UNIT 3 - Statements of Case and Interim Applications Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

A company (the claimant) owns an office building on a business park. When making a delivery of office supplies to the claimant, the defendant loses control of his van and crashes into the reception causing extensive damage. The cost of rebuilding has been assessed as £32,500. The defendant is refusing to accept liability and so the claimant issues proceedings in the County Court.

Which of the following statements best describes how the claimant should make a claim for interest?

A) The claimant should claim interest pursuant to any relevant term in the contract between it and the defendant.
B) The claimant need not claim interest as this will be automatically added to the claim if successful.
C) The claimant should set out the basis of its entitlement to interest, but need not calculate the amount owing.
D) The claimant must precisely calculate the amount of interest which has accrued up to the date of proceedings.
E) The claimant must precisely calculate the amount of interest which has accrued up to the date of proceedings as well as the daily rate of interest which will continue to accrue.

A

CORRECT ANSWER C - The court may award interest, but only if it is claimed – as a result, option B is wrong.
As the claim is for damages, and is therefore unspecified in nature, all the claimant
is required to do is to set out the basis of its entitlement to interest. In this case, that entitlement comes from s 69 of the County Courts Act 1984. Although there may be a contract between the claimant and the defendant, most likely that contract will be limited to the supply of goods by the defendant to the claimant. Any term for interest in that contract will presumably only exist for the benefit of the defendant should the claimant be late in paying any invoices for the supply of those goods. Option A therefore is unlikely to represent the best option on the facts.
It is only when the claim is specified in nature (a claim for monies owing in debt) that the claimant must precisely calculate both the amount of interest which has accrued and the daily rate of interest that will continue to accrue. For this reason, options D and E are both wrong.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The defendant is served with proceedings for damage caused to the claimant’s reception building when his van collided into it. He denies liability and files and serves a defence alleging that the reason he lost control of the van was because there were shards of glass on the driveway approaching the reception, which caused a puncture to the front tyre. The defendant alleges that he was a visitor within the meaning of the Occupiers’ Liability Act 1957 and that the claimant failed in its statutory duty to safeguard him from danger and a foreseeable risk of damage to his property. He also makes a claim for the cost of repair to his van. This is disputed by the claimant.

Which of the following statements correctly describes how the defendant should approach drafting his statements of case?

A) When drafting his defence, the defendant need only admit facts that he accepts and deny those which he disputes.
B) The defendant should adopt a structured approach to drafting his defence, but any facts missed are deemed to have been denied.
C) The defendant should include a counterclaim with his defence if he wishes to claim for the repair of his van.
D) When drafting a counterclaim, the defendant should include all the relevant facts even if these have already been set out in the defence.
E) The counterclaim need not be verified by a statement of truth as it is part of the defence.

A

CORRECT ANSWER C - Option A is wrong because there is a third option – that of a non- admission and this applies to those facts of which the defendant has no knowledge. Option B is wrong as any facts missed are deemed to be admitted. Option D is also wrong as there is no need to include facts that have already been set out in the defence and the first paragraph will simply state that the relevant paragraphs are repeated. Option E is wrong because all statements of case must be verified by a statement of truth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The claimant has issued proceedings against the defendant, who files and serves a defence and counterclaim in response. However, the claimant is unable to respond effectively because the contents are lacking in clarity.

Which of the following statements provides the best advice as to the action the claimant should take first?

A) The claimant should write to the defendant to request further information on the defence and counterclaim.
B) The claimant should make an application to the court to request further information in relation to the defence and counterclaim.
C) The claimant should apply for permission from the court as they cannot make an application for further information on the defence and counterclaim without this.
D) The claimant does not need to respond to the counterclaim as they are deemed to deny it.
E) The claimant should file a reply to the defence and a defence to the counterclaim based on the information that has been provided by the defendant.

