To seal the dentine tubules off to prevent microleakage

162
Q

What is the best method of moisture control?

A

Rubber dam

163
Q

What burs are used with air turbine handpieces?

A

Diamond and tungsten carbide

164
Q

Advantages of air turbine handpieces

A

Ease and speed of cutting

165
Q

Disadvantage of air turbine handpieces

A

Little tactile sensation

166
Q

What burs are used with a slow handpiece?

A

Stainless steel or tungsten carbide

167
Q

What is a round bur used for?

A

Gaining access to the cavity and at a low speed for removing caries

168
Q

What is a pear bur used for?

A

For shaping and smoothing cavities

169
Q

What is a fissure bur used for?

A

For shaping and outlining the cavity

170
Q

What should hand instruments be sharpened on?

A

Arkansas stone

171
Q

What is the biggest advantage of zinc phosphate?

A

You are able to control its setting time

172
Q

What is the main disadvantage of zinc phosphate?

A

Cannot be used a liner in deep fillings as it is an irritant to the pulp

173
Q

What is the most adhesive cement?

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

174
Q

Main disadvantage of calcium hydroxide?

A

Can only be used as a sub lining under amalgam as is too thin

175
Q

What is an advantage of calcium hydroxide in terms of PH?

A

It is an alkaline which counteracts the acidity of zinc phosphate and also kills off any residual bacteria present in deep cavities

176
Q

What is the most widely used permanent filling material for a posterior tooth in the UK?

A

Amalgam

177
Q

What patients should amalgam not be used on?

A

Children under 15
Pregnant women
Breast feeding women

178
Q

What chemicals are used to a larger amalgam spillage?

A

Calcium hydroxide and flowers of sulphur

179
Q

What is an advantage of composite regarding setting times?

A

As it is a light cure system, the dentist has more control over the setting time

180
Q

How deep can the curing light penetrate?

A

2mm

181
Q

What does vitamin A help with?

A

Saliva production

182
Q

What does vitamin C help with?

A

Gum health

183
Q

What can a vitamin D deficiency affect?

A

Gum disease, caries rate and inflammation of the gingiva

184
Q

What is haemostasis?

A

Stopped bleeding - first stage of healing

185
Q

How can you avoid an oroantral fistula?

A

Avoid too much pressure
Section the roots
Refer to a specialist

186
Q

Why might a liner be placed under glass ionomer restoration

A

To protect the pulp from acrylic acid

187
Q

How can a tooth with reversible pulpitis be saved

A

With a normal filling

188
Q

What is the success rate of a pulpectomy?

A

85%

189
Q

If the roots have what degree of curvature they should be referred to a specialist for endodontic treatment?

A

15 degrees

190
Q

Why are handpieces more favourable than reamers?

A

Because they can be used for any canal shape rather than reamers which are just used for circular canals

191
Q

what colour are non-latex rubber dam sheets

A

Purple and blue

192
Q

What colour are latex rubber dam sheets

A

Green

193
Q

If a rubber dam cannot be used what must be attached to the hand instruments

A

a parachute chain

194
Q

What does it mean if at the second visit the root canal is not dry

A

The apical infection is still present

195
Q

What teeth can a pulpotomy be carried out on?

A

Deciduous teeth and teeth which erupted up to 3 years ago

196
Q

What fillings should be used for an open apex root

A

A spiral root canal filler with a non-setting calcium hydroxide paste

197
Q

During an apicectomy, what instrument is used to scrape out the infected soft tissue from the bone cavity

A

Mitchell’s trimmer or surgical curette

198
Q

What is pyrexia

A

A raised body temperature

199
Q

What is a chromogenic material?

