Unit 3 Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

definition of Integrative Health and Medicine

A

healing-oriented practice that incorporates the relationship between the provider and the whole person

emphasizes evidence and makes use of all appropriate therapeutic approaches to achieve optimal health and healing

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2
Q

IHM utilization

A

most used by elderly American women w/ higher education and income

72% pts didn’t report IHM use to health care provider

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3
Q

Why pts use IHM and what pts believe

A

dissatisfied w/ results of conventional therapy
lack of disease curing of conventional therapy
dramatic reports from media
pt empowerment
focused on spiritual and emotional wellbeing

pts believe:
natural is better than synthetic
herbs not considered drugs
herbs don't have side effects
herbs are regulated, standardized, and safe
used for 1000s of yrs
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4
Q

Dietary Supplement and Health Education Act DSHEA 1994

A

evaluates the evaluation of vitamins, herbs, AAs, and other botanicals
regulates herbal supplements more like food than meds
products can’t be put on same shelf as OTC or meds
prior to 1994- all products were grandfathered

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5
Q

manufactures and FDA with the DSHEA

A

manufacturers:
don’t need to register or get FDA approval
responsible for product safety
ensure product label is truthful and not misleading

FDA:
takes action if product is unsafe once on the market
monitors safety (ADR MedWatch Reporting)
monitors product info

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6
Q

higher quality supplement requirements

A

label contains the REQUIRED disclaimer: “This statement has not been evaluated by the FDA. This product is not intended to diagnose, treat, cure, or prevent disease”

label MAY include structure-function claim (claim for use)

manufacturer follows Good Manufacturer Practices

Label contains Supplement Seal of Approval (GMPs, CL, USP, NSF) if applicable

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7
Q

dislipidemia tx options- 2

A

fish oil/omega 3 fatty acid

plant sterols and stanols

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8
Q

fish oil/ omega 3 fatty acid info

A

dislipidemia tx option

dec the fishy taste by freezing, take w/ food, or enteric coated product

GRAS

pregnancy limit to 12oz/week
–avoid shark, swordfish, and tilefish due to high Hg

tx option for pts who can’t take Niacin (gout, flushing rxn)

Not effective in lowering TC or LDL

omega Quant HS- Omeg-3 Index test

Krill Oil- Dr Oz

inc risk of bleeding in combo w/ Rx, OTCs, or other supplements

DHA/EPA potency- amount varies in commercial products

use both in primary and secondary prevention per the AHA recommendations

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9
Q

plant sterols and stanols info

A

dislipidemia tx option

takes 2-3 weeks to be effective

cholesterol rises back to baseline in 2-3 weeks when discontinued

sterol equally effective to stanol

GI side effects

drug interaction w/ Zetia

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10
Q

weight loss tx options- 4

A

Ephedra
Bitter Orange
Calcium
Alli

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11
Q

Ephedra info

A

weight loss option

moderate weight loss benefits

FDA received many serious/fatal case reports

product has been banned from market

potential risk outweighs benefit

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12
Q

Bitter orange info

A

weight loss option

manufacturers switch to bitter orange due to Ephedra FDA ban

often products contain caffeine

GRAS

no evidence that this supplement is safer than Ephedra!

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13
Q

Calcium supplement info

A

weight loss option

supplement alone does not equal to a low-fat dietary intake of Ca

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14
Q

Alli info

A

weight loss option

take a MVI qd 2 hrs before or after dose

due to risk of LIVER INJURY, inform pt signs and symptoms

FDA approved for long-term weight loss

pts w/ BMI >=27 have seen benefits

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15
Q

diabetes tx options- 2

A

Chromium

Vanadium

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16
Q

Chromium info

A

diabetes tx option

several salt forms
-Picolinate, Nicotinate, Polynicotinate, and Chloride

Chromium Picolinate most often used in studies

no reliable method to dx deficiency

caution in renal and hepatic dysfunc

mix data on effectiveness

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17
Q

Vanadium info

A

diabetes tx option

avg diet contains 6-18mcg qd
–only 5% is abs

kidney toxicity

effective ONLY in T2DM

inc risk of bleeding when used in combo w/ Rx, OTC, or supplements

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18
Q

hypertension tx options- 2

A

Garlic

Coenzyme Q-10

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19
Q

Garlic supplement info

A

HTN tx option

when using fresh product needs to sit for 10min chopped up prior to use for best results

GRAS

discontinue 2-3 weeks prior to surgery

products marketed as odorless may not contain Allicin

0.65-1.3% Allicin for standardization (measure potency)

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20
Q

Coenzyme Q-10 info

A

HTN tx option

some meds can lower CoQ10 levels (statins, BBs, diuretics)

inc risk of bleeding

inc T4/T8 labs in normalized pts

take w/ fatty meal for best abs

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21
Q

basics of MRI

A

3 properties of protons in magnetic fields:
T1 relaxation rate: protons align (anatomy)
T2: loss of magnetization (anatomy, pathology)
proton density

no ionizing radiation- EM fields in radio frequency range

contrast agent detects “leaky capillaries”

imaging in any plane

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22
Q

MRI pituitary imaging sequences

A

MRI (CT only if contraindicated)

high resolution sagittal and coronal pre and post contrast T1-weight images

high resolution Coronal T2 weighted images

1st time studies usually incl whole brain (for assoc or incidental pathology)

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23
Q

pituitary gland imaging

A

ant pituitary gland:
enhances (no BBB), low T2 signal
secretes: Prolactin, GH, ACTH, LH, FSH, TSH

intermediate (septum)
usually slightly brighter on T2

posterior pituitary gland
sometimes bright on T1, does not fat saturate
secretes oxytocin, vasopressin

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24
Q

basic structures

A

adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary)

  • outside cell predominance: GH and PRL
  • inside cells: TSH and ACTH

neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary)

pituitary septum

tuber cinerum

infundibulum

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25
Q

Rathke cleft cyst

A

benign cyst
secretes protein
bright on T1**

only go after these when we think HAs can be attributed to it

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26
Q

lymphocytic hypophysitis

A

infundibulum is large (>5mm)

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27
Q

T1 vs T2 imaging

A

T1
common bright things: melanoma, fat, certain proteins, subacute blood products, paramagnetic ions (Fe, Gadolinium, Mn, some Ca)
white matter is brighter than grey

dark:
fluid is generally dark

T2
bright things:
FLUID, gloss (from inc water content), tumors that have high water
grey matter is brighter than white

dark:
tumors w/ low cytoplasmic/nuclear ratios have low T2 signal (dark)
blood, hemosiderin, certain Ca complex, air, high conc protein complexes

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28
Q

craniopharyngioma adamantinomatous type

A

young (2yo girl)

classic: calcification

other types of craniopharyngiomas

low-grade benign tumors; recurring; stick to adjacent soft tissue

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29
Q

hamartoma of tuber cinerum

A

pt presents w/ gelatinous (??) laughing seizures

contrast does not enhance the tissue

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30
Q

hamartoma of tuber cinereum

A

pt presents w/ gelatinous (??) laughing seizures

contrast does NOT enhance the tissue

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31
Q

meningioma

A

along top surface of sphenoid sinus

enhancing mass
pituitary gland is pushed down, and CSF cleft between it

like to encase and narrow whatever it is around (vasculature)- adenomas won’t narrow vasculature

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32
Q

endocrine gland histo general

A

in contact w/ basal lamina and secrete through it

fenestrated endothelia

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33
Q

pituitary gland histo/general info

A

sits on median eminence of hypothalamus
anterior and posterior are split
pituitary in general called hypophysis

hypothalamus then infundibular stalk then pituitary
anterior part of stalk = pars tuberalis

anterior = pars distalis
posterior = pars nervosa
small slit between = pars intermedia

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34
Q

neurology in hypothalamus and pituitary

A

cell bodies in hypothalamus- supraoptic and paraventricular
axons go into pituitary and make the stalk
release ADH and vasopressin directly from bulbous ends (in pars nervosa)

pituicytes- think of them as astrocytes or gliocytes w/ cell bodies throughout the stalk and pars nervosa

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35
Q

blood flow of pituitary

A

blood enters via 2 vessels
superior hypophyseal artery and inferior hypophyseal artery

one of the superior hypophyseal branches goes into a capillary bed

  • this capillary bed then goes into infundibular collar and goes to anterior pituitary
  • this is called hypophyseal portal system
  • set of neurons sitting in median eminence supply releasing factors/hormones into these capillaries to stimulate cells which basically sit as clumps of cells in the ant pit and endocrine cells

trabecular artery- another superior hypophyseal branch goes into a capillary network into the posterior pituitary

drainage of blood via small vessels that go into hypophyseal vein

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36
Q

anterior pituitary histo/general info

A

clumps of cells and capillaries w/ endothelial cells
can secrete FLAT PiG
FSH, LH, ACTH, TH, PRL, GH

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37
Q

posterior pituitary histo/general info

A

lots of ends of axons w/ granules of hormones that get secreted into local vessels
-Herring bodies

secretes ADH, oxytocin

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38
Q

cells of median eminence releasing hormone

A

TSH-RH, DRH, GHRH

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39
Q

adrenal gland histo/general info

A

capsule
layers of cells that easily identifiable via staining
Zona glomerulosa- outside; dark; up against capsule
Zone fasciculata- bigger cells
Zona reticularis- reticulated cells that run as cords
Medulla- clumps of cells around medullary veins that lead to major medullary vein

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40
Q

adrenal gland bloodflow

A

blood comes in through series of arteries originally from superior middle and inferior suprarenal arteries

majority of these branch into tiny capillaries - sub scapular capillary plexus
-occasionally one that runs down and doesn’t branch until gets to reticularis or medulla- long cortical arteries

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41
Q

adrenal gland layers and products

A

Zona Glomerulosa- mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)

Zona Fasciculata- Glucocorticoids (cortisol)

Zona Reticularis- sex hormones

all of these prod steroids (cholesterol derivatives)

Medulla- EPI, some NE
-stimulated by sympathetic and parasympathetic NS, enkephalins (Catecholamines derived from AAs, stimulated by NS)

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42
Q

thyroid gland histo/general

A

layers of follicular epithelial cells
all w/ nucleus in them

center is called colloid- filled w/ protein for thyroid gland calls thyroglobulin TG
-thyroid hormones are derived (tyrosine residues and iodinated tyrosine residues)

extensive vascularization that forms a basket around each follicle

another set of cells that stain clear- sit in regions between the follicles
-calcitonin secreting cells
parafollicular C cels

thyroid itself has superior thyroid artery coming into it and inferior thyroid artery
inferior/superior thyroid veins that all branch into capillaries surrounding follicles

Iodide gets converted to I2 en route to colloid and thyroglobulin
tyrosine gets iodinated that causes bi-linking w/ another structure
on the way out, TG gets degrade to T4 and T3
stimulated by TSH from anterior pit
-both production of thyroglobulin and iodination

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43
Q

parathyroid glands histo/general info

A

embedded in the thyroid gland
don’t have separate vascularization- sit on thyroid arteries

produce parathyroid hormone PTH
acting on osteoclasts and kidneys to get more Ca into serum circulation

adipose cells also in parathyroid gland

oxyphil cell- filled w/ mito; stained a little lighter than parathyroid cells
don’t really know function
also arranged in clumps

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44
Q

endocrine pancreas cells

A

islet of Langerhans cells

clumps of cells

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45
Q

pituitary gland embryology

A

4 weeks:
umbilicus w/ yolk sac and cloaca at the end
-endoderm that has not broken through the ectoderm
-neural tube forming what looks like beginning of brain and spinal cord
-floor of diencephalon at the base of “brain”
-outside layer = ectoderm

floor of diencephalon begins to bulge out, and at same time the region of oral ectoderm bulges out (Rathke’s pouch)
-come into contact w/ e/o
-top of oral ectoderm pinches off and starts to form anterior pituitary w/ little post pouch pouch/collar
— pars distalis (anterior) and tuberalis (collar)
the floor of the diencephalon goes to form posteior pituitary (nervosa)
-the little indentation is called sella turcica that it all sits in

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46
Q

adrenal gland embryology

A

3 weeks
cross section:
neural tube, then notochord, then dorsal aorta, then large coelom surrounding early endoderm
sitting on top of coelom you have urogenital ridge w/ nephrotomes and Wolffian body; also have mesothelial cells of coelom
-also from neural crest- you have cells that migrate down called sympathogonia
—-causes other clusters of cells to migrate down and populate the medulla

later stage
-sympathogonia
initially said as acidiphillic cup of cells to form reticular
chromatin cells migrate down from sympathogonia and populate the medulla/medullary region
2nd wave of cells also layering along outside of reticular that eventually forms fasciculata and glomerulosa
capillaries and vessels from mesoderm are also starting to populate the area

even later stage
formally layers of glomerulosa and fasciculate (2nd wave of mesothelial cells)
some regression of reticularis (1st wave of mesothelial cells) and medullary region w/ chromatin cells

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47
Q

thyroid and parathyroid gland embryology

A

4 weeks
part of endoderm that will form pharynx- forms pharyngeal pouches and clefts that develop into other things
pharynx will join the stomodeum
pharynx develops 4 pouches (pharyngeal pouches- 8 total) on either side from oral cavity
-looked at ventrally, the center will have thyroid diverticulum

endoderm- pharyngeal pouches
3rd pouch- INFERIOR pharyngeal pouch
4th pouch- SUPERIOR pharyngeal pouch

also just after 4th pouch is ultimobronchial body- gives rise to calcitonin cells of thyroid
comes from neural crest/ectoderm

going back to thyroid diverticulum w/ 4 pouches:
begins to grown down and under the larynx
will be connected via thyroglossal duct to pouches and eventually pinches off
most individuals have the duct form little degraded remnants, but sometimes don’t fully degrade and become cystic in some peds
sometimes thyroid diverticulum doesn’t grow fully below larynx- ectopic thyroid

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48
Q

parathyroids, thyroid embryology

vascular embryology

A

parathyroids and thyroid come from endoderm

vasculature comes from mesoderm

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49
Q

paracrine vs autocrine cells

A

paracrine- effector cell releases a signal into the blood to act on a target cell downstream