A

CORRECT ANSWER A - Under CPR Part 18, the client may request further information from their opponent to clarify any matter that is in dispute or to obtain additional information in relation to any such matter. Before applying to the court, the claimant should write to the defendant to request this – hence, option B is wrong. Option C is wrong as the claimant does not need the permission of the court to request further information on statements of case.
Option D is wrong as the facts state that the claimant disputes the counterclaim and if they do not file and serve a defence, the defendant can enter judgment in default for this aspect. Option E is not the best advice because responding to the defence and counterclaim where the issues are unclear would be contrary to the overriding objective as the statements of case would almost certainly need amending at a later stage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The defendant has a contract with a hotel to landscape their gardens ready for the official opening on 14 May. They order 2,000 plants and shrubs (the Order) from the claimant
for £18,500. However, the Order does not arrive until 20 May (after the event) and so the defendant refuses to pay the invoice. The claimant issues proceedings in the County Court for the monies due and the defendant responds with a defence stating: ‘We dispute the payment. The Order arrived too late so we could not fulfil our contract with the hotel. The terms of the contract were agreed orally at a meeting where our sales director made it clear to the claimant’s facilities manager that the plants and shrubs had to be delivered by 7 May to allow time for planting and that time was of the essence.’ The claimant applies to the court for an order for summary judgment.

Which of the following answers best describes the likely outcome of the claimant’s application for summary judgment?

A) The claimant will succeed in its application because the defendant’s defence does not provide sufficient detail for the court to determine the matter.
B) The claimant may fail in their application because the need to hear oral evidence from witnesses to determine whether time was of the essence is a compelling reason as to why the matter should proceed to trial.
C) The claimant will fail in their application but only because the information provided in the defence is sufficient to demonstrate that the defendant has a real prospect of successfully defending the claim.
D) The claimant may fail in their application because the matter is too complex and technical to be dealt with at a summary judgment hearing and this is a compelling reason why the matter should proceed to trial.
E) The court is likely to make a conditional order as it is possible but not probable that the defence will succeed.

A

CORRECT ANSWER B - as a central issue is whether the contract contained an express term
that time was of the essence and the judge will need to hear oral evidence from the sales director and the facilities manager who were at the meeting where the terms were agreed to determine this issue. This is a compelling reason why the matter should proceed to trial.
Option A is wrong because there is no guarantee the claimant ‘will’ succeed in their application. Option C is wrong as there are two grounds upon which the court could refuse to grant summary judgment. In addition to deciding that the defendant has a real prospect of defending the claim, the court could also refuse the claimant’s application on the basis of compelling reasons (as above).
Option D is wrong because the matter is neither complex nor technical in nature. Option E is not the best answer because of the reasons above, but also the defendant’s defence has a greater than ‘possible’ chance of success on the limited evidence available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The company is a pharmaceutical corporation and they have just developed a vaccine for a coronavirus that is sweeping the globe. One of their research scientists is offered significant financial incentives to work for a competitor in producing their own vaccine. The scientist leaves the company and begins work immediately for the competitor. The company is concerned that the scientist will use the confidential information and knowledge they have acquired and this will have a huge impact upon the company’s future profits. They have information that the scientist downloaded material onto a mobile device and also that they may be moving to the United States to work in a laboratory there.

Which of the following best describes the action that the company could take to protect their position?

A) The company should issue proceedings against the scientist claiming damages for breach of contract and wait for the trial to determine these.
B) The company should apply for an interim injunction to prevent the scientist from using the confidential information that they have obtained.
C) The company should apply for a search order and a freezing injunction against the scientist.
D) The company should apply for an interim injunction to prevent the scientist from using the confidential information that they have obtained together with a search order.
E) The company should apply for an interim injunction to prevent the scientist from using the confidential information that they have obtained, a search order and a freezing injunction.

A

CORRECT ANSWER E - The company should apply for an interim injunction to prevent the scientist from using the confidential information they have obtained, a search order to compel the scientist to allow their premises to be searched for the mobile device and a freezing injunction to prevent them from moving their assets to the United States. As all three interim remedies are possible on the facts, options B, C and D are not the best ones.
Whilst option A is a correct course of action, waiting for the trial would mean the damage was done – the competitor would have developed and sold the vaccine and the company would have lost the profits from doing so themselves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A woman issues proceedings against a company for breach of contract relating to the building of a new house. The company respond with a full defence and a counterclaim
for the second instalment, which they allege is owed by the woman for the building works carried out to date. The issues in dispute are complex and highly contested so the litigation is likely to take some considerable time to resolve. The woman has just lost her employment and is in financial difficulties. Her solicitor advises her to apply for an interim payment.

Is the woman likely to succeed in her application for an interim payment?

