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Microb 230 Unit 3 > Unit 3.1: Bacterial Genetics > Flashcards

Unit 3.1: Bacterial Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

briefly describe the chain of events of central dogma

A

DNA > mRNA > Protein > Function

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2
Q

briefly describe how mutations change the chain of events of central dogma

A

mutated DNA > altered mRNA > altered protein > altered function

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3
Q

name the two types of mutations to DNA

A
  • base substitution
  • frameshift mutation
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4
Q

briefly describe a base substitution mutation

A

a single DNA pair is altered

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5
Q

briefly describe a frameshift mutation

A

DNA base pairs are added or removed from the sequence (causing a shift in the sequence reading)

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6
Q

briefly describe an inducible operon

A
  • with repressor bound to the DNA
  • genes that are in the “off” mode, turned “on” by the environmental inducer
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7
Q

briefly describe a repressible operon

A
  • without the repressor bound to the DNA
  • genes that are in the “on” mode, turned “off” by the environmental corepressor and repressor
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8
Q

give example results of the alteration of bacterial genes or their expression

A

(disease) toxic proteins cause damage
(prevents treatment) biofilms, antibiotic resistance
(human benefit) biotechology such as making insulin

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9
Q

describe genetics

A

the study of genes, how they carry information, how information is expressed, and how genes are replicated

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10
Q

describe chromosomes

A

structure that physically carries hereditary information as DNA, they contain genes

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11
Q

describe genes

A

segments of DNA that encode functional products, usually proteins

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12
Q

describe genome

A

all the genetic information in a cell

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13
Q

what is the genetic code

A

a set of rules that determines how a nucleotide sequence is converted into an amino acid sequence of a protein

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14
Q

describe genotype

A

the genetic makeup of an organism

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15
Q

describe phynotype

A

expression of the genes

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16
Q

briefly describe the structure of chromosomes found in bacteria

A

bacteria usually have a single circular chromosome made of DNA and associated proteins

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17
Q

name or phrase for:
the repeating sequences of noncoding DNA

A

Short Tandem Repeats
aka STRs

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18
Q

the name or phrase for:
the flow of genetic information from one generation to the next

A

vertical gene transfer

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19
Q

DNA is the blueprint for what?

A

a cell’s proteins, including enzymes

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20
Q

from what sources is DNA obtained?

A

either from
* another cell of the same generation
* a parent cell during cell division

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21
Q

describe gene expression

A

genetic information is used within a cell to produce the proteins needed for the cell to function

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22
Q

describe gene recombination

A

genetic information transferred between cells of the same generation
(aka horizontally)

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23
Q

describe gene replication

A

genetic information transferred to the next generation of cells
(aka vertically)

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24
Q

DNA can be (blank) within a cell,
or transferred to another cell through (blank) and (blank)

A

expressed within a cellor transferred through recombination and replication

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25
Q

What is the form/structure of DNA?

A

double helix

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26
Q

Of what does the “backbone” of DNA consist?

A

deoxyribose-phosphate

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27
Q

The two strands of nucleotides of DNA are held together by what (between the A-T, C-G)?

A

hydrogen bonds

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28
Q

Describe the orientation of the two strands of DNA to each other.

A

antiparallel,
the sugar-phosphate backbone of one strand is upside down relative to the other strand

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29
Q

During DNA replication, each strand serves as a template for what?

A

for the production of a second strand

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30
Q

Name the two proteins that relax the strands of DNA for replication.

A
  • topoisomerase
  • gyrase
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31
Q

Name the protein that separates the strands.

A

Helicase

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32
Q

Describe the functions of DNA polymerase.

A

DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the growing DNA strand
* removes RNA primers,
* joins Okazaki fragments (DNA ligase participates)

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33
Q

Other things to know about DNA polymerase (in addition to its functions).

A

DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the growing DNA strand
– In the 5‘ 3’ direction
– Initiated by an RNA primer
– Leading strand is synthesized continuously
– Lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously, creating Okazaki fragments

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34
Q

Describe the energy needs of DNA replication.

A

– Energy for replication is supplied by nucleotides
– Hydrolysis of two phosphate groups on ATP provides energy

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35
Q

Regarding the energy source for adding a nucleotide to DNA, when a nucleotide triphosphate bonds to the sugar, what happens?