  • somatostatin
  • delta cells of pancreas

autocrine- effector cell releases a chemical that regulates itself
-CRH

definition is purely based on mechanism, NOT hormone**

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50
Q
classify hormones based on chemical structure
tyrosine derivatives
peptides
proteins
steroids
A

tyrosine derivatives
-EPI, NE, TH

peptides
-hypothalamic hormones

proteins
-insulin, GH

these are are water soluble- stuck in cell, membrane impermeant, stored in vesicles to be exocytosed
-requires inc in intracellular Ca levels (Ca dependent exocytosis)
short half life

steroids
-cortisol, sex steroids
lipid soluble, hydrophobic, controlled at level of hormone synthesis and released across plasma membrane when needed (not stored in effector cell)
most are bound to carrier proteins (~99%)
-body only cares about free hormone- it’s the one that’s regulated

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51
Q

classify hormones based off func

water and mineral
E
growth
reproduction

A

water and mineral
ADH, aldo

Energy
Insulin, GH

growth
IGF, testosterone

reproduction
Estrogens, testosterone

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52
Q

2 ways of measuring hormones in the blood
bioassays
immunoassays

A

bioassays
-tests function of hormone
-ex. measure serum insulin of pt
-insulin drives glucose transporters into muscle cells
myocytles in culture w/ a tracer glucose molec that allows you to trace the transporter glucose in the medium
insulin will drive the labeled glucose into the cell and calc the est of how much glucose entered the cell and the func of insulin
-downside- complex infrastructure and process

immunoassays
-tests for the hormone peptide or hormone protein
-more commonly used, specifically radioimmunoassay RIA
-ex. radio labeled I-insulin + Ab I-Insulin-Ab
serum that has insulin + radio labeled Insulin + Ab labeled I-Insulin-Ab + Insulin-Ab
know competing numbers, and calc how much insulin there was in the serum
-quick, doend’t require lot of infrastructure
-measuring the protein, not necessarily the function
—-ELISA
use a tag enzyme instead of radio labeling
Ex. insulin binds to Ab, wash off excess, add 2nd Ab that is linked to an enzyme, you can measure activity of enzyme to measure how much insulin there was in the sample

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53
Q

Hormone Receptors

A

each hormone has its own receptor on target cells

protein/peptide/tyrosine hormones:
want the detectors in the plasma membrane because hormone can’t enter (water soluble)

3 classes of receptors:
-GPCR
hypothalamic hormones
-Cytokine family
GH, PRL
-EGFR family
insulin, IGF

steroid hormones
-all intracellular receptors
either cytoplasmic or nuclear
binding to its receptor can alter gene expression

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54
Q

hormone regulation general info

A

classic- through feedback mech
when there’s an inc in hormone levels, the target cells endocytose the receptors back into the cell and reduce the number available for the hormone
-called receptor downregulation

or could have reverse case
-spare receptors and excess receptors on the cell surface to provide maximal chance of binding

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55
Q

hormone regulation

serum glucose conc

A

serum glucose conc

when glucose is low you activate glucagon from alpha cells

when it is high, you activate insulin from beta cells

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56
Q

hormone regulation
pulsatile action
circadian rhythm

A

pulsatile
ex over time, GHRH is released in spurts every 90 min
by regulating pulsations, you can regulate the end levels of hormones

circadian
-can have GHRH conc vary across a day and superimpose circadian and pulsatile release graphs together

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57
Q

hormone regulation

HPT axis

A

happens in major axis of endocrine sys from hypothalamus to pituitary to target gland

  • hypothalamus prod TRH to act on pituitary to prod TSH to go to target glands as TH
  • when TH exceeds its nl set-point you exert a negative feedback mech (most common for regulating hormone prod) to inhibit TSH and TRH prod
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58
Q

hypothalamus pituitary communication ysstem

A

neurons of hypothalamus send neurons directly to posterior pituitary

can’t do that w/ anterior- solved w/ small portal system called hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system
-important that they reach the ant pituitary because released in small amounts and need best chance possible to reach ant pituitary

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59
Q
pathways of peptide hormones (+ Dopamine)
TRH
CRH
GnRH
GHRH
Somatostatin
PTH
A

TRH–> thyrotrophs –> TSH

CRH- corticotrophs- ACTH

GnRH - gonadotrophs - LH, FSH

GHRH- somatotrophs- GH

somatostatin - somatotrophs- dec GH

PTH - Dopamine - dartotrophs- dec prolactin

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60
Q

GPCRs cAMP actions and ex
Gs
Gi
Gq

A

Gs
inc adenylate cyclase–> inc cAMP
ex TRH, GHRH

Gi
decrease adenylate cyclase - dec cAMP
ex somatostatin, dopamine

Gq
PIP2–> (Ca2+ activates IP3) IP3 + DAG —> protein Kinase C (PKC)

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61
Q

prolactin and JAKSTAT

A

protein hormone released by lactotrophs of anterior pituitary via Ca dependent exocytosis
-mostly unbound/free

cytokine receptor family- need to activate receptor by binding PRL, activates a tyrosine kinase called Janus Kinase, a special phosphorylating kinase

known as Signal Transducers and Activators of Transcription STATs

PRL binding to a PRL receptor activates a Janus kinase pathway
causes STATs, phosphorylation of STATs gets them transported to nucleus for transcription

AKA JAK-STAT receptor family
simple cascade of phosphorylation that results in regulation of gene transcription

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62
Q

prolactin effects on mammary gland

A

mammogenesis (growth of gland)

lactogenesis (prep of gland for prod)

galactopoiesis (synthesis of milk components)

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63
Q

prolactin regulation

A
primarily regulated by Dopamine from hypothalamus
inhibitory control (Gi)

also some TRH control that inc PRL (hypothyroidism)

during pregnancy- estrogens and progesterone regulate prolactin actions
stimulate mammogenesis but inhibit lactogeneis and galactopoiesis

Hypothalamus goes to pituitary to inc PRL, which then dec GnRH back on hypothalamus (therefore dec LH, FSH)

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64
Q

hypoprolactin

A

rare
consequence of low pituitary function

Sheehan’s syndrome- failure to lactate, ischemic infarct of pituitary from postpartum bleeding/hemorrhage

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65
Q

GH basics

A
AKA somatotrophin
(from GHRH)
most abundant pituitary hormone
structurally similar to PRL
half life 20-25min
6-8 discrete pulses/day
youth- most pronounced w/ onset of sleep

transported as mainly free hormone w/ little bound (like PRL)

when reaches target, binds to cytokine receptor family (like PRL)- mediates signaling through JAKSTAT

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66
Q

2 major effects of growth hormone

A

metabolic
need E sources that allow you to invest in growth

growth
need growth itself

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67
Q

GH actions

A

stimulates gluconeogensis
CRH to insulin
if there’s excess GH, it makes it diabetogenic
increases serum FAs by stimulating hormone sensitive lipase
stimulates AA uptake into muscle

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68
Q

GH growth effects

A

growth effects
mediated via IGF
-GH induces production of IGF, provides growth effects of GH
-need GH + insulin to make IGF

IGF acts on receptor, which is EGF-family of receptors, phosphorylation of insulin receptor substrate IRS

promotes long bone growth

increases muscle growth

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69
Q

regulation of GH

A

primary regulation comes from 2 hypothalamic hormones GHRH and Somatostatin (GHIH)

hypothalamus- pituitary- GH
GH has negative feedback to GHRH
GH secretion inhibited by glucose and somatostatin release via negative feedback

hypoglycemia powerfully stimulates GHRH and GH production
also serum AAs stimulates GHRH, acting as a stress hormone to give glucose to the brain

fed state: high glucose, high AAs, which will increase insulin and GH, which makes IGF

starved state: don’t want to invest any E resources into growth
have low glucose and low AAs
low insulin and low GH so no IGF production

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70
Q

GH dysregulation

hyper and hypo

A

hyperGH
tumor, chronic high level of GH for some reason
-high level of serum glucose that overrides insulin- diabetogenic, could get diabetes
also get excess IGF production
high GH before puberty= gigantism, cardiac hypertrophy, life expectancy 20s
high GH post puberty = acromegaly- tips of body; hands, feet, face; less severe cardiac hypertrophy, longer life expectancy

hypoGH
leads to dwarfism
Laron’s dwarfism- problem with GH receptors
African Pygmies- GH receptors are nl, but very poor IGF response

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71
Q

GH stimulation and suppression

A
stimulation:
sleep
low glucose
exercise
stress
puberty
high AA/protein
GHRH
glucagon
alpha-adrenergic
suppression
somatostatin
high glucose
aging
FFAs
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72
Q

Excess GH diseases

A
assess liver IGF-1
Dx 
elevated IGF-1 (GH fluctuates)
OGTT-GH for ambiguous or post-opp 
Pituitary MRI macro adenomas in >80%
acromegaly
GH excess after puberty (done w/ linear growth)
acral/facial changes
HA
hyperhidrosis
oligo/amenorrhea
OSA
HTN
dyslipidemia
parasthesias/carpal tunnel syndrome
impaired glucose tolerance/DM
tx
multi-modal/disciplinary
surgery
med tx (Somatostatin analog, GH receptor antagonist)
radiation

gigantism
GH excess before puberty (growth plates)

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73
Q

GH deficiency

A

assess liver IGF-1

14% decline per decade w/ age of adults

manifestations
body composition:
inc fat deposition, dec muscle mass/strength/exercise capacity 
bone loss and fracture risk
inc cholesterol levels
inc inflamm and prothrombotic markers (CRP)
impaired E and mood
hindered QOL

Adult-onset growth hormone deficiency AoHD
GH therapy still controversial- cost/benefit ratio; only modest benefits
Dx- low IGF-1 (setting of multiple other pit hormone deficiencies)
Provocative testing for GH reserve:
LIMITED REAGENTS
–insulin induced hypoglycemia (gold standard)
contraindications: elderly, seizures, CAD/cerebrovascular disease
–Arginine and glucagon stimulation tests

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74
Q

high prolactin

A

hypogonadism

physiological:
pregnancy, suckling, sleep, stress

pharmacological:
estrogens/OCPs
antipsychotics, TCAs antidepressants, anti-emetics (Reglan), opiates

Patho:
pituitary stalk interruption
hypothyroidism, chronic renal/liver failure, seizure
PROLACTINOMA

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75
Q

low prolactin

A

failed lactation

etiology: severe pituitary (lactotrope) destruction from any cause

present: failed lactation postpartum females
no known effect in males

Dx
low basal PRL level

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76
Q

high FSH/LH

A

rarely clinically evident
assess gonads for testosterone and estradiol

hypergonadotropic
-congenital anorchia
Klinefelter's syndrome
testicular injury
autoimmune testicular disease
glycoprotein tumor (rarely)

gonadotrope adenoma:
majority of tumors are clinically silent
rare presentation incl ovarian hyper-stimulation syndrome or macro-orchidism
-middle aged pts w/ macro adenomas and related mass effects (HAs, vision loss, cranial nerve palsies, and/or pituitary hormone deficiencies)

gonadotropinoma dx:
blood tests usually low FSH/LH, T/E2
pituitary MRI
immunohistochemical analysis of resected tumor

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77
Q

low FSH/LH

A

adrenal insufficiency
assess gonads for testosterone and estradiol

hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
hypothalamic/pituitary diseases:
-macro adenomas, prolactinomas, XRT
-isolated GnRH deficiency (Kallman’s = anosmia)
-Hemochromatosis
functional deficiency:
-critical illness, OSA, starvation, meds-opiates, glucocorticoids

hypogonadism in F:
anovulatory cycles (amenorrhea, infertility)
vaginal dryness, dyspareunia
hot flashes
dec libido
breast atrophy
reduced bone mineral density BMD

hypogonadism in M:
low libido
erectile dysfunction
oligospermia or azoospermia
infertility
low muscle mass, testicular atrophy and decreased BMD
hot flashes w/ acute and severe onset of hypogonadism

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78
Q

high TSH

A

hyperthyroidism
assess TSH and T3,T4

secondary:
thyrotropin secreting pituitary tumor- very rare <1%
thyroid hormone resistance (rare)

thyrotropinoma: central hyperthyroidism
AKA TSHoma
similar clinical presentation to primary hyperthyroidism (goiter, tremor, weight loss, heat intolerance, hair loss, diarrhea, irregular menses) but also w/ assoc mass effects (HAs, vision loss, loss of pituitary gland func) from macro adenoma

dx:
elevated free T4 and non-suppressed TSH
pituitary MRI >80% macro adenomas

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79
Q

low TSH

A

hypothyroidism
assess TSH and T3,T4

central TSH deficiency
etiology
pituitary/hypothalamic diseases and/or tx’s
critical illness/starvation-euthryoid sick syndrome
congenital defects (TSH-beta mutations, PROP1, POUF1 mutations), pediatric onset
drug induced supra physiologic steroids, dopamine, retinoids

clinical presentation: similar to primary hypothyroidism (fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, consitpation, hair loss, irregular menses). possible mass effects

dx
low free T4 levels in setting of low or nl TSH

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80
Q

high ADH

A

SIADH-
syndrome of inappropriate AVP release/action in absence of physiologic osmotic or hypovolemic stimulus
hallmark is excretion of inappropriately concentrated urine in setting of hypo-osmolality and hyponatremia
–SIADH is one of most frequent causes of hyponatremia, occurs 15-22% hospitalized pts, 5-7% ambulatory pts

etiologies
malignant disease
pulm disorder
CNS disorder
drugs (narcotics, nicotine, anti-psychotics, carbamazepine, vincristine)
misc- nausea, stress, pain

presentation
depends on severity and rapidity
neuro symptoms from osmotic fluid shifts and brain edema (SEVERE HYPONATREMIA)
(asymptomatic- anorexia, N/V, HA, irritable- altered sensorium, gait probs- seizure, coma, death)

dx criteria
Hyponatremai (Na <135) and hypotonic plasma (osmolality <275mOsm/kg)
inappropriate urine conc (urine osm >100!!) w/ nl renal function!!
euvolemic status!!! (no orthostatic hypotension)
exclusion of other potential causes of euvolemic hypo-osmolality (hypothyroidism, hypocortisolism)

tx
identify and reverse underlying cause
tx depends on severity
mild-moderate hyponatremia: water restriction, V2 receptor antagonists, salt tablets, urea, Lasix
Severe: (usually Na <120)
HYPERTONIC 3% saline if pt is symptomatic

rapid correction of hypotonic state (following rapid adaptation after water gain) will cause osmotic demyelination