A) Yes, because the woman can apply for an interim payment as soon as she serves the particulars of claim.
B) Yes, because when deciding whether to grant the application for an interim payment, the court may take into account the woman’s financial hardship.
C) No, because liability has not been determined and the court must have established liability before an interim payment can be awarded.
D) No, because the litigation is complex and highly contested, so the court cannot be satisfied the woman would obtain judgment at trial.
E) No, because the company have served a counterclaim and this precludes the woman from being granted an interim payment.

A

CORRECT ANSWER D - The woman would not be granted an interim payment as the court is unlikely to be satisfied that, if the claim went to trial, she would obtain a judgment. Given that the case is complex and highly contested, there is real uncertainty as to which of the parties would succeed in the litigation.
Option A is wrong as the woman cannot apply for an interim payment after serving the particulars of claim; she must wait until after the time for acknowledging service has expired. Option B is wrong because the woman’s financial hardship is not a ground on which the court may grant the application.
Option C is wrong because (as stated above) the court may grant an application for an interim payment before liability has been determined provided the court is satisfied that the woman would obtain a judgment for a substantial amount of money against the company should the matter proceed to trial. Option E is wrong because the mere presence of a counterclaim does not preclude the court from granting an interim payment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following about the statement of truth in a statement of case is correct?

A) If the statement of truth is signed by the party’s legal representative it will refer to the party’s belief that the facts stated in the document are true and not any belief being expressed by the legal representative.
B) If the statement of truth is signed by the party’s legal representative, it must be signed in the name of their firm or employer and not their own name.
C) Only a partner can sign a statement of truth on behalf of a partnership.
D) A statement of truth must be in English.
E) Only the chief executive can sign a statement of truth on behalf of a company.

A

CORRECT ANSWER A - Where the statement of truth is signed by the party’s legal representative it will refer to the party’s belief that the facts stated in the document are true. So, the statement of truth should read, “The [party] believes that the facts stated in this [document being verified] are true. [The party] understands that proceedings for contempt of court may be brought against anyone who makes, or causes to be made, a false statement in a document verified by a statement of truth without an honest belief in its truth.” By way of information, details of the wording and other requirements for statements of truth can be found in CPR rule 22 and PD 22.

B is wrong. A legal representative who signs a statement of truth must sign in their own name and not that of their firm or employer.

C is wrong. Any of the partners or a person having the control or management of the business may sign for a partnership.

D is only correct if the witness’s own language is English. If the witness’s own language is not English, then the statement of truth must be in their own language.

E is wrong. A person holding a senior position such as a director, secretary, chief executive or the treasurer may sign on behalf of a company.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following concerning the content of a statement of case is correct?

A) The statement of case should be divided into paragraphs. Paragraphs and sub-paragraphs may be demarcated by bullet points, numbering or lettering.
B) All numbers, including dates, in a statement of case must be expressed in words.
C) A statement of case prepared by a solicitor must be signed by that solicitor in their own name.
D) The main purpose of particulars of claim is to state concisely the material facts on which the claimant relies. The claimant should state all facts necessary for the purpose of showing a complete cause of action.
E) A claimant who fails to file and serve a reply to the defence is assumed to have admitted all the matters raised in the defence.

A

CORRECT ANSWER D - The main purpose of particulars of claim is to state concisely the material facts on which the claimant relies. This requires comprehensive planning of the contents of the document. For example, a defendant’s knowledge of a material fact that demonstrates a particular item of damage claimed is not too remote could easily be overlooked but this is often relevant where loss of a particular contract and/or profits is claimed.

A is wrong. A statement of case must be divided into numbered paragraphs.

B is wrong. A statement of case must have all numbers, including dates, expressed as figures.

C is wrong. A statement of case prepared by a solicitor must be signed in the name of the solicitor’s firm.

E is wrong. A claimant who does not file a reply to the defence is not taken to admit the matters raised in the defence. A reply should normally be limited to stating any new facts the claimant intends to prove to defeat the defence. It is important to remember that filing a defence to a counterclaim is essential in so far as the defendant may otherwise obtain default judgment. The defence to counterclaim should be drafted in exactly the same way as an ordinary defence. Where a claimant files both a reply and defence to counterclaim, they should usually be included in the same document which bears that heading with the two sub-headings thereafter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: a defence only has to state which allegations in the particulars of claim are denied and which are admitted?