A
  • it loses two phosphates
  • hydrolysis of the phosphate bonds provides the energy for the reaction.
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36
Q

Which direction does DNA replication proceed in bacteria?

A

Most bacterial DNA replication is bi-directional

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37
Q

How many copies of the DNA is made for offspring cells?

A

Each offspring cell receives one copy of the DNA molecule

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38
Q

What is the source of accuracy for DNA replication?

A

Replication is highly accurate due to the proofreading capability of DNA polymerase

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39
Q

Describe some features of
Ribonucleic acid

A

– Single-stranded nucleotide
– 5-carbon ribose sugar
– Contains uracil (U) instead of thymine (T)

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40
Q

name the RNA integral to ribosomes

A

Ribosomal RNA
aka rRNA

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41
Q

name the RNA that transports amino acids during protein synthesis

A

Transfer RNA
aka tRNA

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42
Q

name the RNA that carries coded information from DNA to ribosomes

A

Messenger RNA
aka mRNA

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43
Q

describe the process of transcription

A

genetic information in DNA is copied into a complementary base sequence of RNA

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44
Q

what indicates the beginning of transcription?

A

RNA polymerase binds to
the promoter sequence on DNA

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45
Q

In what direction is DNA transcribed in prokaryotes?

A

Transcription proceeds in the 5‘ -> 3’ direction

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46
Q

Regarding transcription in prokaryotes, how many strands are involved?

A

only one of the two strands of DNA is transcribed

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47
Q

what indicates the end of transcription?

A

transcription stops when it reaches the terminator sequence on DNA

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48
Q

Why is protein synthesis called “translation?”

A

because it involves decoding the “language” of nucleic acids and converting it into the “language” of proteins.

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49
Q

describe codons

A

groups of three mRNA nucleotides that
code for a particular amino acid

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50
Q

describe sense codons

A

codons involved in making amino acids

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51
Q

describe nonsense codons

A

codons involved in stopping protein synthesis, aka stop codons

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52
Q

number of sense codons and the number of possible amino acids

A

61 codons make 20 amino acids

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53
Q

as it relates to DNA and codons, briefly describe degeneracy

A

redundancy of the genetic code, each amino acid is coded by several codons

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54
Q

What is the three letter code for the codon that starts translation of mRNA

A

AUG

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55
Q

What are the three letter codes for the codons that end translation of mRNA.

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

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56
Q

In what order are the codons of mRNA “read?”

A

codons of mRNA are read sequentially

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57
Q

What is the function of tRNA molecules?

A

these transport the required amino acids to the ribosome

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58
Q

In tRNA molecules, what base-pairs with the codon?

A

an anticodon

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59
Q

Regarding translation, what joins amino acids?

A

peptide bonds

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60
Q

Regarding the process of translation, the place where the first tRNA is paired with the start codon is called what?

A

the P site

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61
Q

Regarding the process of translation, the place where the next tRNA is paired is called what?

A

The next codon to be
translated is brought into the A site.

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62
Q

Regarding the process of translation, the tRNA moves from the A site, to the P site, to what area before it is released?

A

The tRNA is released from the E site.

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63
Q

Regarding the process of translation, when the ribosome reaches a stop codon, what happens next?

A

the polypeptide is released, it then forms a new protein!

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64
Q

In bacteria, when can translation begin.

A

In bacteria, translation can begin before transcription
is complete

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65
Q

Contrast the location of transcription and translation in eukaryotes.

A

transcription occurs in the nucleus, whereas translation occurs in the cytoplasm

66
Q

What are exons?

A

Exons are regions of DNA that code for proteins.

67
Q

What are introns?

A

Introns are regions of DNA that do not code for proteins.

68
Q

What is responsible for removing introns and splicing exons together?

A

Small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs)

69
Q

After RNA transcription, what happens with the mRNA?

A

After further modification, the mature mRNA leaves the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where it directs protein synthesis.

70
Q

What are the stages of transcription?

A

There are three.
initiation
elongation
termination

71
Q

Regarding transcription, what kicks off the initiation stage?

A

RNA polymerase recognizes and binds to a site called a promoter at the 3’ end of the template.

72
Q

Regarding transcription, how does the promoter help control gene expression?

A

differences in promotor strength - the affinity for RNA polymerase to bind to that promoter

73
Q

Regarding transcription, describe the elongation step.