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81
Q

low ADH

A

Diabetes Insipidus

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82
Q

ACTH

A

assess adrenal gland- cortisol and DHEA-S

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83
Q

hypothalamic-pituitary-target organ axis and defect nomenclature

A

peripheral:
primary disorder
target organ

central:

secondary disorder (pituitary gland)

tertiary disorder (hypothalamus)

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84
Q

Prolactinomas
basic
F vs M

A

most common functional pituitary adenoma 30-40%

F:M 10:1 median 34yo

F: galactorrhea, menstrual irregularity, infertility, impairs GnRH pulse generator
MICRO adenoma

M: galactorrhea, visual field abnormalities, HA, impotence, EOM paralysis, anterior pituitary malfunction
MACRO adenoma

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85
Q

Dx and Tx of prolactinoma

A

Dx
random PRL level
-usually correlates w/ tumor size
Pituitary MRI

Tx
Dopamine Agonists
Bromocriptine
start low and go slow
common side effects:
GI upset, nasal congestion, orthostatic dizziness
preferred only if planned pregnancy
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86
Q

cortisol function, production, timing, binding

A

catabolic stress hormone

primary functions:
gluconeogenesis
metabolism of fat and protein
control inflammatory rxns

ACTH acts on adrenal cortex to prod cortisol
episodic ACTH/cortisol secretions daily
major burst in early morning before awakening

most cortisol bound to transcortin (cortisol binding globulin CBG)
10% bound to Albumin
5% unbound/free

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87
Q

chronic cortisol excess

A
changes in carb, protein, and fat metabolism
-peripheral fat/muscle wasting
central obesity, moon facies, fat pads
osteoporosis
diabetes
hypertriglyceridemia

change in sex hormones
amenorrhea/infertility
F- hirsutism
impotence

salt and water retention
HTN and edema

impaired immunity

neurocognitivie changes

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88
Q

hypercortisolism

ACTH dependent vs ACTH independent

A

ACTH dependent
70-75%
corticotrope adenoma (Cushing’s disease)
ectopic cushing’s (ACTH/CRH tumors)

ACTH-independent
25-30%
adrenal adenomas
adrenal carcinoma
nodular hyperplasia (micro/macro)
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89
Q

Cushing’s syndrome
non-specific signs/symptoms
specific signs/symptoms

A

non-specific
obesity, fatigue, menstrual irregularities, hirsutism, HTN, glucose intolerance/DM, dyslipidemia, acne, anxiety/depression, peripheral edema, metabolic syndrome

specific
plethoric/moon facies
wide >1cm violaceious striae (abdominal/ axillary)
spontaneous ecchymoses
proximal muscle weakness
early/atypical osteoporosis (automatic rib fracture)

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90
Q

3 screening tests for Cushing’s Syndrome

A

Disrupted Circadian Rhythm
-midnight salivary or serum cortisol

increased filtered cortisol load
-24hr urine free cortisol

attenuated negative feedback
-low dose 1mg dexamethasone suppression test (late night)

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91
Q

pseudo-cushing’s disease

A

over activation of the HPA axis, without tumorous cortisol hyper secretion

severe depression/anxiety/OCD
severe obesity
OSA?
alcoholism
poorly-controlled DM/hypoglycemia
physical stress (Acute illness, surgery, pain)
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92
Q

central adrenal insufficiency

etiology
clinical presentation
basal tests
stimulation tests

A

etiologies of Central (secondary/tertiary) AI:

  • —-Suppression of the HPA axis
  • s/p tumor resection of Cushing (pituitary, ectopic, or adrenal)
  • supraphysiologic exogenous glucocorticoid use (most common)- prednisone use
  • drugs: opioids and menace
  • —-hypothalamus/pituitary diseases and their tx’s
  • —-other- isolated ACTH deficiency (very rare)
clinical presentation
fatigue, anorexia, N/V, weight loss
generalized malaise/aches
scant axillary/pubic hair (DHEA-S dependent in females)
hyponatremia and hypoglycemia

basal testing
random AM cortisol <3 dx; >18 nl

stimulation test
insulin-induced hypoglycemia (gold standard)- assesses entire hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal Axis
cosyntropin (synthetic ACTH) stimulation test- valid for assessing HPA only if prolonged- need time for adrenal atrophy

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93
Q

hypopituitarism

A

deficiency of 1 or more pituitary hormones
panhypopituitarism: loss of all pituitary hormones

etiologies:
congenital- genetic diseases (transcription factor mutations)
-acquired- pituitary lesions and/or tx’s 75%
macroadenomas/pituitary surgery/radiation therapy
infiltrative/infectious/granulomatous
TBI/subarachnoid hemorrhage
apoplexy
autoimmune hypophysitis-immune-tolerance disorders (anti-cytotoxic T lymphocyte antigen-4 CTLA-4, Ipilmumab)

clinical presentation
depends on severity of pituitary hormone deficiency and their rate of development
-generally similar presentation to target gland hormone deficiency, w/ some exceptions:
-primary adrenal insufficiency also presents w/ hyperkalemia from mineralocorticoid deficiency and hyper pigmentation from ACTH excess

dx
basal and dynamic testing

management
tx of anterior pit hormone deficiencies (end organ hormone replacement)

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94
Q

apoplexy

A

clinical syndrome of HA, vision changes, ophthalmoplegia, and AMS caused by sudden hemorrhage or infarction of pituitary gland
happens in ~10-15% pituitary adenomas
sub-clinical disease is more common

dx
pituitary MRI or CT

tx
emergency surgery indicated for evidence of severe vision loss, rapid clinical deterioration, or MS changes

!!stress dose steroids for adrenal insufficiency

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95
Q

ADH deficiency

A

common w/ metastatic tumors (breast, lung, GI) or craniopharyngiomas, but not pituitary adenomas

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96
Q

management of hypopituitarism

A

-thyroid: multiple L-thyroxine’s available

adrenal: hydrocortisone or prednisone
- -medic alert bracelet, sick day rules for glucocorticoid replacement
- -no mineralocorticoid replacement needed

gonadal
various oral/transdermal E2 formulations, transdermal/IM testosterone
gonadotropin or pulsatile GnRH therapy

GH
subcutaneous shots (NOT orally active)

prolactin
SQ formulation, research purposes only

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97
Q

posterior pituitary gland

A

releases ADH and oxytocin

clinical syndromes primarily assoc w/ disorders of AVP (arginine vasopressin) = ADH
release controlled primarily by high-osmolar states (via hypothalamic osmoreceptors)

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98
Q

volume regulation of ADH

A

release also controlled by hypovolemia via baroreceptors

MOA of ADH
V1- vascular vasoconstriction, plt aggregation
V2- antidiuretic effects in kidney
-adenylate cyclase activation –> movement of aquaporin water channels to the cell membrane –> water reabs

regulation of ADH release:
high plasma osmolality (dehydration)- more ADH release (less water excretion), more thirst, and more water intake
= more water retention
= decreases plasma osmolality (hydration)

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99
Q

osmotic demyelination syndrome

A

hyponatremia complication

dysarthria/dysphagia
lethargy/obtundation
paralysis/locked-in syndrome

reducing risk:
limit correction of chronic (>48hrs) hyponatremia:
<=12mmol in the 1st 24hrs
slower correction w/ other risk factors (hypokalemia, alcoholism, poor nutritional status)
——NO LIMITATIONS w/ acute onset hyponatremia (<48hr onset, marathon runners)
——-quickly give hypertonic saline to normalize them

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100
Q

Diabetes insipidus DI

A

syndrome of hypotonic polyuria as a result of either:
inadequate ADH secretion
inadequate renal response to ADH

hallmark- voluminous dilute urine ESP nocturia

main causes
central DI
nephrogenic DI
pregnancy- increased ADH metabolism from placental vasopressinase, but generally not clinically relevant
primary polydipsia: relates to osmoreceptors, not really an ADH problem!!!

clinical significance
can lead to severe dehydration if thirst mech’s are impaired, or if pt has limited access to water

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101
Q

Nephrogenic vs neurogenic DI

A

nephrogenic DI
congenital X linked AVP V2 receptor mutation
drugs: demeclocycline, lithium, amphotericin B
electrolyte abnormalities: hypokalemia and hypercalcemia
infiltrative kidney diseases: sarcoidosis and amyloidosis
vascular disease: sickle cell anemia

neurogenic DI
neoplasms: craniopharyngioma, metastatic pituitary disease
idiopathic
congenital defect: auto dom AVP gene mutation
inflamm/infectious/granuloma pituitary diseases
trauma/vascular event

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102
Q

post-op/trauma related DI

A

classic triphasic response

primary phase:
DI-polyuric phase due to axonal shock/decreased AVP release (1-5 days)
—-impaired ADH release!!!!

secondary phase: SIADH from degenerating neurons/excessive AVP release (days 6-11)

tertiary phase: permanent DI after depleted ADH stores and if >80% AVP neuronal cell death

  • permanent DI is uncommon complication w/ experienced surgeon
  • —isolated second SIADH phase- more common (~25%)
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103
Q

outpatient DI diagnosis

A

confirm polyuria w/ 24hr urine vol collection (normalized to creatinine)

exclude hyperglycemia (osmotic diuresis), renal insufficiency, and electrolyte disturbances (K/Ca)

assess urine and plasma osmolalities

consider water deprivation test

pituitary imaging for suspected neurogenic DI- BRIGHT SPOT on post pituitary makes it very UNLIKELY you have neurogenic DI

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104
Q

water deprivation test

A

fluid restriction to stimulate ADH release

measure urine Osm, Posm, serum Na, and urine output

urine conc response to dDAVP

+/- ADH level after mild dehydration

neurogenic DI will have very low plasma VP
psych will have middle plasma VP
nephrogenic DI will have super high plasma VP

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105
Q

central DI treatment

A

ADH replacements:
first line- dDAVP
-longer half life than ADH
no vasopressor effect (don’t have to worry about HTN spikes)

second line: ADH

goals:
resolution of polyuria/polydipsia
-minimal disruption of sleep/daily routine
normal serum Na

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106
Q

sella region masses overview

A

all are surgical candidates
WHO grade 1
grow locally, but ability to recapitulate in a dysregulated neoplastic manner and be hyper functioning w/ excess hormone
optic chasm and dura (HAs) are nearby, so visual/HA symptoms are common
bell-shaped curve for age of dx- most are middle aged

85% of sellar region masses are pituitary adenomas (WHO grade 1)

most common or rare masses closely mimic pituitary adenomas on imaging and mimic the mass effects/visual disturbances

ALL except craniopharyngiomas (2 peaks- 5-15yo and middle aged) predominately affect middle aged adults

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107
Q

anterior and posterior pituitary histology

A

TTF-1 staining shows posterior pituitary and anterior are very different (posterior pink; anterior dark purple w/ pink blobs)

anterior:
nesting pattern, dark purple w/ pink blobs
highly vascularized (helpful for endocrine func)

posterior:
hormones transported via neurons
not highly vascularized

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108
Q

pituitary adenoma

A

micro adenoma <1cm
macro adenoma >1cm
well-demarcated
gives promise to being surgically resectable
do NOT invade and occlude blood vessels
they can infiltrate nerves (eye movement, esp CN6- diplopia)

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109
Q

invasive pituitary marcoadenoma

A

> 95% pituitary tumors are sporadic (<5% familial)
ID of inherited pituitary syndromes is important because associated pathologies
-pituitary tumors might be presenting feature
-4 genes w/ familial pituitary tumor syndrome: MEN1, CDKN1B, PRKAR1A, AIP

up to 20% of pts w/ clinical features of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 do not have a mutation in MEN1; these pts might have mutations in CDKN1B or other genes not yet identified
AIP has been ID’ed as a mutated gene in pts w/ familial isolated pituitary adenomas, particularly those who have adenomas that secrete GH

features that suggest an inherited pituitary tumor syndrome incl:
parathyroid tumors, pancreatic endocrine tumors, atrial myxomas, lentigines, Schwann-cell tumors (Carney complex), FHx and young age at onset

—FHx and multiplicity of tumors and/or early onset are suggestive of a genomic syndrome
but most of the time they’re sporadic

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110
Q

pituitary blastoma

A

related to DICER1 mutation
almost always ACTH ICH(+)

pediatric/young adults occasionally get pituitary adenomas and this population is enriched for syndromic examples
–very rare infantile pituitary masses are a different entity: pituitary blastoma

almost all other pituitary adenomas are SPORADIC
-incidental pituitary adenomas are very common at autopsy and neuroimaging

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111
Q

abnormal pituitary adenoma

A

will shed a bunch of monomorphic cells onto the slide- unregulated, unchecked, ruined the pituitary histo pattern– reticulin disruption (destroyed acinar patterns)

a nl gland will keep its reticulin look

workup of pituitary adenoma incl H&E, RETICULIN, SYNAPTOPHYSIN, and a bunch of others

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112
Q

lineage of pituitary tumors

A

all start w/ same lineage
Rathke pouch stem cell–>
then delineate based on transcription factors

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113
Q

ACTH adenomas

A

85% of ACTH adenomas are micro adenomas and often missed on imaging

most prolactinomas in premenopausal women are microadenomas

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114
Q

non-secretors/weak secretors pituitary tumors

A

generally present w/ symptoms of mass effects
most often gonadotroph adenoma(need to do hormone stains to know- single cell population- presence of FSH/LSH)

present w/
HAs
visual field defects (medial/inferior chasm compression– causing bitemporal hemianopsia)
CN palsies (ptosis/eyelid droop)
diplopia (double vision)
pituitary hormone deficits (panhypopituitarism)
rarely: stroke, seizure, CSF leak

((prolactinomas are most common pituitary adenoma))

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115
Q

hormone negative pituitary adenoma

A

clinically nonfunctioning AND show now IHC(+) for the hormones GH, PRL, FSH, LH, TSH, ACTH
most of these are SF-1 (+), indicating gonadotroph lineage

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116
Q

GH adenoma

densely granulated and sparsely granulated

A

densely granulated growth hormone cells- monotony of population
—responds well to drugs

sparsely granulated GH adenoma
-keritnated balling up into fibrous body
doesn’t respond well to drugs
docs go right to 2nd line treating morbidity and mortality from excess GH

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117
Q

mixed pituitary adenoma

A

something that makes a mix of 2 hormones
ex. mixed GH-PRL adenoma
has both prolactin and GH overproductions