A

FALSE - By way of information, CPR rule 16.5(1) provides that the defence must state which allegations are denied; which allegations are not admitted; and which are admitted. It is important to note that where a defendant denies an allegation, they must state their reasons for doing so and their own version of events, if different from that given by the claimant. A non-admission is made where the defendant has no knowledge of the matter. Only allegations which are denied or not admitted must be proved by the claimant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following concerning statements of case and a claim for interest is correct?

A) In a breach of contract case proceeding in the High Court, interest can only be claimed under section 35A of the Senior Courts Act 1981.
B) In a debt claim, interest can only be claimed under the Late Payment of Commercial Debts (Interest) Act 1998.
C) Where a claim is for money, the following details must be set out: the percentage rate at which interest is claimed; the date from which it is claimed; the date to which it is calculated (and this must not be later that the date on which the claim form is issued); the total amount of interest claimed to the date of calculation and the daily rate of interest claimed after that date.
D) Where the Late Payment of Commercial Debts (Interest) Act 1998 applies, the claimant is also entitled to a small amount of statutory compensation for the inconvenience of having to recover the debt.
E) In a case proceeding in the County Court, interest can only be claimed under section 69 of the County Courts Act 1984.

A

CORRECT ANSWER D - The Late Payment of Commercial Debts (Interest) Act 1998 provides for payment of a fixed sum of compensation for late payment, the amount varying according to the size of the debt, in addition to the award of interest.

A is wrong. Interest might also be claimed under any relevant contractual provision or under the Late Payment of Commercial Debts (Interest) Act 1998 if that applied.

B is wrong. Various debts do not fall within the Late Payment of Commercial Debts (Interest) Act 1998. In those circumstances, interest could be claimed under section 35A of the Senior Courts Act 1981 in High Court proceedings or section 69 of the County Courts Act 1984 in County Court proceedings.

C is wrong. The details set out only apply to a claim for a specified amount of money, not where an unspecified amount is being claimed.

E is wrong. Interest might also be claimed under any relevant contractual provision or under the Late Payment of Commercial Debts (Interest) Act 1998 if that applied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
the only statute that must be cited in a statement of case is the Limitation Act 1980?

A

FALSE - There are some other statutes that must be cited. For example, personal injury claims made under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976 must cite the Act. A claimant relying on evidence under section 11 of the Civil Evidence Act 1968 of a defendant’s conviction must state that. An occupiers’ liability claim will cite the relevant statute. As you saw from Question 4, when claiming interest under a statute (Late Payment of Commercial Debts (Interest) Act 1998, the Senior Courts Act 1981 and the County Courts Act 1984) it will be cited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
an expert’s report should never be attached to a statement of case?

A

FALSE - Under the Civil Procedure Rules, a party can attach to a statement of case any document they consider necessary to their claim or defence. This provision ensures that the court has the fullest possible knowledge of relevant facts from the outset. So, if a party has voluntarily disclosed a document pre-action, or has received a document from the other side that assists their case, and it is admissible, then it may be appropriate to attach a copy. But this should only be done where the document is obviously of critical importance and necessary for a proper understanding of the statement of case.

Note that in a personal injury claim, the claimant must attach to their particulars of claim a schedule of details of any past and future expenses and losses which they claim. The defendant should then include in or attach to their defence a counter-schedule. Where the claimant is relying on evidence from a medical practitioner about their personal injuries, they should attach it to the particulars of claim. If the defendant has obtained their own medical report, they should attach it to the defence.

But should any other sort of expert’s report be attached to a statement of case? Arguably only if the court has already given permission for the party to rely on that expert. But that’s most unlikely at this stage as the court will not normally have considered expert evidence. This does not mean that material facts from an expert’s report should not be included. Indeed, in many cases, the factual basis of causation and breach can only be addressed from an expert’s viewpoint. But, just as the report should not be attached, equally the name of the expert and date of the report should not be included. You are only looking to include the relevant material facts that constitute the claimant’s claim or defendant’s defence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following about making an interim application is correct?

A) An application notice only has to state what order the applicant is seeking.
B) An application notice must always be served on the respondent.
C) An application notice must include a time estimate as to how long the hearing of the application is likely to last.
D) The applicant and respondent must produce written evidence by way of a witness statement or affidavit at the interim hearing.
E) The applicant must always attach a draft of the order sought.