A

During elongation, RNA polymerase moves along the template strand, adding bases to the growing RNA transcript.

74
Q

Regarding transcription, describe the termination step.

A

When the RNA reaches the site called a terminator, the RNA polymerase is released from the DNA strand. (and the newly synthesized RNA transcript goes with it)

75
Q

Regarding transcription, identify the mechanisms through which termination can occur.

A

There are two.
* self-termination
* enzyme-dependent termination

76
Q

Regarding transcription, describe self-termination.

A

the RNA sequence transcribed causes the RNA to bind with itself, pulling it off the DNA strand.

77
Q

Regarding transcription, describe enzyme-dependent termination.

A

a termination protein binds to the terminator and pushes the RNA polymerase away from the DNA strand

78
Q

Name the term for genes produced at a fixed rate.

A

Constitutive genes

79
Q

Name the terms for the genes regulated by mechanisms that limit transcription.

A

There are two.
* Inducible genes
* Repressible genes

(The two pre-transcription genetic control mechanisms are known as repression and induction.)

80
Q

Identify the mechanism that regulates gene expression in response to the amount of carbon sources present.

A

Catabolite repression

(Example: cyclic AMP (cAMP), a substance derived from ATP that serves as a “cellular alarm signal” to regulate the lactose operon.)

81
Q

Regarding gene expression, briefly describe repression.

A

inhibits gene expression and decreases
enzyme synthesis

82
Q

Regarding gene expression, briefly describe repressors.

A

proteins that block transcription (during repression)

83
Q

True or false:
The default expression of a repressible gene is on.

A

True.
The default expression of a repressible gene is on.

84
Q

True or false:
The default expression of a repressible gene is off.

A

False
The default expression of a repressible gene is on.

85
Q

Regarding gene expression, briefly describe induction.

A

Induction turns gene expression on.

86
Q

Regarding gene expression, briefly describe inducer.

A

initiates gene expression (during induction)

87
Q

True or false:
The default expression of an inducible gene is off.

A

True.
The default expression of an inducible gene is off.

88
Q

True or false:
The default expression of an inducible gene is on.

A

False.
The default expression of an inducible gene is off.

89
Q

Regarding the operon model, briefly describe promoter.

A

segment of DNA where RNA polymerase
initiates transcription of structural genes

90
Q

Regarding the operon model, briefly describe operator.

A

segment of DNA that controls transcription of structural genes

91
Q

Regarding the operon model, briefly describe operon.

A

set of operator and promoter sites and the structural genes they control

92
Q

Briefly describe what happens in the absence of lactose for an inducible gene.

A

the repressor binds to
the operator, structural genes are not transcribed

93
Q

Briefly describe what happens in the presence of lactose for an inducible gene.

A

the inducer, allolactose, binds to the repressor, the repressor cannot bind to the operator, transcription occurs

94
Q

Regarding an inducible (or repressible) operon, what gene sits right before the operon and what does it do?

A

the regulatory gene
the product of the regulatory gene regulates the operon.

95
Q

Excess tryptophan acts as a what when it binds and activates the repressor to bind to the operator, stopping tryptophan synthesis.

A

a corepressor

96
Q

Briefly describe the effect of catabolite repression on cellular metabolism.

A

inhibits cells from using carbon sources other than glucose

97
Q

Regarding catabolite repression, what builds up when glucose is not availabe?

A

Cyclic AMP (cAMP)

98
Q

Regarding catabolite repression, what happens after enough cAMP builds up?

A

cAMP binds to the catabolic activator protein (CAP)
that in turn binds the lac promoter, initiating transcription and allowing the cell to use lactose

99
Q

Bacteria growing in a medium containing glucose and lactose first consume the glucose and then, after
a short lag time, the lactose.

What happens during the lag time?

A

During the lag time,
* intra-cellular cAMP increases,
* the lac operon is transcribed

100
Q

Describe the phrase epigenetic inheritance.

A

Changes in gene expression passed to offspring.

101
Q

Briefly describe the function of methylating nucleotides.

A

turn genes off

102
Q

True or false:
Methylated genes of offspring will always match those of their parents.

A

False.
Unlike mutations, this isn’t permanent, and the genes can be turned on in a later generation.