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118
Q

prolactinoma

A

symptomatic in pre-menopausal women
men often present w/ megasymptoms

amenorrhea
galactorrhea
symptoms may be subtle, and presentation is often to OBGYN doc
cause is unknown but not related to use of OCPs

impotence in men (often longstanding, tumors almost always macro adenomas, sometimes giant >4cm)

depends on specific high fidelity immunostains to make the dx

MIB1 is a pseudo marker for cells in cycle except resting phase (0)

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119
Q

acidophil stem cell adenoma

A

usually presents w/ prolactinemia but discordance between large size of adenoma and relatively modest serum PRL elevation

aggressive, need to follow closely

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120
Q

ACTH/ corticotrophin adenoma

A

excess cortisol secretion
causes Cushing’s

densely granulated type- difficult workup

sparsely granulated type- often huge, invasive, macro adenoma

morphological proof of elevated cortisol levels- CROOKE CELLS in adjacent non tumorous anterior gland

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121
Q

frequency of seller region masses

A

PITUITARY ADENOMAS

craniopharyngiomas
hypophysitis
spindle cell oncocytomas

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122
Q

frequency of seller region masses

A

PITUITARY ADENOMAS

craniopharyngiomas
hypophysitis
spindle cell oncocytomas

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123
Q

craniopharyngioma,

adamantinomatous and papillary

A

adamantinomatous:
complex, multi cystic tumor
causes mass-effect symptoms

own set of genetics- WNT pathway, downstream gives rise to beta-catenin

low-grade tumor, but still huge area for targeted therapies because they’re in a bad place and don’t respond well to radiation or chemo

papillary:
much less common, more likely in adults
you have a stain that diagnoses this
well developed target therapy- anti-BRAF

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124
Q

pituicytoma

A

from posterior pituitary

looks similar to a pituitary adenoma, but TTF1 staining/marker makes the diagnosis

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125
Q

metastatic breast carcinoma to anterior pituitary gland

A

metastasis is not common, but most commonly happens via breast cancer

estrogen receptor is positive in the metastatic breast cancer

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126
Q

GH tumor treatment goals

A
control tumor growth mass effects
preserve nl residual pituitary function
prevent recurrences
relieve symptoms
control GH and IGF-1 hypersecretion- GOAL GH is <1ng/mL!!
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127
Q

general treatment of pituitary tumors

A

medical therapy
prolactinomas- FIRST LINE IS MEDS
GH secreting tumors (usually after surgical debulk)

surgery- FIRST LINE for all except prolactin-secreters
radiation
careful observation

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128
Q

2 surgical approaches for pituitary tumors

A

depends on surgeon preference

transnsasal microscopic approach
2-D

transnasal endoscopic approach
3-D

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129
Q

risks of pituitary tumor surgery

A

post-op spinal fluid leakage
-requires placement of spinal drain w/ increased hospital stay to 4-5 days

diabetes insipidus

  • injury to the posterior pit gland w/ inability to concentrate urine
  • requires use of DDAVP
  • usually transient; 2-3 days after surgery

injury to optic nerves

injury to carotid artery (stroke)

injury to normal pituitary gland (usually firmer than cottage cheese tumor)

chronic sinusitis

meningitis (very low risk, even w/ spinal fluid leak)

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130
Q

GH pharm basics

A

AKA somatropin
decreased by somatostatin and paradoxically decreased by dopamine agonists in acromegaly
increased by GHRH, exercise, hypoglycemia, Dopamine, L-dopa, Arginine, Ghrelin

works indirectly
stimulates IGF-1 synthesis in growth plate cartilage and liver- linear and skeletal muscle growth
IGF-1 feeds bad to hypothalamus to increase somatostatin to inhibit anterior pituitary prod of GH

produces anabolic and metabolic effects-
positive N balance, lipolysis –> high FFA and glucose
MOA- JAK/STAT pathway to alter gene expression

can’t be given orally

t1/2 25 min
peak levels in 2-4 hrs
active levels persist 36 hrs

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131
Q

PRL pharm basic-

A

inhibited by DA

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132
Q

ADH pharm basics

A
ADH~=~ vasopressin 
ADH acts on V2 (Gs)
vasopressin acts on V1 (Gq)
CNS= DDAVP
kidney: increase fluids, HCTZ, NSAIDs
inc ADH= SIADH, dec fluids, V2 antagonists, 3% NaCl soln
decreased in DI
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133
Q

applications of hypothalamic-pituitary hormones

A
hypofunction management- 
hormone replacement (PHYSIOLOGIC) therapy

hyper function management-
suppression of hormone synthesis or effect (non hormonal agents)

control of non-endocrine disorders:
drug therapy for variety of diseases using PHARMACOLOGIC doses

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134
Q

GH/Somatropin drug uses

A

GH deficiency
replacement therapy in children
daily at bedtime SC injection or sustained release for weekly SC injection
$10-50k per yr

GH insensitive deficiency
GH receptor mutation- Laron dwarf
tx w/ recombinant IGF-1 called Mecasermin
–concern w/ hypoglycemia, so carb intake prior to SC injection

children w/ idiopathic short stature- controversial
response to GH is highly variable, psych evidence, and cost

other uses
Poor growth- Turner Syndrome, Prader-Willi Syndrome, Chronic Renal Insufficiency

tx of wasting or cachexia in AIDS pts

pts w/ short bowel syndrome dependent on TPN

off-label (NOT FDA approved)

  • athletes for muscle mass/performance
  • stacked AAs to stimulate GH release
  • anti-aging
  • increased rates of adverse events (edema, MSK pain, carpal tunnel, skin numbness/tingling), may inc growth of pre-malignant cells and inc possibility of DM

hGH is exception among drugs in that off-label use has been deemed illegal- should not be recommended

  • generally safe in children
  • adults- insulin resistance and glucose intolerance; idiopathic intracranial HTN (pseudo motor cerebra), pancreatitis, gynecomastia, nevus growth, misuse in athletes (acromegaly, arthropathy, extremity enlargement, visceromegaly)
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135
Q

Growth hormone releasing hormone GHRH pharmacology

A

comes from hypothalamus to stimulate anterior pituitary to prod GH
(binds to GPCR coupled to Gs–> increases cAMP and Ca levels in somtotrophs)
((Ghrelin also stimulates GH release via different GPCR))

GHRH analog: Tesamorelin!

  • –use in HIV pts w/ lipodystrophy 2ndary to use of highly active retroviral therapy (HAART)
  • -reduces excess abdominal fat

no PO

potential use for children w/ idiopathic GH deficiency

adverse effects: rare, facial flushing, antibody formation w/ continued use
-potentially fewer side effects

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136
Q

Somatostatin SST pharmacology

A

released by hypothalamus to inhibit anterior pituitary from producing GH
receives positive feedback from IGF-1

inhibits GH release via GPCR coupled to Gi/o, decreasing cAMP levels and activating K channels

decreases secretion of gastric enzymes and acid

  • dec GI motility
  • suppresses 5HT and peptide release

reduces insulin and glucagon release
-complex effects on blood glucose

interferes w/ TSH release via action on TRH

t1/2 3-4 min- limited therapeutic usefulness

octreotide t1/2 90min (12hrs)
give SC every 6-12 hrs

octreotide
give IM every 4 weeks

lanreotide
give SC every 4 weeks

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137
Q

Somatostatin pituitary uses

A

pituitary uses
excess of of GH- acromegaly and gigantism
surgical resection when possible

long-acting analog Lanreotide preferred drug therapy

Dopamine agonists
inhibit GH secretion in some pts
-not as effective as SST analogs-
Cabergoline!! is preferred get for adjuvant management as DA agonist (oral)

GH receptor antagonist-
Pegvisomant
mutated GH molec- polymers attached to extend t1/2
single daily dose admin SC

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138
Q

somatostatin non-pituitary uses

A

octreotide:
control bleeding from esophageal varies and GI hemorrhage
-direct action on vascular smooth muscle to constrict splanchnic arterioles
-fewer side effects than vasopressin

GI indications:
carcinoid tumors, VIP-secreting tumors, glucagonoma, gastronome

symptoms of WHDA syndrome (watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, achlorhydria)

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139
Q

Somatostatin adverse rxns

A

transient deterioration in glucose tolerance
HYPERGLYCEMI
then subsequent improvement

abdominal cramps, loose stools

cardiac effects incl sinus brady and conduction disturbances

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140
Q

Prolactin pharm

A

prolactin release is under inhibitory control by hypothalamic Dopamine at D2 receptors

main stimulus for release is suckling- 10-100 fold inc within 30min
stimulates milk prod w/ appropriate levels of insulin, estrogens, progestins, and corticosteroids
stimulates proliferation and differentiation of mammary tissue during pregnancy

inhibits gonadotropin FSH/LH release and/or ovarian response to these hormones (via dec GnRH release)
-relates to lack of ovulation during breastfeeding

uses:
hypoprolactinemia- NO preparation commercially available

hyperprolactinemia- ex prolactinomas (pituitary adenomas that are MOST amenable to pharmacotherapy)
-symptoms of galactorrhea and amenorrhea

Dopamine agonists are avaialbe that decrease both secretion and tumor size
-all available as ORAL preparations

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141
Q

Dopamine agonists for hyperprolactinemia

A

Cabergoline
preferred agent
more selective for D2 receptor and more effective in reducing prolactin secretion
better tolerated (less nausea, some hypotension, and dizziness)
-concern w/ higher doses and valvular heart disease (agonist action at 5HT2b receptors)

Bromocriptine
prototype of long-standing use
-Ergot derivative that also activates D1 receptors
-frequent side effects! incl N/V, HA, postural hypotension, and less frequently psychosis or insomnia

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142
Q

ADH-Vasopressin pharm

A

released from hypothalamus
critical control of body water via cells in distal nephron and collecting tubules
main stimulus for release is rising blood osmolality
-also released in response to decrease in circulating blood vol
-release can be inhabited by ethanol

renal actions mediated by V2 receptors (GPCRs coupled to Gs)

  • increase rate of insertion of aquaporins
  • increases water perm- leading to antidiuretic effect
  • also activates urea transporters and increases Na transport in distal nephron
  • nocturnal enuresis (oral dDAVP)

non-renal V2 actions
coagulation factor VII and von Willebrand’s factor- elevates levels of Von Willebrand factor (via IV desmopressin)
-tx for moderate hemophilia A- elevates factor 8 levels (via IV desmopressin)

Vasopressin-
acts at V1 receptors- GPCRs coupled to Gq (increase Ca)
-mediates vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle
-attenuates pressure and bleeding in esophageal varies via vasoconstriction of splanchnic arterioles ((((Octreotide is better tolerated and now preferred agent if drug used w/ or w/o endoscopy))))
-used as a vasopressor for tx of pts w/ SEVERE SEPTIC SHOCK
-Pressor (constriction) responses occur only at much higher Cp than needed for physiological antiduiresis

admin parenterally (not PO)
t1/2 20min

Desmopressin DDAVP-
ADH analog that is more stable to degradation
t1/2 1.5-2.5hrs
also an option for nocturnal enuresis (children)

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143
Q

posterior pituitary disease pharm for central DI

A

hypofunction:
central (neurogenic) DI
inadequate ADH secretion from post pit

Desmopressin is tx of choice
—-1-2% bioavailability orally (+side effects); most pts tolerate nasal (minimal side effects); SC-IV and oral have side effects

Chlorpropamide (1st gen sulfonylurea)
potentiates action of small/residual amounts of ADH (MOA not clear)
-option for pts intolerant to desmopressin (side effects or allergy)

other options:
Carbamazepine, Clofibrate (not US), thiazides, NSAIDs

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144
Q

posterior pituitary disease pharm for peripheral DI

A

hypofunciton:
peripheral (nephrogenic) DI

inadequate ADH actions- congenital (aquaporin mutations) or drug-induced

Drug-induced causes
—–Lithium-
reduces V2 receptor stimulation of adenylyl cyclase (ADR in 20-40% bipolar pts on Li)
—–Demeclocyline (tetracycline antibiotic)
MOA not understood- block of ADH binding to receptor

treatment
fluids, low salt, low protein diet

Thiazide diuretics: paradoxically reduces polyuria

  • MOA not understood but antidiuretic effect parallels ability to cause natriuresis
  • low vol –> high Na-H2O at PCT –> low H2O at CT

NSAIDs (indomethacin): Prostaglandins attenuate ADH-induced antidiuresis- inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis may relate to enhance antidiuretic response

thiazide and indomethacin can be used in combination

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145
Q

posterior pituitary hyperfunction pharm

A

SIADH
incomplete suppression of ADH secretion under hypoosmolar conditions–> hyponatremia (not enough Na excretion)

drug classes most commonly implicated in SIADH:
psychotropic agents: SSRIs, haloperidol, TCADs
sulfonylureas (chlorpropamide)
vinca alkaloids (chemotherapy)
methylenedioxymethamphetamine MDMA (ecstasy)

tx of hyponatremia:

restriction of free water intake (conservative measure)

V2 receptor antagonists
-therapeutic advance for hyponatremia- also tried in HF

Demeclocycline:
inhibits ADH effect on distal tubule
preferred drug in pts w/ inadequate response to conservative measures

Tolvaptan- oral, limited use by cost, hepatotoxicity, inc thirst)

Conivaptan- IV, useful in hospitalized SIADH pts
-given w/ hypertonic 3% saline if severe symptomatic hyponatremia–> more rapid correction

warning against TOO RAPID of hyponatrmeia correction–> cerebellar pontine myelinolysis–> fatalities!!! (DeMasters published this paper)

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146
Q

cholesterol hormone pathways

A

cholesterol–> pregnenalone

pregnenalone–> aldosterone

pregnanlone–> (17-alphahydroxylase)–> 17-OH-pregnenalone –> (17,20-lysae)–> dehydroepiadnosterone DHEA

17-OH-pregnenolone–> cortisol

DHEA–> sex steroids

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147
Q

cortisol info and its effects

A
major stress hormone in body- released into blood
steroid hormone (lipid soluble)
prod in Zona fasciculata

> 90% cortisol exists in bound form to CBG (cortisol binding globin)
(free matters)

HS90 (heat shock 90) binds w/ cortisol inside cell
then HS90 dissociates,
then you have cortisol + receptor get transported into the nucleus, change DNA, and regulate gene expression
—effects of cortisol are delayed but longer lasting

metabolic effects
-glucose for E source to combat stress; increase in glycolysis in an indirect way- permissive effects on EPI (presence of cortisol enhances EPI effects on glycogenolysis and lipid metabolism); or gluconeogenesis, CRR for insulin