A

CORRECT ANSWER C - An application notice must include a time estimate as to how long the hearing of the application is likely to last. Unless the application will be made without notice, the respondent should be consulted about the time estimate. The court must be given a realistic time estimate so that the court can allocate an appropriate amount of time for the hearing.

A is wrong. An application notice must state what order the applicant is seeking and briefly explain why the applicant is seeking the order.

B is wrong. An application may be made without serving an application notice, if, for example, there is exceptional urgency or where the overriding objective of dealing with cases justly and at a proportionate cost is best furthered by doing so.

D is wrong. Whilst it is usual for the applicant and respondent to rely on written evidence by way of a witness statement or affidavit at the interim hearing, the applicant may rely on a statement made with a statement of truth set out on the application notice and either party may rely on its statement of case.

E is wrong. In very simple applications there is no need to attach a draft order.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following about summary judgment is correct?

A) The court may give summary judgment against a claimant or defendant on the whole of a claim or on a particular issue if it considers that the claimant has no reasonable prospect of succeeding on the claim or issue; or that defendant has no reasonable prospect of successfully defending the claim or issue; and there is no other good reason why the case or issue should be disposed of at a trial.
B) If a claimant applies for summary judgment before a defence is filed, the defendant need not file a defence before the hearing of the summary judgment application.
C) If at the hearing the court determines that it is possible that a claim or defence may succeed but improbable that it will do so, then the court will dismiss the application.
D) A summary judgment hearing is the equivalent of a trial.
E) The burden is on the respondent to show that summary judgment should not be granted.

A

CORRECT ANSWER B - Unless the court otherwise orders, a claimant cannot apply for summary judgment until the defendant has filed an acknowledgment of service or served a defence. So, if the claimant applies for summary judgment immediately after the defendant has filed an acknowledgment of service, the defendant need not file a defence before the hearing of the summary judgment application. If the application is not granted, the court will then give directions as to the filing and service of the defence.

A is wrong. The court may give summary judgment against a claimant or defendant on the whole of a claim or on a particular issue if it considers that the claimant has no real (as opposed to reasonable) prospect of succeeding on the claim or issue; or that defendant has no real (as opposed to reasonable) prospect of successfully defending the claim or issue; and there is no other compelling (as opposed to good) reason why the case or issue should be disposed of at a trial.

C is wrong. If, at the hearing, the court determines that it is possible that a claim or defence may succeed but improbable that it will do so, then the court may make a conditional order, that is an order requiring the respondent to pay a sum of money into court or to take a specified step in relation to its claim or defence, as appropriate. In either case, it will be an unless order i.e. subject to the sanction that its statement of case will be struck out for non-compliance. Although the current version of CPR Part 24 does not refer to the “possible if improbable” test, it would seem likely that the practice of making a conditional order will continue in these circumstances.

D is wrong. A summary judgment hearing is not a trial.

E is wrong. The burden is on the applicant to show that summary judgment should be granted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following about an interim payment is correct?

A) The claimant may apply for an order for an interim payment as soon as the period for filing an acknowledgment of service applicable to the defendant against whom the application is made has started.
B) The claimant may not make more than one application for an order for an interim payment.
C) The court may make an order for an interim payment where it is satisfied that, if the claim went to trial, the claimant would obtain judgment for a substantial amount of money (other than costs) against the defendant from whom he is seeking an order for an interim payment.
D) The court must not order an interim payment of more than one third of the likely amount of the final judgment.
E) The trial judge will be told about any interim payment orders at the beginning of a trial.

A

CORRECT ANSWER C - It is one of the grounds on which an order may be made. By way of information, interim payments are dealt with in CPR rules 25.6 to 25.9 and PD 25B.

A is wrong. The claimant may not apply for an order for an interim payment before the end of the period for filing an acknowledgment of service applicable to the defendant against whom the application is made.

B is wrong as more than one application can be made.

D is wrong as there is no prescribed cap. The court must not order an interim payment of more than a reasonable proportion of the likely amount of the final judgment.

E is wrong. The trial judge will not be told about any interim payment order until after they have determined all issues of liability and quantum, unless the defendant consents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following about an interim injunction is correct?