103
Q

True or false:
Methylated genes of offspring can differ from those of their parents.

A

True.
Unlike mutations, this isn’t permanent, and the genes can be turned on in a later generation.

104
Q

Regarding gene expression, describe the riboswitch.

A

A part of an mRNA molecule that, when bound to a substrate, can initiate or stop translation.

105
Q

Regarding gene expression, describe microRNAs.

A

An RNA molecule that base-pairs with mRNA to inhibit protein production.

106
Q

What happens to the mRNA once combined with microRNA?

A

Double-stranded RNA is enzymatically destroyed, preventing production of a protein

107
Q

Briefly define mutation.

A

a permanent change in the base sequence of DNA

108
Q

True or false:
Mutations may be neutral, beneficial, or harmful.

A

True.
Mutations may be neutral, beneficial, or harmful.

109
Q

True or false:
Mutations will always be either beneficial or harmful.

A

False.
Mutations may be beneficial, harmful, or neutral (aka silent).

110
Q

The word or phrase for agents that cause mutations.

A

mutagen

111
Q

The word or phrase for mutations that occur in the absence of agents that might cause them.

A

Spontaneous mutations

112
Q

Regarding genetic material, briefly describe base substitution.

A

a single base at one point in the DNA sequence is replaced with a different base
(aka point mutation)

113
Q

Regarding genetic material, briefly describe point mutation.

A

a single base at one point in the DNA sequence is replaced with a different base
(aka base substitution)

114
Q

The word or phrase for when base substitution results in a different amino acid.

A

missense mutation

115
Q

The word or phrase for when a base substitution results in a stop codon.

A

nonsense mutation

116
Q

The word of phrase for the insertion or deletion of one or more nucleotide
pairs.

A

frameshift mutation

(Shifts the translational “reading frame.”)

117
Q

Regarding chemical mutagens, describe the effect of nitrous acid.

A

causes adenine to bind with cytosine instead of thymine

118
Q

Describe nucleoside analogs.

A

These molecules are structurally similar to normal nitrogenous bases, but they have slightly altered base-pairing properties.
* incorporates into DNA in place of a normal base
* causes mistakes in base pairing

119
Q

Regarding genetic material, describe the effects of ionizing radiation.

A

Ionizing radiation causes the formation of ions that can
* oxidize nucleotides
* break the deoxyribose-phosphate backbone

120
Q

Name the types of ionizing radiation.

A

There are two.
* X-rays
* Gamma rays

121
Q

Regarding genetic material, describe the effects of UV radiation.

A

UV radiation causes thymine dimers
* the formation of harmful covalent bonds between pyrimidine bases.
* Adjacent thymines in a DNA strand can cross-link to form thymine dimers.

122
Q

Why is photolyase also known as light-repair enzymes?

A

it uses visible light energy to separate the dimer back to the original two thymines.

123
Q

Briefly describe nucleotide excision repair.

A

Enzymes cut out
incorrect bases and fill in correct bases

124
Q

Briefly describe the function of photolyases.

A

repair UV-induced damage, separate thymine dimers.

125
Q

Name or phrase for:
enzymes cutting out incorrect bases to fill in correctr bases

A

nucleotide excision repair

126
Q

Regarding DNA repair, a (blank) cuts the DNA, and a (blank) removes the damage.

A

an endonuclease cuts, and a exonuclease removes

127
Q

Regarding DNA repair, what uses the intact strand as a template to fill in the correct bases?

A

DNA polymerase fills in the gap by synthesizing new DNA

128
Q

Regarding DNA repair, after the correct bases are filled in, what happens next?

A

DNA ligase bridges the gap between the old an new DNA

129
Q

What are the frequencies of mutation with and without mutagens.

A

Spontaneous mutation rate =
* 1 in 10^9 replicated base pairs or
* 1 in 10^6 replicated genes
Mutagens increase the mutation rate to * per 10^-5 or
* 10^-3 replicated gene

130
Q

Regarding mutant cells, describe positive (direct) selection.

A

detects mutant cells because they grow or appear different than unmutated cells

131
Q

Regarding mutant cells, describe negative (indirect) selection

A

Negative (indirect) selection detects mutant cells that cannot grow or perform a certain function

132
Q

Describe Auxtotroph

A

mutant that has a nutritional requirement absent in the parent

133
Q

Briefly describe replica plating and its use.