  • fatty acids- hormone sensitive lipase- permissive forEPI; causes centripetal distribution of fat (removes extremity and deposits fat on trunk)- moon facies and buffalo hump
  • protein- break down protein to prod AAs from skeletal muscle
other effects
-circulatory sys- RBC production-
inc cortisol causes polycythemia
dec cortisol causes anemia
permissive for EPI, and up regulates beta adrenergic receptors

fibroblasts- inc cortisol will inhibit fibroblast proliferation and cortisol synthesis

bone- cortisol is a Vit D antagonists; inhibits Ca abs, prolonged elevation of cortisol can lead to osteoporosis

anti-inflammatory P lipase A2–> arachidonic acid –> PGs and THX
wound response: PGs and leukotrienes and fibroblasts contribute to wound healing
cortisol is inhibitor of phospholipase C so you don’t reach arachidonic acid
cortisol also inhibits fibroblast proliferation (which is supposed to seal off wound form rest of body)— run serious risk of getting infections in wound

immunosuppression-
cortisol inhibits T cell proliferation and activation

148
Q

cortisol regulation

A

primary regulation from hypothalamus–> CRH–> pituitary–> ACTH –> adrenal gland –> cortisol

cortisol has strong negative feedback on hypothalamus
-key hormone in this pathway for regulation is ACTH

ACTH is produced as a pre hormone called proopiomelanocortin POMC
based on the kind of cleavage of POMC, you release different hormones, incl ACTH
ACTH acts on adrenal cortex to control its functions- generalized control over cortex, but its regulation is primarily to cortisol
-cell numbers, adrenocortical enzymes

149
Q

addison’s disease

A

adrenal cortex hypofunction
-autoimmune adrenal atrophy (primary chronic adrenal insufficiency)

low cortisol
high ACTH (trying to compensate for low cortisol)
low aldosterone (low production from adrenal)
not much sexual dysfunction (controlled by gonads)- JFK had Addison's disease lol
150
Q

secondary hypo function of adrenal cortex

A

problem with pituitary
low cortisol
low ACTH (there’s the problem)
same/nl aldo (adrenal gland isn’t damaged)

151
Q

primary, secondary, tertiary problem w/ cortisol hyperfunction

A
primary- Cushing syndrome
high cortisol (adrenal problem)
low ACTH (trying to slow down cortisol)

secondary- pituitary tumor (Cushing Disease)
high cortisol
high ACTH (from pituitary)
normal aldo (still being controlled by RAAS)

tertiary- exogenous Cushing’s

152
Q

adrenal medulla chromaffin cells

A

chromaffin cells- prod EPI, stored in vesicles, released by calcitosis

tyrosine –> (tyrosine hydroxylase) –> L-DOPA–> (AA decarboxylase) –> Dopamine –> into vesicle via VMAT1

in the vesicle, DA gets converted to NE via dopamine beta hydroxylase
the NE is transported from vesicle back to cytosol and converted back to EPI via PNMT
then EPI is pumped back into vesicle
–in the vesicle, 90% is EPI, small amount is NE, so the main hormone released from chromaffin cells is EPI

release of EPI from chromaffin cells is via Splanchnic nerve
-splanchnic nerve releases ACh onto chromaffin cells that triggers the EPI release
ACH acts on nicotinic and/or muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

-Nicotinic- ligand gated; cationic channel
channel opens and lies in mainly Na, some Ca influx too
depo cell
Ca then drives Ca-dependent exocytosis to release EPI
very fast

Muscarinic- GPCR Gq
-Gq pathway- prod IP3, acts on IP3 receptors on ER, releases Ca from ER
longer lasting, but slower acting

tougher, both of them raise cyto-Ca sufficiently to cause Ca-dependent exocytosis

153
Q

EPI actions

A

from chromaffin cell vesicles

when EPI reaches target- acts on 2 receptors:

alpha adrenergic receptors

  • alpha1- coupled to Gq- inc PLC- inc Ca, PKC (protein kinase C)
  • alpha2- couple to Gi- decrease cAMP

beta adrenergic receptors
GPCRs, stimulate Gs to prod adenylylate cyclase, which increases cAMP to inc protein kinase
-beta1, beta2, beta3

EPI through beta adrenergic receptors gives you:
inc glucose, primarily activated by glycogenolysis
inc FFAs- stimulate hormone-sensitive lipase
-net decrease insulin release via alpha2 receptors
-allows you to provide a lot more serum glucose available to pump into skeletal muscle/other tissue during times of stress

stress goes to 2 places:
hypothalamus- prod CRH- ACTH- cortisol (long term stress)
-through activation of splanchnic nerve- EPI (immediate response to stress- CV function, E sourceS)

Locus ceruleus - prod NE (inc attn, arousal, aggressiveness)

154
Q

thyroid hormone TH

basic structures

A

tyrosine derived hormone that behaves differently- it’s between a peptide and steroid hormone
-ether makes it a lot more hydrophobic so it acts like a steroid hormone

skeletal molec known as thyronine- 2 tyrosine residues linked by ether

the skeletal molec is iodinated to form thyroid hormone

  • 4 possible positions 3,5,3’,5’= tetraiodo thyronine (T4)- pro hormone
  • 3,5,3’ = triodo thyronine (T3)- active
  • 3,3’,5’= reverse T3- inactive

need tyrosine and iodine source to make TH
external source of iodine- trace element present in water
-taken up by thyroid gland to make TH
-Thyroid needs to be efficient in sampling iodine and taking it up because of its relatively small amount (hence all the vasculature)
(developing countries with bad water have thyroid problems)

155
Q

thyroid hormone TH synthesis

A

making the hormone:
all the action relies on follicle cell in thyroid gland (vs the C cells that prod calcitonin)

iodine process:
follicle cell: iodine from blood is taken up via Na/I symporter
Na then gets pumped out in Na/K ATPase
iodine taken to luminal side of cell/gland where it binds to enzyme thyroperoxidase TPO
converted to active iodide, ready to be transferred to tyrosine residues
30x more iodine in these cells compared to blood- follicle cells act as a iodide trap

tyrosine proces:
tyrosine residues come from thyroglobulin hormone TG (a protein make in the follicle)
TG secreted into lumen of gland at very high conc’s so that TG forms a suspension (colloid of lumen)
TPO already has active iodide on it, so then it transfers iodide to tyrosine to make iodinated tyrosines onto the TG proteins
TPO then forms ether link between the iodinated tyrosine residues (T4,T3)
hormone is still bound to TG molec, so in the lumen there’s no free hormone
now the new TG molec is endocytosed into the follicle cell where it’s taken up by lysosomes
gets degraded into its individual components:
get T3,T4, reverse T3, AAs, iodotyrosines, etc
T3,T4 then get transported out into the bloodstream to be used

156
Q

TH levels in the blood

A

ether bond makes TH act like a steroid hormone

-when carried in the blood, TH + THBG TH-THBG
over 99% is in bound form

if you increase THBG conc in the blood, the total TH levels will also increase
free TH levels will be maintained
–free TH levels always controlled within a set point
–important concept to remember for all steroid hormones (incl TH)
–free level is what is important

TH that’s carried in blood reaches target cell, taken into cell via transport mech

T4–> T3 via monoiodinase

T3 transported to nucleus, binds to TH receptors to act as transcription modifiers

157
Q

TH function

A

BMR regulation via TH
reflects balance of all anabolic/catabolic processes in body

low T3–> shift balance to anabolism
–predict low E production, excess weight, cold intolerance (not enough heat prod)

high T3–> shift balance to catabolism
–prod excess E, heat intolerance, lose weight

role in development
TH is critical, esp in early development
early TH test when baby is born
-luckily, early supplementation seems to reset development to nl
-if it’s ignored for a while, you get severe developmental delays- growth and mental
—need nl TH levels to get nl levels of other hormones, etc

permissive for beta adrenergic effects
-cardiac tissue, hyperthyroidism = tachy, low= brady

brain development
psychological functions and susceptibility to other mental illnesses
–depression test- check TSH levels

158
Q

regulation of TH

A

hypothalamus –> pituitary –> thyroid

TRH–> TSH –> T3–> feedback regulation to TRH

key regulation hormone is TSH

  • clinical point of view- the hormone is always used to test thyroid hormone levels
  • not enough free TH to get a good reading
  • TSH acts on thyroid gland to essentially control all functions of thyroid gland
  • –growth of #follicle cells is regulated by TSH
  • -regulates all components of thyroid hormone synthesis- transporters, TPO, TG
  • -organification of iodide- putting free iodide onto a protein
159
Q

thyroid dysfunction basics
hypo vs hyperthyroidism
primary and secondary

A

hypothyroidism

primary:
Hashimoto thyroiditis = autoimmune destruction of thyroid gland
-low T3 (where the destruction is)
high TSH (trying to compensate and make more T3)

secondary:
Hypopituitarism
low T3 (not being stimulated enough)
low TSH (where the problem is)

hyperthyroidism
primary:
Graves disease
high T3 (unchecked production)
low TSH + TSI!!! (thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins- autoantibodies against the TSH receptor)

secondary:
pituitary disorder
high T3
high TSH (not responding to the negative feedback signal)

160
Q

thyroid dysfucntion- what causes Type 1 or Type 2 deiodinase to not function

A

Type 1/2 deiodinase takes T4–> 3,5,3’ T3

this doesn't work during:
starvation
severe illness
severe stress
neonatal period
glucocorticoids
Propanolol
Amiodaraone
Amiodarone*
Radiocontrast dyes

so T4–> shunted to reverse T3 via Type 3 deiodinase

161
Q

T4 and T3 number info

A

serum total T4 = bound + free

total T4 = 4-12microg/dL

free T4 = 0.02% = 0.8-1.8nanog/dL

99.98% T4 is bound/inactive to:
TBG, TPBA, Albumin

half life = 7 days

T3
serum total T3 = bound + free

total T3 - 80-180 nanog/dL

free T3 = 0.2% = 1-4 picog/mL

99.8% T3 is bound/inactive/cannot enter cells:
TBG, Albumin

half life = 1 day

162
Q

causes of increased total T4 and total T3
causes of increased free T4 and free T3

causes of decreased total for free T4 and T3

A
increased TOTAL:
hyperthryoidism/thyrotoxicosis
increased binding proteins!!! 
--estrogen
thyroid hormone resistance 

increased FREE:
hyperthryoidism/thyrotoxicosis
thyroid hormone resistance
–binding protein issues are NOT important here

hypothyroidism
decreased serum protein binding
euthyroid sick syndrome (nonthryoidal illness)
drugs
liver or kidney disease (total T4, total T3)

163
Q

TSH testing

A

TSH is the SINGLE BEST test to screen for thyroid dysfunction
–TSH stimulates iodine uptake into thyroid follicular cells and TH production

elevated in primary hypothyroidism (lack of negative feedback by TH)

suppressed in primary hyperthyroidism (excess negative feedback by TH)

when you cannot rely on TSH:
abnormal pituitary
-ex. panhypopituitarism, TSHoma, idiopathic central hypothyroidism

164
Q

symptoms of

Hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism

A
Hyperthyroidism:
nervousness
weight loss
inc appetite (4% have dec appetite)
fatigue
tremor
heat intolerance
others: palpitations, hyperdefacation, insomnia, diaphoresis
hypothyroidism:
mental slowness
weight gain
dec appetite (2% inc appetite)
fatigue
muscle cramps
cold intolerance
others: brady, constipation, hypersomnia, dry skin
165
Q

diagnosis of hyperthyroidism or thyrotoxicosis

A

overt:
low TSH
high Free T4
(high free T3)

subclinical:
low TSH
nl free T4
(nl free T3)

DO NOT order free T3 levels

if serum TSH is nl, pt is “euthyroid”
–RARE exceptions incl TSH-producing tumor, thyroid hormone resistance

166
Q

thyrotoxicosis specifics- how to tell if it’s also true hyperthyroidism

A

thyrotoxicosis:
high levels of circulating TH, which is SUGGESTIVE of hyperthyroidism

could be caused by:

overproduction of T4 and T3 = hyperthyroidism

no overproduction, but HIGH RELEASE of preformed/stored T4 and T3 (not true hyperthyroidism)

do a radio labeled iodine-123 test for thyroid uptake

TSH stimulates thyroid to take up iodine and synthesize T4 and T3

in thyrotoxicosis, TSH should be low (hypothalamus and pituitary sense elevated T4 and T3 levels, and secretion of TRH and TSH is suppressed)

–if TSH is suppressed, there should be no uptake of iodine!!!! but still having a thyroid excess in this case is due to high release of PREFORMED thyroid hormone (not true hyperthyroidism)— THYROIDITIS

  • -a normal or high level of iodine uptake in the setting of low TSH is abnl and indicates autonomous production of TH—- this is a true hyperthyroid state!!
  • pattern gives info on etiology (Graves vs hot nodule vs multi nodular goiter)
167
Q

etiology of hyperthyroidism:

A

high iodine uptake (true) hyperthyroidism:
****Thyrotropin receptor antibody
**** —Graves disease!! (or hashitoxicosis)
**
Thyroid autonomy
** —Toxic adenoma
** —Toxic multi nodular goiter (MNG)
HCG
—hydatidiform mole, choricocarcinoma
TSH
—TSHoma (pituitary tumor)
—Thyroid hormone resistance

low uptake (not true) thyroiditis “hyperthyroidism”:

Subacute thyroiditis:
***---Granulomatous thyroiditiis (viral); deQuervain's (PAIN)
Chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis 
***---Hashimoto's thyroiditis !!! (NONTENDER)
***---Postpartum thyroiditis
Radiation induced thyroiditis (PAIN)
Infectious thyroiditis (PAIN)
Drug-induced thyroiditis
Ectopic thyrotoxicosis
---FACTICITOUS!!!
---struma ovarii (ovary teratoma)

thyroid scan will be dark- no need for scan

168
Q

Graves findings

A

Graves exophthalmos- bulging eyes

pretrial myxedema- doughy feeling

169
Q

Graves treatment

A
medications:
antithyroid drugs (methimazole, propylthiouracil)- to inhibits synthesis of TH

beta blockers- reduce systemic hyperadrenergic symptoms and effects (primarily tremor, palpitations, etc.)