A) It is only possible to apply for an injunction after court proceedings have been commenced.
B) Injunctions can only be negative in effect, for example, ordering a party to stop building a fence.
C) An application for an injunction must be made on notice.
D) A freezing injunction restrains a party from removing their assets from the jurisdiction.
E) An application for a search order must be supported by a witness statement.

A

CORRECT ANSWER D - To order a freezing injunction, the court must be satisfied that the claimant has a good arguable case; the claimant has adduced sufficient evidence as to the existence and location of assets which the injunction, if made, would affect; and there is a real risk that the defendant may deal with those assets so as to render worthless any judgment which the claimant may obtain.

A is wrong. A party may seek an injunction at any time after proceedings have been commenced and, in exceptional cases, even beforehand. However, the court must be satisfied that the matter is urgent, or it is otherwise desirable in the interests of justice. By way of information, interim injunctions are dealt with in CPR Part 25 Part I and PD 25A.

B is wrong as an injunction may be positive in effect, for example, ordering a party to take down a fence that it is has erected.

C is wrong. The court may grant an interim remedy on an application made without notice if there are good reasons for doing so. This may be due to insufficient time or, more commonly, that giving notice would enable the defendant to harm the claimant in some way, such as destroying evidence which would support the claimant’s case. Secrecy is needed because, if the defendant learns of the claimant’s plans they will try and cause irreparable harm to the claimant before they can get an injunction

17
Q

A child cyclist has, by her litigation friend, commenced a personal injury claim
against a car driver. In his defence, the car driver alleges that the child cyclist’s own negligence caused or contributed to her injuries. The car driver also makes a
counterclaim for damage to his car.

An application has been made for an interim payment.

What advice should be given to the child’s litigation friend?

A. The child cyclist must satisfy the court that she is likely to succeed at trial and
will be awarded a significant sum of money inclusive of costs.
B. As a child claiming damages for personal injuries cannot be found to have been contributory negligent, the court will only take the counterclaim into account when determining the amount of any interim payment
C. The court will take both contributory negligence and the counterclaim into
account when determining the amount of any interim payment.
D. The amount of any interim payment cannot exceed seventy five percent of the likely amount of any final judgment in the child cyclist’s favour.
E. Any order for an interim payment will be for payment in one lump sum.

A

CORRECT ANSWER C - The court will take both contributory negligence and the counterclaim into account
when determining the amount of any interim payment.
Option A is not the best answer.
To award an interim payment, when there has been no admission of or judgment on
liability, the court must be satisfied that the claimant has a sufficiently strong case that she will win a substantial amount of money (other than costs) at trial.
Option B is wrong as a child can be found to have been contributorily negligent.
Option D is wrong. The court cannot order an amount of more than a ‘reasonable proportion of the likely
amount of the final judgment’.
Option E is wrong as the court may order an interim payment in one sum or in instalments

18
Q

The purpose, structure and content of particulars of claim, a defence and a (Part 20) claim

A music festival production company has issued a claim form in the High Court alleging breach of contract against a specialist firm of builders, who designed and built for the company the parts for a revolving stage. After being kept in storage for many years, the stage was constructed and first used at an event organised by the company last year. However, the stage stopped after half a revolution, would not turn any further and the event had to be abandoned. According to an expert instructed by the company, the stage did not work because it required a motor engine at least twice the size and power of that selected and installed by the builders. Damages are put at around £1,125,000.

In the particulars of claim, which of the following describes the particulars of breach of contract?

A. The stage did not work because the motor engine supplied was of unsatisfactory quality and not fit for purpose.
B. The revolving stage stopped after one revolution and would not turn thereafter.
C. It was an implied term of the contract that the defendant would exercise reasonable care and skill when selecting and installing the motor engine to power the revolving stage
D. The revolving stage required a motor engine at least twice the size and power of that selected and installed by the defendant.
E. The claimant suffered loss and damage totalling £1,125,000 because the event had to be abandoned.