A

A material which changes colour depending on the mixing and setting stage

200
Q

What gloves should be worn when mixing addition silicone impression material

A

Vinyl as some types of rubber PPE gloves can affect the mixing and setting times

201
Q

How long does the silicon impression take to set

A

Four minutes

202
Q

What should impressions be disinfected in

A

10% sodium hypochlorite

203
Q

How long should impressions be disinfected for

A

Up to 10 minutes

204
Q

What is also known as boxed trays

A

Dentate trays

205
Q

How much of the natural tooth does a crown replace

A

At least 3/4

206
Q

How much of the overall two dimensions is reduced for a metallic or ceramic crown

A

1 mm

207
Q

How much of the overall tooth dimension is reduced for a bonded crown

A

1.5mm

208
Q

What is a fixed fixed bridge

A

Retaining teeth are involve to either side of the missing tooth as one solid design

209
Q

What is a fixed movable bridge

A

Where a joint is incorporated in the bridge to allow some degree of flexibility

210
Q

What is a simple cantilever bridge

A

A bridge where the retaining teeth are to one side of the pontic only

211
Q

What is a spring cantilever bridge

A

Where the retaining teeth are to one side but several teeth away from the pontic

212
Q

What is an adhesive bridge

A

Whether retaining teeth undergo minimal tooth preparation and retention is provided by metal wings

213
Q

Why are fixed fixed bridges not used so frequently now

A

As they are inflexible so can cause damage to the retaining teeth

214
Q

How is occlusion checked on a bridge

A

Shimstock

215
Q

When can adhesive bridge be used posteriorly

A

 ideally if the patient has no opposing teeth or the opposing teeth are on a denture

216
Q

What are the oral hygiene instructions for crowns and bridges

A

Regular toothbrushing with a fluoride toothpaste
Regular interdental cleaning careful use of floss to not dislodge the crown
Attend the dentist regularly
A sensible diet

217
Q

What can be carried out for edentulous patients to improve retention of a denture

A

Alveoplasty or Alveolectomy

218
Q

What are the advantages of chrome cobalt dentures

A

they are better for patients with deep overbites onto their palate
They are thinner and stronger Cover minimal tissue making them more comfortable


219
Q

What material is used for the final impressions of chrome cobalt dentures

A

Elastomer in a special tray

220
Q

What denture has an extra stage

A

Chrome cobalt - extra try in stage

221
Q

What teeth are immediate dentures usually made for

A

Anterior teeth

222
Q

What material are immediate dentures made from

A

Acrylic as chrome cobalt cannot be adjusted

223
Q

When are tissue conditioners used

A

As a soft lining when the soft tissues beneath the denture are sore
As a functional impression which sets over a few hours and records the soft tissues

224
Q

What happens when you bite into a soft tissue conditioner

A

 The occlusal force is dissipated therefore causing less pain

225
Q

What material are obturator impressions made from

A

Elastomer

226
Q

advantage of keeping a retained root

A

It holds the alveolar bone in place and stops it receding

227
Q

What do retained roots have to be for an overdenture

A

Root filled

228
Q

What type of patient can have a functional appliance

A

When the mandible is still growing but after the premolars have erupted

229
Q

What is interproximal reduction

A

Careful trimming and adjustment of teeth as treatment with removable aligners progresses

230
Q

What is the term for inflammation occurring in the gingival soft tissue surrounding an implant

A

Peri implantitis

231
Q

What is bacteraemia?

A

Bacteria from an infection entering the bloodstream causing the patient to become unwell

232
Q

What is a Couplands chisel used for

A

For splitting multirooted teeth

233
Q

What is the technique used of handing sterile bad instruments to the dentist

A

The no touch technique

234
Q

What is ankylosed?

A

When a deciduous tooth has failed to exfoliate because the root has become cemented to the alveolar bone

235
Q

What bur is often used in tooth sectioning

A

A diamond bur, usually a crown preparation bur for its length

236
Q

Why does the mucoperiosteal flap have to have a large base

A

To ensure adequate blood supply for healing

237
Q

How long does reattachment take of the mucoperiosteal flap

A

Around seven days

238
Q

Vertical impaction

A

The tooth is up right but impacted into the Ramus

239
Q

Horizontal impaction

A

The tooth is lying on its side 

240
Q

Mesio angular impaction

A

The tooth is tilted forwards into the second molar

241
Q

Disto angular impaction

A

The tooth is tilted backwards into the Ramus

242
Q

Why are impacted teeth left in situ 

A

Extensive bone removal can weaken the mandible
The nerves can be damaged
Trismus can occur temporarily 

243
Q

How long after the extraction does bleeding stop

A

Five minutes

244
Q

In which jaw can failure of a blood clot formation occur?

A

Mandible

Dental Nursing 313 & 315 (2 decks)

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