radioactive iodine I-131

surgery

170
Q

destructive thyroiditis clinical course

A

ex subacute/granulomatous thyroiditis or postpartum thyroiditis

at first-
low TSH
very high free T4
may need beta blockers

by about 4 months-
TSH will surge very high
free T4 will drop very low
may need LT4 bridge

171
Q

subclinical hypothyroidism

A

small decrease in free T4 = LARGE increase in TSH

172
Q

etiology of hypothyroidism

A

primary hypothyroidism:

*****chronic autoimmune (Hashimoto's) thyroiditis!!!!
transient hypothyroidism
***---silent or postpartum thyroiditis
***---subactue or granulomatous thyroiditis 
iatrogenic
***---thyroid surgery/thyroidectomy
***---radioactive iodine
---external neck irradiation
iodine deficiency or excess
drugs
--antithyroid drugs*, Lithium**, Amiodarone***, tyrosine kinase inhibitors, Iron,, Cholestramine, phenytoin, carbamazepine
infiltrative diseases
---hemochromatosis, sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, fibrous (Reidel's) thryoiditis, scleroderma
infectious 
---M tuberculosis, P carinii
congenital 
central hypothyroidism (2ndary/tertiary)
***pituitary tumor
trauma
postpartum pituitary necrosis (Sheehan's syndrome)
hypophysitis
craniopharyngiomas
radiation therapy
infiltrative disease
TSH or TRH resistance
173
Q

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

A

Thyroid autoantibodies to:
TPO and TG
anti-TG and anti-TPO

people who can also have these antibodies:
general pop, pregnant women, T1DM, relatives of autoimmune thyroiditis,
Graves disease!
autoimmune thyroiditis!

in general, pts w/ high TSH and +autoantibodies develop hypothyroidism at a rate of ~5%/yr
–TPO Abs alone ~2%/yr

174
Q

when to treat hypothyroidism

A

TSH >10 (nl TSH 0.4-4)

whether to treat TSH between 5-10 is very controversial
-cardiovascular risk

treat w/ LEVOTHYROXINE– synthetic T4

treatment goal is 0.51- 3.0

175
Q

myxedema coma

A

an extreme form of hypothyroidism, so severe as to readily progress to death unless dx promptly and treated vigorously

true endocrine emergency!!

  • low CO, brady, resp depression, edema, AMS, hypothermia, metabolic derangements
  • —high mortality rate!
176
Q

aldosterone, cortisol, androgens, NE/EPI released in response to:

A
Aldosterone
released in response to:
high AngII
high serum K
high ACTH (lesser stimulus)

Cortisol:
high ACTH
high Arginine Vasopressin (lesser stimulus)

androgens:
high ACTH

NE and EPI:
sympathetic nervous system
synthesis is dependent on high local concentrations of cortisol

177
Q
adrenal hormone functions
aldosterone
cortisol
androgens
NE/EPI
A

aldosterone:
binds mineralocorticoid receptors to regulate:
blood vol
Salt/water homeostasis

cortisol:
binds glucocorticoid receptor to regulate:
E balance
CVS, metabolic, and immune homeostasis

Androgens:
bind androgen receptors to regulate:
pubarche

NE/EPI
bind adrenergic receptors to regulate:
CVS effects and bronchial dilation

178
Q

primary adrenal insufficiency vs secondary

A

primary:
insufficient adrenal gland- can’t make cortisol, androgens, or aldo
—–deficiency of BOTH glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids (cortisol AND aldosterone)
low cortisol
low aldosterone
high ACTH
—causes:
70% are autoimmune (Addison’s- 21-hydroxylase enzyme)
10-20% TB, Fungi, HIV infection
other reasons less likely: infiltrative, hemorrhage, metastatic cancer, metabolic, drugs, surgery

secondary:
pituitary, hypothalamus, anything above the adrenal gland in the H-P-A axis
*****—can still make Aldo (main stimulus is RAAS system w/ Ang2 and K levels)
-key distinction between primary and secondary
——deficiency of glucocorticoids ONLY
low cortisol
inappropriately low/nl ACTH
nl Aldosterone
—causes:
most common = drugs (withdrawal of chronic glucocorticoids, high dose opioids)
tumor (pituitary adenoma, meningioma, others)
surgery
radiation,
infectious
hemorrhage
infiltrative
metastatic cancers

179
Q

adrenal insufficiency clinical features

A

symptoms/ signs
fatigue, weakness, anorexia, nausea, abdominal pain, weight loss, myalgia, vomiting, postural dizziness, arthralgieas, HA,
Hypotension, tachy
hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, eosinophilia

Primary only:
salt craving
vitiligo, hyper pigmentation
hyperkalemia

Primary specific symptoms: because you get both glucocorticoid (cortisol) and mineralocorticoid (Aldo) deficiency
no aldosterone to act on MCR to signal to the Na, K transporters on the principal cells–> you get low Na, high K, and low BP

hyper pigmentation due to increased POMC processing

  • -no cortisol/aldo production from adrenal gland means you’ll stimulate MORE ACTH and CRH production in the HPA axis
  • ACTH is made w/ MSH as breakdown products from POMC
180
Q

adrenal crisis

A

emergency!
N/V, fever, syncope, hypotension, tachy

give stress dose steroids
–hydrocortisone 100mg IV every 8 hrs

181
Q

Addison’s disease info

A

half of pts w/ autoimmune adrenalitis have at least 1 other autoimmune disorder

Polyglandular autoimmune syndromes APS:

Type 1:
adrenal insufficiency, hypoparathyroidism, mucocutaneous candidiasis, risk of primary hypogonadism, celiac sprue, vitiligo, hypophysitis, pernicious anemia

Type 2:
adrenal insufficiency, autoimmune thryoididits (AKA Schmidt’s disease), and risk of T1DM, vitiligo, primary hypogonadism, pernicious, anemia, celiac sprue

182
Q

testing for primary adrenal insufficiency-

A

nl 7-8AM cortisol level >18 (no AI)

adrenal insufficiency cortisol <5

when less than 16-18, may represent nl function or partial or complete adrenal insufficiency

if below 5, treat w/ steroids until you can figure out what’s going on

if baseline cortisol is lowl, then do cosyntropin (synthetic ACTH) stimulation test:
measure baseline ACTH and cortisol levels
give 250mcg IV cosyntropin over 2 min
measure either 30 or 60min cortisol
—any cortisol value over 20mg/dL means no AI
—any low cortisol values means you have adrenal insufficiency (partial or complete, based on how close to 20 it gets- you can still live normally w/ partial deficiency, but you’ll have trouble responding to a stressor)

183
Q

testing for secondary adrenal insufficiency

A

will have:
low cortisol
inappropriately low/nl ACTH
nl Aldosterone

MRI pituitary may show pathology

if you don’t make ACTH chronically, your adrenal gland will atrophy eventually
but if it’s a new adrenal insufficiency disease, then you still might be able to stim your cortisol to above 20 since adrenal gland is still capable of making it

184
Q

treatment of adrenal insufficiencies

primary and secondary

A

primary
replace BOTH glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids
Hydrocortisone or prednisone daily
Fludrocortisone daily

Secondary
replace glucocorticoids: Hydrocortisone or prednisone
no mineralocorticoid replacement
–fix underlying cause if possible

185
Q

Aldosterone regulation and RAAS system

A

JGA and renin regulation

renin is released in response to:
low afferent arteriole vol (low renal perfusion)
low distal tubule Na conc (tuboglomerular feedback)

renin is suppressed in response to:
high afferent arteriole vol (high renal perfusion P)
high distal tubule Na conc (tuboglomerular feedback)

RAAS:
high K and Ang2 stimulate Aldosterone synthetase in the zona glomerulosa

ACTH can also stimulate aldosterone synthetase (to lesser extent)

Aldosterone regulates EC volume and K balance

  • -Aldo binds mineralocorticoid receptor MCR in the distal cortical collecting duct principal cells
  • -moves to nucleus to stimulate transcription of genes to increase # of Na and K channels
  • -results in increased Na reabsorption and promotes K and proton secretion
  • -increased Na reabs means increased plasma vol and increased BP (which then switches off Renin production and angiotensin2)
186
Q

causes of hyperaldosteronism

A

primary aldosteronism (Conn’s)

secondary aldosteronism
-cirrhosis, heart failure

lidless syndrome
-mutation in epi Na channel

Deoxycorticosterone mediated
-genetic recombination of genes

Licorice ingestion
-pseudohyperaldosteronism

187
Q

signs and symptoms of primary aldosteronism

screening

A

AKA Conn’s

resistant hypertension
hypokalemia
mild hypernatremia
metabolic alkalosis
muscle weakness is possible
  • *K may fall to severely low levels
  • K wasting is common in mineralocorticoid (aldosterone) excess syndromes but is not absolute
  • pts MAY have hyeraldosteronism and nl serum K
screen:
<30yo w/ HTN (esp if nl weight and no FHx)
unexplained hypokalemia and HTN
resistant HTN (more than 2 meds)
adrenal indidentaloma and HTN
188
Q

testing for hyperaldosteronism

A

early morning aldosterone: renin ratio
Ratio >20
with aldo >15 and nl K at time of testing

stop interfering meds before testing
esp mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists (spironolactone, epleronone)

if ratio is elevated, further testing is required:
need to demonstrate inappropriate aldosterone secretion after salt loading (Renin goes up when macula densa senses low salt)
-give 2L normal saline over 4 hrs and measure aldo
-nl: aldosterone suppresses below 5
hyperaldo: aldosterone is above 10

once biochem dx is certain, CT or MRI should be performed to look for adenoma or hyperplasia
then adrenal vein sampling AVS should be done for lateralization (which adrenal gland is it?)

AVS lateralization:
catheters into R and L adrenal veins
-relies on finding several-fold difference in Aldo secretion between 2 sides
-if not, could be idiopathic hyperaldosteronism (or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia)
-if there is an adenoma on 1 side, and pt is <35yo, can consider skipping AVS because that probably means the nodule is your problem
(the older you get, the more “nl” nodules you can have, so a nodule doesn’t absolutely mean that’s your problem)

189
Q

treatment of hyperaldosteronism

A

if unilateral aldosterone secreting adenoma, surgical resection often leads to cure (lots of HTN pts can come off meds after surgery)

if bilateral adrenal hyperplasia is the cause, tx w/ mineralocorticoid antagonist (sprinolactone or eplerenone)

if not a surgical candidate, despite unilateral aldosterone secreting adenoma, can use med tx

190
Q

licorice causing pseudohyperaldosteronism

A

cortisol-cortisone shunt

mineralocorticoid receptor has higher affinity for cortisol than Aldo
Also sensitive tissues (like kidney) have 11-beta-HSD2 to shunt cortisol to cortisone (inactive)

licorice inhibits the 11-beta-HSD2 enzyme , so you have high cortisol produced in the kidney, so cortisol starts regulating the aldo receptor

  • MCR is activated by cortisol
  • leads to HTN and hypokalemia
191
Q

Hypercortisolemia

A

glucocorticoid (cortisol) excess (Cushing syndrome)

ACTH dependent:
pituitary adenoma
ectopic ACTH production

ACTH independent:
adrenocortical adenoma
adrenocortical carcinoma
nodular adrenal hyperplasia

iatrogenic or surreptitious:
exogenous glucocorticoid use (MOST COMMON!!!- steroid use)

Endogenous Cushing’s is rare

192
Q

ACTH dependent hypercortisolemia:

A

high ACTH
high cortisol
feedback mech does not work to turn off ACTH

Cushing’s disease:
pituitary mediated hypercortisolemia

Tumor in anterior pituitary:
corticotroph adenoma

Ectopic Cushing Syndrome
or
Tumor in neuroendocrine cell 
(ex small cell lung cancer, bronchial carcinoid, medullary thyroid cancer, carcinoid, pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor, pheochromocytoma)
will cause:
very high ACTH
very high cortisol
feedback mech does not work to turn off ACTH (coming from lungs, ex)
193
Q

ACTH independent hypercholesterolemia

A

high cortisol
low ACTH
feedback mech still works

causes:
Cushing syndrome (adrenal mediated)
Tumor adrenal cortex (adrenal cortical adenoma or carcinoma)
bilateral adrenal hyperplasia (both adrenals are overproducing)

194
Q

Dx of hypercortisolism

A

24 hr urinary free cortisol

midnight salivary cortisol
(diurnal rhythm: normally cortisol should be low at midnight)

1mg dexamethasone suppression test

  • pt takes 1mg dex at midnight before an 8am blood draw for cortisol
  • nl: cortisol suppresses to <1.8
  • autonomous prod of cortisol: feedback doesn’t work, cortisol won’t suppress despite presence of dexamethasone

ACTH dependent vs ACTH independent cause:
baseline AM cortisol and ACTH
–if ACTH is low, implies adrenal source (independent)- do adrenal imaging
–if ACTH is high, implies pituitary/ecotopic source (dependent)

Pituitary vs Ectopic ACTH source:
MRI pituitary
-about 55% corticotrophin adenomas are seen on MRI
8mg dex suppression test
-Pituitary source: cortisol suppresses to <5 or more than 50% of baseline
—-not always reliable
*Inferior petrosal sinus sampling IPSS
-catheters up to pituitary (petrosal sinuses), draw baseline ACTH at intervals after stim w/ CRH (or desmoressin)
-pituitary source = ACTH is higher in petrosal than central IVC
-ectopic source = ACTH similar in petrosal and central IVC

195
Q

Treatment for hypercortisolism

A

correct underlying cause
surgical adrenalectomy or transsphenoidal pituitary surgery or removal of ectopic source- 1st line

med tx is second line:
ACTH secretion inhibitors-
Cabergoline
Pasireotide

Cortisol synthesis inhibitors-
Adsrenolytic agents (mitotane, ketoconazole)

cortisol receptor blocker-
Mifepristone

196
Q

most common cause of hypercortisolism

A

synthetic glucocorticoids

developed to exploit anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant effects of glucocorticoids

-RA, lupus, Hepatitis, MS, Vasculitis, transplant, allergy, IBD, sarcoidosis, lymphoma, thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, cerebral edema/spinal cord injury, preterm labor

side effects of chronic glucocorticoids:
Iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome!!
Assoc w/ use of any supra physiologic dose
don’t forget to ask pts about steroids- asthma, cream, nasal, etc that they don’t think of