A

CORRECT ANSWER D - These particulars of claim state a breach of a particular contract made between the parties. Although this question concerns just one part of it, the particulars of breach, you need a good understanding of the structure of the entire document in order to answer it. Remember that the particulars of claim must formally set out the essential material facts to establish the cause of action and here that may include:

(a) the status of the parties (e.g. the defendant’s business when relying on sale during course of that business to establish terms implied by the Supply of Goods and Services Act 1982 [see (e) below]);
(b) chronological story (e.g., that the defendant had knowledge of certain facts that establish the damages claimed are not too remote);
(c) contract, i.e. date, type (written or oral), parties, subject matter, consideration;
(d) any express terms relied on (e.g. as to the design and construction of the revolving stage);
(e) implied terms relied on (as to the design and construction of the revolving stage being carried out with reasonable care and skill with materials of satisfactory quality and fit for purpose);
(f) chronological story (e.g. delivery of stage, payment, etc);
(g) breach alleged and particularised (it is the particulars that you are addressing here i.e. why the stage did not revolve);
(h) factual consequences of breach (what happened next because of the breach i.e. the event had to be abandoned, etc);
(i) damage and loss alleged and particularised (the damages are put at around £1,125,000 and a breakdown of the total should be given e.g. refunded ticket sales, etc); and
(j) interest (on damages claimed – see Question 2).

Option D is the best answer. The builders should have designed and constructed a revolving stage exercising reasonable care and skill and using materials of satisfactory quality that were fit for purpose. On the facts, the stage should have revolved. So, why did it not revolve? Because a motor engine at least twice the size and power of that selected and installed by the defendant was needed.

Option A is not the best answer. It alleges only breach but does not state on the facts why the motor engine supplied was of unsatisfactory quality and not fit for purpose.

Option B is not the best answer. That the revolving stage stopped after one revolution and would not turn thereafter is a consequence of the breach.

Option C is not the best answer as it just states the implied term relied on and not how it was broken.

Option E is not the best answer as it states the damage and loss said to flow from the breach.

19
Q

The purpose, structure and content of particulars of claim, a defence and a (Part 20) claim

A music festival production company has issued a claim form in the High Court alleging breach of contract against a specialist firm of builders, who designed and built for the company the parts for a revolving stage. After being kept in storage for many years, the stage was constructed and first used at an event organised by the company last year. However, the stage stopped after half a revolution, would not turn any further and the event had to be abandoned. According to an expert instructed by the company, the stage did not work because it required a motor engine at least twice the size and power of that selected and installed by the builders. Damages are put at around £1,125,000.

How should interest be claimed in the particulars of claim?

A. There is no need to claim interest as the court will calculate the figure if the claim is successful.
B. Interest can only be claimed if provided for in the contract between the parties.
C. Interest should be claimed under section 35A of the Senior Courts Act 1981, to be awarded for such period and in such sum as the court sees fit.
D. Interest should be claimed under section 69 of the County Courts Act 1984, to be awarded for such period and in such sum as the court sees fit.
E. The total amount of interest claimed (from the start date to the date of issue of the claim form and its daily rate thereafter) should be stated along with the basis on which that interest is claimed.

A

CORRECT ANSWER C - As analysed above, the claim is for damages made in the High Court. Therefore, the court should be asked to exercise its discretion as to the rate of interest and the period/s for which it is awarded pursuant to section 35A of the Senior Courts Act 1981.

Option A is wrong. If the court is prepared to exercise its discretion, it will state the rate of interest and the period/s for which interest is awarded and then the claimant’s legal representatives will be expected to do the calculation.

Option B is wrong. Interest can be claimed in these circumstances even if there is no provision in the contract. In practice, most written contracts only provide for the payment of interest on late payment of the agreed consideration.

Option D is wrong. The proceedings are for damages in the High Court and not the County Court.

Option E is wrong. Only if the claim is for a specified amount of money (a debt) should these details be included.

20
Q

The builders deny the claim on the basis that:

(a) the limitation period for making the claim had expired when the proceedings were issued;
(b) the motor engine provided with the stage was adequate in both size and power to drive the stage; and
(c) if, which is not admitted, the stage stopped after half a revolution and would not turn any further, then that resulted from the claimant’s failure to construct the stage on site in accordance with the builder’s written instructions.

Whilst making no admissions as to the damage and loss claimed, the builders wish to argue that the claimant failed to mitigate its loss.

As to the contents of the defence, which of the following is correct?

A. The defendant can only rely in its defence on the expiry of a limitation period if that period was expressed as a term of the contract between the parties.
B. The defendant can rely in its defence on the expiry of the relevant limitation period but does not need to set out any details.
C. The defendant should not admit any matters that are outside its knowledge, such as what happened to the stage after the defendant delivered it in parts to the claimant.
D. The defendant should deny the breach of contract on the basis that the claimant failed to construct the stage on site in accordance with the defendant’s written instructions.
E. As the burden of proving that it discharged its duty to mitigate its loss is on the claimant, the defendant does not need to refer to this matter in the defence.