A
  • transfer of colonies into petri dishes of different mediums
  • to identify auxtotrophic colonies
134
Q

Briefly describe the Ames test and its use.

A
  • exposes mutant bacteria to mutagenic substances
  • to measure the rate of reversal of the mutation
  • Indicates degree to which a substance is mutagenic
135
Q

Briefly describe genetic recombination.

A

exchange of genes between two DNA molecules; creates genetic diversity

136
Q

Regarding gene transfer, describe crossing over.

A

two chromosomes break and rejoin, resulting in the insertion of foreign DNA into the chromosome

137
Q

Regarding genetic recombination by crossing over, what joins the donor DNA strand?

A

RecA protein catalyzes the joining of the two strands.

138
Q

Regarding genetic recombination by crossing over, how are the mismatched DNA strands resolved?

A

Complementary base pairs between the two strands will be resolved by DNA polymerase and ligase. The donor DNA will be destroyed. The recipient may now have one or more new genes.

139
Q

Describe mobile genetic elements.

A

Segments of DNA that can move between chromosomes and between cells.

140
Q

Which structure is the one that often encodes for proteins that enhance the pathogenicity of a bacterium?

A

plasmids

141
Q

Describe R Factory type of plasmids.

A

Plasmids that carry genes for resistance of antibiotics and other cell toxins.

142
Q

Describe Conjugative plasmid.

A

carries genes for sex pili and transfer of the plasmid

143
Q

Describe Dissimilation plasmids.

A

encode enzymes for the catabolism of unusual compounds.

144
Q

Describe Transposons

A

are segments of DNA that can move from one region of DNA to another

145
Q

Regarding transposons, describe insertion sequences.

A

encodes for transposase that cuts and reseals DNA

146
Q

Regarding transposons, the name or phrase for one that carries additional genes?

A

Complex transposons also carry other genes not connected with the transposition process.

147
Q

Regarding gene transfer, briefly describe transformation.

A

genes are transferred from one bacterium to another as “naked” DNA in solution.

148
Q

Regarding genetic transformation, briefly describe the results of Griffith’s experiment.

A

Hereditary material (genes) from the dead bacteria had entered the live cells and changed them genetically so that their progeny were encapsulated and therefore virulent

149
Q

Regarding gene transfer, briefly describe conjugation.

A

plasmids transferred from one bacterium to another

150
Q

Regarding gene transfer, describe the physical requirements for bacterial conjugation.

A
  • Requires cell-to-cell contact via sex pili
151
Q

Regarding bacterial conjugation, donor cells carry the plasmid (F factor) are said to be what?

A

are called F+ cells

152
Q

In some bacteria carrying F factors, the factor integrates into the chromosome, converting it to what?

A

an Hrf cell
(high frequency of recombination)

153
Q

When an F factor (a plasmid) is transferred from a donor (F+) to a recipient (F–), the F– cell is converted to what?

A

an F+ cell.

154
Q

When an F factor becomes integrated into the chromosome of an F+ cell, it makes the cell a what?

A

a high frequency of recombination (Hfr) cell.

155
Q

When an Hfr donor passes a portion of its chromosome into an F– recipient, what is the result?

A

a recombinant F– cell results.

156
Q

Observing conjugation in bacteria is useful for what purpose?

A

A map of gene locations can be made by observing recombinant cells after conjugation.

157
Q

Regarding transduction in bacteria, what transfers the DNA?

A

DNA is transferred from a donor cell to a recipient via
a bacteriophage

158
Q

Briefly describe generalized transduction in bacteria.

A

Random bacterial DNA is packaged inside a phage and transferred to a recipient cell

159
Q

Briefly describe Specialized transduction.

A

Specific bacterial genes are packaged inside a phage and transferred to a recipient cell

160
Q

Regarding evolution, what is the noteworthy effect of mutations and recombination?

A
  • Mutations and recombination create cell diversity
  • Natural selection results in organisms best fit for a particular environment
161
Q

Regarding bacterial transduction, bacterial DNA are packaged inside of what?

A

a phage capsid

162
Q

Regarding bacterial transduction, after bacterial DNA are packaged, what happens next?

A

The donor cell lyses, releasing the phage particles.

Microb 230 Unit 3 (3 decks)

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