197
Q

neuroendocrine tumors

A

neuroendocrine tumors are a zebra diagnosis
pheochromocytoma and paraganglioma- derived from chromaffin cells of embryonic neural crest origin

tumors often benign, but can cause problems:
mass effect
over-secretion of catecholamines/metanephrines (HTN, heart disease, stroke, death)– increased alpha-adrenergic stimulation

head and neck paraganglionmas HNPGL= often non-secretory

adrenal medulla tumors= pheochromocytoma PCC

tumors at other sites= paragangliomas PGL

clinical presentation:
CLASSIC TRIAD: HA, palpitations, sweating
“Pain, perspiration, palpitations”
also HTN of different varieties
also anxiety, tremors, weight loss, flushing, hyperglycemia
or could be asymptomatic

198
Q

excessive production of metanephrines/normetanephrines

A

adrenal medulla:
receives input from sympathetic NS via preganglionic fibers from spinal cord
medulla is like a nerve ganglion, but lacks synapses from postganglionic fibers and releases secretions directly into blood!!!
-Tyrosine enters chromaffin cells, and is converted to DOPA, dopamine, NE, and EPI
—Tyrosine –> DOPA via Tyrosine Hydroxylase (rate limiting step in catecholamine synthesis!!)
—Cortisol promotes EPI synthesis in medulla by up regulating PNMT (which takes NE–> EPI)
medulla makes 80% EPI and 20% NE

metanephrines, normetanephrines, and vanillymandelic acid (VMA)–> alpha adrenergic receptors for flight or fight response

199
Q

screening for pheochromocytoma/paraganglioma tumor:

A
Plasma metanephrines!! (also urine Mets)
draw after 20min rest, in fasting state
-no Acetaminophen for 5 days
-diff ranges for sitting/standing (prefer supine)
-if borderline- order 24 urine test

other screening tests:
plasma catecholamines
-less reliable, often abnl
-often only useful in established pheo or known mutation carriers

Clonidine suppression test
-normally plasma Met decreases more than 40% 3hrs after 0.3mg Clonidine given- rarely done (blood/urine tests are getting better)

200
Q

interfering meds w/ screening for pheo/paraganglioma neuroendocrine tumors

A
Acetaminophen
SSRIs
Serotonine NE inhibtors
Marijuana and other illicit drugs
among others

will give you false positives

201
Q

after a positive neuroendocrine screening for pheo/paraganglioma

treatment

A

pt needs radiographic imaging to localize tumor

start w/ CT/MRI of abdomen/pelvis
-majority will be in intra- or extra-adrenal in this area

I-123 MIBG: localization of extra-adrenal, recurrent, and metastatic tumors (MIBG will be high conc’s where there is high NE conc from a tumor)

treatment:
surgery
must do peri-operative blockade prior to surgery
—alpha-blocker as 1st line therapy (phenoxybenzamine!!!, or Doxazosin, Prazosin, Terazosin as a selective alpha1 blocker)
—CCB as 2nd line
—add BB LATER to control expected reflex tachy from alpha-blockade

tyrosine hydroxylase inhibitor: Metrysoine
-prevents Tyrosine from going to DOPA, then to NE,EPI, VMA, etc

surgical options:
laparoscopic adrenalectomy
adrenocortical sparing surgery
-for bilateral adrenal tumors, or for pts w/ genetic syndromes at risk for future recurrence

during surgery:
typical response is to see BP surge when tumor is being manipulated, then severe hypotension when tumor is removed
—intra-op may need IV phentolamine (alpha antagonist) to prevent BP surges
—post-op can require alpha agonist to support BP (Phenylephrine/NE) for 1st 48rhs

202
Q

pheochromocytoma rule of 10s

A
old dogma- not true anymore
now 20% extra-adrenal
10% still bilateral
now 25% malignant
now 13-55% asymptomatic
now 30-40% hereditary 
---children numbers are different

susceptibility genes:
VHL, NH1, MLN2 are common
SDHB- this gene has inc risk for MALIGNANT pheo
—dopamine secreting associated w/ malignancy

203
Q

MEN2 info

A

Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2

activating RET mutations on Chr10q11.2
autosomal dominant

MEN2A:
Medullary thyroid carcinoma MTC
hyperparathyroidism
pheochromocytoma (50% of pts)- can be bilateral
cutaneous lichen amyloidosis
MEN2B:
MTC
pheo
multiple neuromas,
marfinoid habitus
--NOT hyperparathyroidism
204
Q

genetic testing for pheo/para

A

30-40% of pts w/ pheo/para will have a susceptibility gene mutation

  • –ALL pots w/ pheo/para need referral for consideration of genetic testing
  • -helps guide screening, surveillance for pt and family members

need lifelong F/U

  • for recurrence, metastatic disease, additional primary tumors
  • if genetic mutation, screen for other assoc tumor types
205
Q

malignant pheochromocytoma

A

presence of distant metastases defined by WHO

can have long latency period- up to 20yrs

occur more often from extra-adrenal PGL and tumors over 4-5cm

5 yr survival is ~50%

206
Q

adrenal incidentalomas- prevalence

evaluation

A

overall 2-10% depending on study
increases w/ age
most are nonfunctioning tumors

2 questions after finding an incidental nodule:
secreting or non-secreting?
benign or malignant? (malignant- primary or metastasis?; does pt have Hx of malignancy?)

207
Q

determining whether an adrenal incidentaloma is secreting or non-secreting

A

all adrenal nodules should be ruled out for hormonal hyper secretion

  • -plasma metanephrines of 24hr urine Met/Cat
  • ——screen for pheo, too
  • -1mg overnight Dex suppression test
  • ——screen for hypercortisolism

if pt is HTN, screen for primary aldosteronism w/ aldo/plasma Renin activity

208
Q

determining whether an adrenal incidentaloma is benign or malignant

A

Hounsfield scale HU****
-measures x-ray attenuation
water = 0 HU
adipose tissue = -20- -150 HU

if adrenal mass has HU <10 on CT (density close to water and fat)–> likely is a benign adrenal nodule w/ high intracellular lipid
–good thing

MRI is as effective as CT scanning here- non contrast

benign adrenal masses:
<4cm
homogeneous w/ smooth/regular borders
HU<10
rapid enhancement of contrast; rapid loss of contrast (high washout!)
209
Q

management of adrenal incidentaloma

A

guidelines in flux

surgical removal:
>4cm
progressive growth, esp if HU>20
hormone hyper secretion

monitor:
HU<10
<4cm
non-secreting
image regularly
hormone profile annually for 4 yrs
210
Q

giving glucocorticoid/ CORTISOL in pharmacologic doses

A

give for anti-inflammatory!!!!! (GC-AI)
potential for iatrogenic cushing’s
if used for >3 weeks via suppression of pituitary ACTH release)

ex dexamethasone, prednisone

carbs: hyperglycemia (diabetes-like state)
protein: muscle wasting, skin-CT atrophy
fat: more lipogenesis (centrally via insulin action) –> centripetal obesity

211
Q

giving mineralocorticoid/ALDOSTERONE in pharmacologic doses

A

has salt retaining potential

ex fludrocortisone

can cause:
fluid retention, HTN, and HYPOkalemia*
(increased Na reabs at kidney, inc blood vol and BP, loosely coupled to K and H excretion)

Glucocorticoid effects can be separated from Mineralocorticoid effects
BUT
can’t separate GC metabolic side effects form anti-inflammatory and I-S therapeutic effects

212
Q

mineralocorticoid vs glucocorticoid pharm acitivty

A

MC- salt retaining!
**Fludrocortisone- super high MC
(very, very small: cortisol and prednisone)

GC- anti inflammatory! 
Dexamethasone- super high AI
then Fludrocortisone
then Prednisone
then Cortisol (AKA hydrocortisone)

both MC and GC activity needed in primary adrenal insufficiency!!!! (Addison’s)

prednisone is inactive until hepatic conversion to prednisolone- NO topical activity or parental activity

213
Q

metabolism of glucocorticoids (cortisol and prednisone)- liver, kidney, fetus

A

11-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase 11-beta-HSD

liver: 11-beta-HSD1 converts prednisone –> prednisolone
activating

kidney: 11-beta-HSD2 converts cortisol back to cortisone
inactivating

fetus: 11-beta-HSD2 protects fetus from effects of maternal steroids (cortisol back to cortisone)

214
Q

adrenocortical insufficiency pharm tx-

A

chronic- Addison’s
oral hydrocortisone 2-3x/day (mimic diurnal)
dexamethasone, prednisone (long acting)
—temporary dose inc necessary w/ illness or surgery
fludrocortisone can be added if more salt-retaining activity s needed (if pt is hypotensive)
DHEA supplementation needed in some women (mood and well-being)

Acute- Adrenal crisis
electrolyte abnormalities (low Na and high K) and plasma volume depletion
-volume replenish w/ nl saline or D5 nl saline
-if previous dx, large amounts of IV hydrocortisone
-w/o previous dx, Dexamethasone
-additional MC action- hydrocortisone not needed acutely unless hyperkalemia present (heart block arrhythmias!)

215
Q

pharm tx of Cushing’s syndrome

A

Surgery is tx of choice!!: pituitary, chest, abdomen

Med tx generally for adjunctive tx in refractory or inoperable cases

ACTH secretion inhibitors:
Cabergoline- D2 agonist
Pasireotide- SST analog

Cortisol synthesis inhbitiors-
Ketoconazole** (for fungal infections, very effective)- (early syn block/broad effect)
Metyrapone, Etomidate (late syn/specific effect)

Adsrenolytic agents
mitotane

cortisol receptor blockers-
mifepristone**

216
Q

adrenal enzyme inhibitors

Ketoconazole and metyrapone

A

Ketoconazole:
most commonly used- higher dose than anti fungal use
also inhibits C17-20 desmolase (dec testosterone synthesis)

ADRs:
HA, N/V, gynecomastia- impotence, reversible hepatotoxicity

Metyrapone
lesser used (mild dz)- add on to ketoconazole
inhibits 11-beta-hydroxylase- can increase adrenal androgen production!

ADRs:
inc hirsutism in women, Na retention and HTN (increase in DOCA synthesis)

217
Q

diuretic agents on plasma electrolytes

A

loop- super effective, K wasting
Thiazide- less effective, less K wasting
loop + thiazide- very effective, very K wasting

aldo antagonist- mildly effective, but very K sparing
Spironolactone, Eplerenone

aldosterone antagonist plus BP meds (CCB, ACEI, ARB)
goal: normalize hypokalemia and BP
CCBs on K channels are neutral
ACEI and ARB will inhibit aldo, but will be K sparing- too much K= heart block arrhythmias

218
Q

CCBs and selectivity

A

Dihydropyridines (ex nifeDIPINE)
greater ratio of vascular dilation to cardiac (rate/conduction/contractility) effects
(but then you’ll get reflex tachy)

Verapamil and Diltiazem
each at distinct site, have prominent effects at cardiac nodal tissue and on cardiac muscle
lowers HR, increases SA/AV connection and contraction

219
Q

RAAS antagonists

A

ACEI’s- give you a cough because of the increased bradykinin
-pril

ARB
-sartan

both decrease BP!

220
Q

pharm tx of pheochromacytoma

A
pre-op:
Alpha blocker-1st
phenoxybenzamine*** (irreversible nonsel block)
prazosin
terazosin (reversible a1 block)
doxazosin (reversible a1 block)
-----vasodilation via block of alpha1

+

BB- 2nd (after alpha blockade, otherwise you’ll turn EPI into pure, unopposed alpha1 vasoconstrictor!!!)
metoprolol/atenolol (beta1 blocker)
labetalol (alpha1 beta1 beta2 blocker)
——rate control via block of Beta1

or

CCBs (alone)
Nicardipine (if bp control is inadequate)

then
adrenalectomy (laparoscopic or open)

Metrosine (catecholamine syntesis inhibitor- if inoperable or metastatic)

221
Q

Calcium’s importance in body

A

majority is in bone
signaling- 2nd messenger for many signaling pathways
synaptic signaling

regulates excitability of cells

  • -decreasing extracellular Ca means you have hyper excitable cells – leading to tetany and seizures
  • -hypercalcemia- decreased excitability
  • you require VG Na channels to open at a given voltage based on voltage sensor
  • if you lower Ca, you make the outer surface a little more neg, so the cell is a little more depo’ed at baseline, and it’s easier to fire
222
Q

PO4’s importance in body

A
bone
high E compds- ATP
membrane phospholipids
regulation
DNA, RNA
223
Q

Calcium regulation

A

diet- 1g/day

gut- which can go 2 places:

  • lose ~825mg in feces per day
  • equilibrium w/ serum 8-10mg/dL (narrow window b/w hypo and hyperCa)
serum can go 4 ways:
equilibrium w/ gut
intracellular
kidney--> excreted in urine
BONE-- 250 mg exchanged freely/day; 
---and a faster 10g conversion

Ca in blood:
50% free
40% bound to Albumin
10% bound w/ PO4 and HCO3

under nl circumstances- there’s a conc gradient between blood and canicular fluid

  • -Ca is higher in blood
  • -canaliculi /blood ratio = 0.6
  • -Ca goes down the gradient into the canalicular fluid, gets taken up by osteocytes, and transported back across and pumped into the blood through surface osteocytes
224
Q

3 types of cells that regulate Ca and PO4 in and out of bone

A

surface osteoblasts

osteocytes- differentiated osteoblasts within canaliculi

osteoclasts- in matrix (phagocytic)

225
Q

3 main Ca exchange processes

A

osteocytic osteolysis:
exchanges about 10g Ca per day
only Ca; doesn’t affect PO4
large and fast process

Osteoclastic remodeling
phagocytize the bone matrix for remodeling
chews up matrix -CaPO4
Ca and PO4 released
—Ca and PO4 both affected
250mg exchange per day between bone and blood

kidney:
kidney sees about 10g/day
>98% taken back into blood
net excretion 175mg/day in urine

226
Q

PO4 equilibrium

A

more efficiently moved around in the body than Ca

1.4g in through diet

gut
500mg lost through feces
3-4mg/dL serum range (from 1100mg abs from gut)

kidney–> urine
kidney samples 7g/day and takes back 6.1
net loss 900mg PO4 per day in urine

bone 210mg exchange
-only process is osteoclastic remodeling w. destruction of bone matrix

intracellular

227
Q

PTH and its triggering

A

key hormone that regulates Ca in the blood
prod by chief cells in parathyroid gland

