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3D156 - Volume 2 check answers > Unit 3. Navigational Flight Checks > Flashcards

Unit 3. Navigational Flight Checks Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Instrument landing system standards

1. What does a category I ILS provide?

A

Acceptable guidance information from the point where the pilot intercepts the ILS to the point where the localizer course line intersects the glide path at a height of 100 feet above the horizontal plane containing the runway threshold.

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2
Q
  1. How far from the runway threshold is ILS point A located?
A

4 nautical miles.

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3
Q
  1. Which ILS point is located 2,000 feet from the stop end of the runway?
A

Point E.

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4
Q
  1. Which ILS approach zone changes, depending on the category of ILS involved?
A

Zone 3.

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5
Q
  1. Once the detected audio level in sector 1 reaches a level of 0.175 DDM, what level should it maintain or exceed to the end of sector 1?
A

0.180 DDM.

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6
Q
  1. What is the minimum detected audio level in sector 2?
A

.155 DDM.

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7
Q
  1. Which localizer clearance sector includes the area located between 35 off-center to a point 90 off centerline?
A

Sector 3.

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8
Q
  1. General flight check information

1. What are the five basic types of flight inspections?

A

(1) Site evaluation, (2) commissioning, (3) periodic, (4) special, and (5) surveillance.

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9
Q
  1. When is a commissioning flight inspection performed?
A

Before commissioning all newly installed NA V AID equipment.

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10
Q
  1. Under what circumstances is a special flight inspection performed?
A

Equipment malfunctions, changes in terrain, aircraft accident involving NAVAIDs, and any major maintenance or modification to the equipment.

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11
Q
  1. When does a surveillance inspection become a special inspection?
A

If an out-of-tolerance condition is found.

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12
Q
  1. What does the classification unrestricted mean?
A

The facility is fully usable within its service area and meets all tolerances.

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13
Q
  1. How is a facility classified that does not meet its established tolerances in specific areas?
A

Restricted.

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14
Q
  1. If a flight inspector finds a facility to be unsafe, how would that individual classify the facility?
A

Unusable.

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15
Q
  1. What are the basic responsibilities of a flight inspector in performing a flight inspection?
A

To make sure that all airborne equipment is calibrated, ground personnel is briefed of intended actions, the flight inspection crew is briefed, and pertinent flight information is obtained.

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16
Q
  1. At what time does the work center supervisor make sure that all ground calibrations are performed?
A

Before the flight check aircraft arrives.

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17
Q
  1. Describe the responsibilities of the flight inspection technician.
A

This individual gathers and analyzes the data being transmitted by your facility and determines its usability.

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18
Q
  1. Explain the automatic flight inspection system (AFIS).
A

AFIS is a method of inspecting a facility by using an on-board inertial navigation system (INS) as a reference and global positioning system (GPS). The INS tells the flight inspection computer where it is. The computer analyzes the difference between this information and what is received from your facility to determine the results.

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19
Q
  1. Which altitude or altitudes are reported for flight inspections?
A

Mean sea level (MSL).

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20
Q
  1. What are bends?
A

Slow excursions of the course.

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21
Q
  1. Describe course width (course sensitivity).
A

The angular deviation required in order to produce a full-scale course deviation indication of the airborne navigational instrument.

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22
Q
  1. Explain roughness.
A

Rapid irregular excursions of the electromagnetic course or path.

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23
Q
  1. Explain structure.
A

Structure describes the excursion characteristics of a navigation on-course or on-path signal which includes bends, scalloping, roughness and other aberrations.

24
Q
  1. Localizer flight check procedures and tolerance principles
  2. Name the 4 flight check runs accomplished by the FAA.
A

Low approach, normal width, course wide/clearance wide, and normal width and symmetry run.

25
Q
  1. Why is the course wide/clearance wide run done?
A

Performed to make sure the monitors detect an alarm condition (resulting in shutdown) before the radiated signal goes out of tolerance.

26
Q
  1. Glide slope flight check procedures and tolerance principles
  2. Name the three flight check runs accomplished by the FAA.
A

Wide alarm, advance and retard phase, and normal width/angle/symmetry/structure below path run.

27
Q
  1. What should the monitors read during a wide alarm run?
A

0.155 DDM.

28
Q
  1. What elements make up structure?
A

Roughness, bends, or scalloping.