A

CORRECT ANSWER C - The claimant is likely to have included some factual allegations that the defendant cannot answer because it has no knowledge of them. That would include what happened after the defendant delivered the stage in parts to the claimant.

A non-admission is made where facts are not admitted because the claimant has no knowledge of them.

Option A is wrong. A defendant can rely on a relevant limitation expressed in a contract between the parties or arising under statute, invariably the Limitation Act 1980.

Option B is wrong. In order to rely on its defence of the expiry of the relevant limitation period at trial the defendant must set out the relevant details in its defence.

Option D is wrong. The defendant should deny the breach of contract on the basis that the motor engine provided with the stage was adequate in both size and power to drive the stage. When addressing the issue of causation, the defendant should allege that the claimant caused their own losses by failing to construct the stage on site in accordance with the defendant’s written instructions.

Option E is wrong. It is for the defendant to allege in the defence that the claimant failed to mitigate its loss. If, at trial, the claimant establishes liability, the burden of proving any failure to mitigate loss is on the defendant.

21
Q

The motor engine was supplied to the defendant by ABC Engines Ltd under a written contract which warranted that the motor engine was adequate in both size and power to drive the revolving stage.

In light of the claim, what step should the defendant take next?

A. Issue a claim form against ABC Engines Ltd.
B. Issue an additional claim for an indemnity against ABC Engines Ltd.
C. Issue an additional claim for a contribution against ABC Engines Ltd.
D. Apply to the court for permission to amend the claim to add ABC Engines Ltd as a defendant.
E. Apply to the court for permission to amend the claim to substitute ABC Engines Ltd for itself as the defendant.

A

CORRECT ANSWER B - The risk the defendant runs is that it proceeds to trial and the court finds in the claimant’s favour. The defendant would then have to pay the claimant the damages awarded by the court. The court’s determination that the motor engine was not adequate in both size and power to drive the revolving stage will not be binding on ABC Engines Ltd. So, in order to cover this risk, the defendant should make a (Part 20) additional claim against ABC Engines Ltd for an indemnity in respect of any sums that it is ordered to pay to the claimant.

So why is Option A not the best answer? It is because there are two significant benefits to the defendant in making the (Part 20) additional claim against the third party, ABC Engines Ltd as opposed to starting a separate claim. First, the defendant obtains a saving of costs: the issue as between the defendant and third party as to the fitness of the motor engine to drive the stage is the same as between the defendant and the claimant; thus there would be a considerable amount of duplication of work if separate claims were made, namely as to witness statements, experts and preparation for trial. Secondly, the claim and the (Part 20) additional proceedings will be decided uniformly; the risk always present in bringing a separate claim is that the different trial courts may come to inconsistent decisions on the same allegations.

Option C is wrong. The defendant wants a full indemnity against having to pay damages to the claimant and not just a contribution. A claim for a contribution often arises where there are joint wrong-doers, and the defendant claims that the third party is partly responsible for the harm that the claimant has suffered. An example of a claim for a contribution is where the claimant claims damages from the defendant as a result of a road traffic accident, and the defendant alleges that another driver was partly to blame for the accident. A defendant will then claim a contribution from the other driver towards the damages which he is ordered to pay to the claimant. Do note that many practitioners making a claim for an indemnity also make an alternative claim for a contribution to ensure both possibilities are covered.

Option D is wrong. The court will not grant permission to amend the claim to add ABC Engines Ltd as a defendant because the claimant has no cause of action against ABC Engines Ltd. It is the defendant which has a cause of action against ABC Engines Ltd for breach of contract and that is the basis of its (Part 20) additional claim against ABC Engines Ltd.

Option E is wrong. The court will not grant permission to amend the claim to substitute ABC Engines Ltd for the builders as the defendant. The builders’ liability to the claimant has not passed to ABC Engines Ltd. The claimant has no cause of action against ABC Engines Ltd. It is the defendant which has a cause of action against ABC Engines Ltd for breach of contract and that is the basis of its (Part 20) additional claim against ABC Engines Ltd.