29
Q
  1. Instrument landing system flight inspection report form entries
  2. What blocks are in “Field 1”?
A

Ident, owner, state, country, region, inspection date(s), location, inspection type, category, and runway.

30
Q
  1. What fields have the same information required for both the localizer and the glide slope?
A

1,2,4,and5.

31
Q
  1. TACAN flight check procedures and tolerance principles

1. What are the two items accomplished before flight check?

A

First, make sure your radio for communicating with the flight check aircraft is working properly and set up at the site. Secondly, make printouts of the TACAN’s monitored parameters, and make certain everything is well within normal parameters.

32
Q
  1. When an orbit is flown, at what distance is it and what is being checked?
A

20 mile radius from station; if coverage signal levels are adequate, and if there are any unusable sectors.

33
Q
  1. During a ground receiver check, what are the azimuth and DME tolerances?
A

1.5 degrees; 0.2 miles.

34
Q
  1. Name the TACAN signal parameters.
A

Antenna rotation speed, squitter rate, north reference burst, auxiliary reference burst, auxiliary reference burst count, modulation, and percent range replies.

35
Q
  1. VOR aircraft indications/flight check and tolerance principles
  2. In what two ways does a flight inspection technician monitor received data?
A

Checks meters and hard copy recording of the meter indications.

36
Q
  1. What does the crosspointer meter indicate?
A

How far the aircraft is off a selected course.

37
Q
  1. How is the presence of undesired vertical polarization checked?
A

L=40miles,H=40miles,T=25miles.

38
Q
  1. What is the upper limit of tolerable frequency interference?
A

By the attitude effect.

39
Q
  1. What two common types of orbits are flown when flight checking a VOR?
A

The point at which it becomes loud enough to seriously interfere with the average pilot’s ability to understand the identification of the desired station.

40
Q
  1. What’s the coverage for L, H, and T class facilities?
A

Alignment or coverage orbits.

41
Q
  1. What determines the accuracy of the omni-range courses?
A

The modulation of the reference and variable signals.

42
Q
  1. How is the VOR’s course sensitivity adjusted?
A

By varying the power output of the sideband card.

43
Q
  1. During an airborne receiver check, what are the azimuth and DME tolerances?
A

30 percent.

44
Q
  1. What is the optimum modulation level for the 30-Hz AM, 30-Hz FM, and 9960 Hz?
A

1.5 degrees; .2 NM.

45
Q
  1. What is the maximum deviation of the course caused by the effects of vertical polarization?
A

2.0.

46
Q
  1. When must the monitors alarm?
A

When the course shifts more than 1.0 from the alignment established for the reference checkpoint.

47
Q
  1. Maintaining historical and facility records

1. Which TO(s) contains the requirements for maintaining historical records?

A

TO 00–20–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies, and Procedures and TO 00-33A-1001, General Communications Activities Management Procedures and Practice Requirements.

48
Q
  1. What items require creation and maintenance of a historical record?
A

All Mission Capable (MICAP) reportable, command supported, and other equipment designated by the item, system, or program managers.

49
Q
  1. Where are historical records kept?
A

(1) the work center centralized records, (2) each equipment facility or equipment shelter, and (3) the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

50
Q
  1. How often must historical records be reviewed?
A

Annually.

51
Q
  1. Where are reviews documented?
A

In IMDS or in the centralized record folders.

52
Q
  1. Emergency maintenance, which must be documented is historical records, is performed by which personnel?
A

Depot, Engineering Installation Squadrons, Special Communications Teams, or contractors.

53
Q
  1. Which publication contains detailed information on facility record maintenance requirements?
A

TO 00-33A-1001, General Communications Activities Management Procedures and Practice Requirements.

54
Q
  1. Where are facility records kept?
A

In the facility where the equipment is installed.

55
Q
  1. How long are historical records maintained for?
A

The entire life-cycle of the equipment.

56
Q
  1. What information is contained in “Tab 1” of a facility record?
A

The reference flight inspection report and all data recorded following the reference flight inspection.

57
Q
  1. What information is contained in “Tab 5” of the facility record?
A

Any site information not filed elsewhere, (such as, Mobile Depot Maintenance, SCT, ATCALS Evaluations, Air Force Engineering Technical Service trip reports, unique facility information, and so forth).

3D156 - Volume 2 check answers (3 decks)

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