LOW serum Ca triggers release of PTH:
chief cells release PTH from vesicles when there’s an INC in intracellular Ca

how this happens:
Ca sensor (transmembrane receptor)
under nl cases, you have Ca sensor that are bound to Ca, and as long as Ca remains bound the sensor are inactive
when Ca drops outside the cell, you remove the Ca bound to the sensor, then the sensor acts through a Gq GPCR mech to prod IP3 to act on ER
ER releases Ca into the cell to cause exocytosis of the PTH vesicles

228
Q

PTH function

A

PTH’s purpose is to raise serum Ca back up to its set point
PTH acts on all mech’s for Ca exchange across all compartments
modulates compartments toward raising serum Ca

Osteocytic process: (the fast process)
direct effect
bone breakdown is expedited by PTH

the slow process:
PTH drives bone break down indirectly
increases osteocytic osteolysis (direct)
increase osteoclastic exchange through indirect process (via osteoblasts)

net consequence: shifting the bone/blood balance toward blood

kidney sampling:
PTH causes reuptake by kidney to be bigger
(smaller excretion)

PTH increases bone resorption back into blood, BUT it also increases kidney excretion of PO4 (to not mess w/ CaPO4 solubility)
-otherwise get calcifications in the body (kidney stones, etc)

PTH in gut:
increases Ca abs in gut indirectly via Vit D3
Vit D3: pod in skin from sun; inactive
goes to liver- D3–> 25-OH- Vit D3 (still inactive)
goes to kidney–> 1,25-(OH)2-Vit D3 (active)
the two hydroxylase enzymes to make these conversions are regulated by PTH
if you get PTH deficiency, you’re also not activating Vit D3
main role of Vit D3 is Ca abs from gut via binding protein Calbindin
—Vit D3 is antagonized by Cortisol
(stress can cause Ca deficiency)
–Vit D3 deficiency will give you rickets/bone malformation

229
Q

Hyperparathyroidism info

A

tumor of parathyroids glands
release PTH-like peptides is most common cause of hyperPTism

skew the equilibrium towards more Ca in blood-
drive osteoclastic and osteocytic processes and reabs from kidney to get hypercalcemia
–hurting bone

but at the same time you’re going to get kidney and uritic stones
–also excreting a lot more PO4 in the urine

230
Q

hypoparathyroidism info

A

hypo function of PT gland
most commonly from surgical errors when people remove PT glands along w/ thyroid gland
-also autoimmune (Candidiasis)

low levels of PTH-
drop in Ca levels in blood, seizures

pseudohypoparathyroidism-
inherited condition
PTH levels are nl/elevated, but the receptors are deficient
you don’t get the effects of PTH

231
Q

Calcium mineral info

A

major mineral
intake require >100mg/day
1200-1500g in body total; mot abundant

Ca hydroxyapatite- 99% of Ca (bone, teeth)

metabolic: signal transmitter

232
Q

Ca homeostasis and intestinal Abs

A
low serum Ca:
increase PTH to:
inc bone resorption of Ca
inc Ca reabs in ascending loop of Henle
inc P excretion via kidney
--inc Vit D to:
inc Ca intestinal abs
dec Ca excretion in urine

high serum Ca:
Calcitonin causes deposition of Ca into bone
decrease in PTH

Passive abs:
throughout all of intestine
-via conc gradients
—major source when Ca intake is high

Active abs:
occurs in3 steps
Ca from lumen into enterocytes via active transporter
Ca from apical to basolateral membrane via transporter
Ca pump from basolateral membrane into blood
—occurs mostly in duodenum
—esp active when Ca intake is lower

classic transcription regulated pathway:
1,25-(OH)2-Vit3 binds to VDRE
upregulates genes for expression to increase Ca reabs in intestine and kidney

233
Q

Ca abs and habitual intake

A

if you decrease Ca in your diet, you’ll increase your relative abs
but even though Ca abs is increased by ~10%, the total/net absorbed is still lower

so increased Ca abs is only able to compensate for low Ca diets to a certain extent-
chronic low Ca diets is assoc w/ low bone mass
and vice versa

Ca abs is enhanced by:

physiological: Vit D, inc physiologic demand (pregnancy, adolescence)
dietary: gastric acidity, lactose, dietary protein
- –Bone mineral depletion does NOT feedback to give you more Ca abs- Ca abs is more regulated by serum Ca, not bones

Ca abs is impaired by:
Vit D deficiency
Steatorrhea
Dietary:
-gastric alkalinity
-oxalic acid (spinach)
-Phytic acid (legumes, corn, wheat,)
-caffeine- (easy to offset)
-dietary protein (inc Ca excretion in urine, probably net neutral)
234
Q

Ca abs through life cycle

A

avg adult 25%
fetus: 80% transfer in 3rd trimester (330mg/day at 35 weeks- 30g total- prematures at risk for osteomalacia of prematurity)
infants 40-60% (lactose)
early puberty 34% (can cause Ca dependent rickets)
pregnant women 50%
may decrease in elderly

dietary/ DAIRY Ca intake is important in young children!!!

steep accrual of bone mass in adolescence- esp women!!!

  • -bone accretion is HIGHEST ~2000mg/day at early puberty
  • -poor Ca intake at this time can predispose you to fractures later in life
  • peak bone mass at 30yo
  • but curves look different for everyone-
  • *70% genetic
235
Q

Calcium requirements with pregnancy and lactation

A

Physiological NOT DIETARY requirements increase

pregnancy:
Ca abs increases (Active) to accommodate fetal demand

lactation
PTH increases and bone mass is lost,
but is recovered w/ post-weaning
-Ca is being dumped into breastmilk

236
Q

DRIs of Ca during lifetime

high risk groups

A

high in 9-18yo
-want opportunity to maximize Ca deposition into bone

high in >51yo
your abs is likely to decrease

pregnancy/lactation- DRIs DO NOT change

high risk groups for Ca deficiency:
premature infants
adolescents esp F
peri-menopausal women
Bariatric surgery (removed duodenum abs)
237
Q

Calcium supplements

A

Ca carbonate - TUMS
best abs w/ meals!

Ca citrate
best abs between meals!

43% Americans/70% older women consume Ca supplements

in relation to BMD:
there’s a small benefit to those at-risk (low diet Ca, older, institutionalized, compromised BMD)
but there’s such a thing as too much (could inc CV risk), esp if dietary consumption was already high
–Ca + Vit D supplementation is supported for pts at high risk of Ca and Vit D deficiency and in those who are receiving tx for osteoporosis

Supplement rules of thumb from lecturer:
try diet/food first
supplement when necessary, appropriately
-use common sense- don’t be stupid and over-supplement

238
Q

non-nutrtiitonal factors assoc w/ BMD

A

initial bone mineral density

  • peak bone mass
  • hereditary

hypogonadism (esp low estrogen)- anorexia or amenorrhea pt

age- strongest empiric factor for BMD

meds
est corticosteroids!!!
chronic illness

behavior/lifestyle
tobacco and alcohol- depresses osteoblast activity, lower dietary intake
weight bearing exercise- helpful for telling Ca to increase bone abs

239
Q

Nutritional factors sassy w/ BMD

A

Diets- DASH diet (lower Na consumption = lower Ca excretion in urine)

lifetime Ca intake

Vit D status

oxalic acid and phytic acid

Caffeine (increase urine Ca, but easy to offset)

protein intake (both ways)

sodium intake (inc urine Ca)

vegetarian diet- (lowers urine Ca)

Phosphorus for hydroxyapatite
Mg deficiency (hypoparathyroid)- actually a problem for Americans
Vit C- collagen cofactor
Vit K- cofactor for osteocalcin
Vit D
240
Q

how to optimize bone health

A

wholistic and lifecycle approach

achieve peak bone mass when possible-
best risk reduction of osteoporosis is when you’re young, esp adolescents!!

dietary focus:
Ca, Vit D, Vit K, protéine, low Na (DASH diet)

maintain ovulation/regular menses

weight bearing exercise

avoid: alcohol, smoking, steroids
supplement: judiciously when necessary

241
Q

3 Ca regulating hormones

3 Ca reguationg organs

A

hormones:
PTH
1,25 (OH)2 Vit D
Calcitonin

Organs:
intestine
bone
kidney

242
Q

PTH effects on Ca- 3 mech’s

A

inc bone resorption

kidney:
decreases Ca excretion (and increases excretion of PO4)
–makes active Vit D, which indirectly helps gut
Gut: inc Ca abs

243
Q

Vit D metabolism

A

skin and animal diets give you D3 cholecalciferol
plants give you D2 ergocalciferol

liver:
uses 25-hydroxylase to change to 25(OH) Vit D– major storage form of Vit D
(ng/mL)

kidney:
1-alpha-hydroxylase (stimulated by PTH) to make active Vit D
measured in picog/mL

active Vit D overall raises serum Ca and PO4 levels

  • Vit D toxicity causes hyper in both
  • Vit D deficiency causes hypo in both
244
Q

Calcitonin effects

A

made in parafollicular C cells in thyroid gland

causes decreased bone resorption and lower serum Ca

245
Q

the 3 major cell types in body that have Ca sensor regulator

A

Parathyroid cell- PTH secretion

parafollicular C cell- calcitonin secretion

renal tubular cell- Calcium excretion

transmembrane domains where Ca binds, then an intracellular domain as well

the amount of Ca that binds to the EC domain sends a signal whether it’s too high or too low

246
Q

hypercalcemic disorders

A

most common cause:
primary hyperparathyroidism

next most common:
hypercalcemia of malignancy

these 2 account for 90% of hypercalcemic disorders

first thing to do you when you have hypercalcemia- measure PTH level

**2 hypercalcemia disorders assoc w/ PTH:
primary hyperparathyroidism
familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia
—when change in Ca and PO4 are in OPPOSITE directions, you think PTH disorder!!!!!! (so you’ll have high PTH)

247
Q

classification of primary hyperparathyroidisms

clinical features:

A

85% adenoma- 1/4 of glands affected
- the other 3 are suppressed because of the 1’s overactivity

15% hyperplasia- general enlargement of all 4; look relatively nl but all are too active- most familial disorders

<1% carcinoma- severe hypercalcemia and invades local tissues
can be just 1 gland
serious but rare

clinical features:
>50% asymptomatic
BONES (skeletal disease)
STONES (kidney stone)
GROANS (GI disease/pain)
PSYCHIATRIC OVERTONES
arthritis, muscle weakness, band keratopathy (eyes), HTN, anemia

brown tumor: osteoclastoma
chonedrocalcinosis (calcifiation in articular cartilage- breaking can cause pseudo gout)

248
Q

Dx primary hyperparathyroidism
serum Ca
serum PO4
tx

A

high serum Ca
low serum PO4

high (or inappropriately nl) serum PTH

(only disorder w/ low serum PO4)

90% sporadic
10% familial
-familial HPT
-MEN1
-MEN2a
tx:
surgery is only cure
- take out 1 for adenoma
-take out 3.5 for hyperplasia
meds can bind Ca receptors and lower PTH levels
or anti-resorptive bone drugs
249
Q

MEN1 and MEN2A associations

A
MEN1- multiple endocrine neoplasia
3 P's
Pituitary tumors 
Pancreatic islet tumors
Parathyroid hyperplasia
germine mutation-- germ cells, so you tend to have multiple tumors
Menin gene!
MEN2a
Parathyroid hyperplasia
Pheochromocytoma
Medulla thyroid carcinoma
germinal mutation- Ret Gene!
250
Q

secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

more common than primary

occurs when PTH glands prod too much PTH from an external stimulus
-if you correct problem, PTH levels should go back to nl

main causes:
HYPOcalcemia
HYPERphosphatemia
low active Vit D

251
Q

hypercalcemia of malignancy

A
most common:
lung cancer (esp squamous cell)
breast cancer
head and neck cancer
lots others listed

mediated by:
PTH-RP in 90% of these cancers
–1st 13 AAs are identical to the 13AAs PTH uses to bind to its receptor- both can bind to PTH receptor and/or PTH-RP receptor

TGF-beta is a big chunk of the rest

252
Q

diagnose hypercalcemia of malignancy
Ca
PTH
PTH-RP

A

high serum Ca

low serum PTH

high serum PTH-RP (or other mediator)

253
Q

diagnose familial hypcalciuric hypercalcemia

Ca
phos
PTH
urine Ca
Ca/CC
A
high Ca
nl Phos
PTH is high (or slightly high)
urine Ca is low!!!
Ca/CC ratio is very low!!!

Ca sensitive receptor is insensitive to binding Ca and send negative feedback
-Ca is allowed to raise aggressively w/o suppressing PTH

254
Q

causes of hypocalcemia

A

low serum Ca

Vit D deficiency- mot common

hypoparathyroidism (CONSISTENTLY low PTH)

others

hypoproteinemia- most common cause of low serum Ca in hospitalized pts
-actually due to low serum Albumin
-correcte serum total Ca:
add 0.8mg Ca to every 1g Albumin is below 4

255
Q

features of hypocalcemia

A

paresthesias- numbness/tingling

muscle cramps

muscle weakness

Ckvostek’s sign (Facial nerve)

Trousseau’s sign (BP cuff)

256
Q

dx nutritional Vit D deficiency

-osteomalacia

A

low serum Ca
low PO4
low 25-OH Vit D
high serum PTH (2ndary hypoparathyroidism)
high serum alk phos (inability to mineralize bone; suggests osteomalacia)

osteomalacia:
pseudo fracture (Milkman's fracture or loser's line)- where pulsating artery crosses
257
Q

how to get a Vit D disorder

A

acquired Vit D deficiency

  • poor intake/malabs
  • inadequate sunlight

acquired active Vit D deficiency

  • renal disease
  • hypoparathyroidism

congenital 1 alpha hydroxylase deficiency
-Vit D dependent rickets type 1

congenital Vitamin D receptor deficiency
-Vit D dependent rickets type 2

-congenital reasons are usually partial and can be reversed w/ enough Vit D

258
Q

dx hypoparathyroidism
Ca
PO4
PTH

A

low Ca
high PO4
low PTH

259
Q

pseudohypoparathyroidism
Ca
Phos
PTH

signs

A

low Ca
high Phos
suggest PTH disorder

high PTH
but body isn’t responding to PTH- PTH receptor mech is abnl-
pseudohypoparathryoidism

signs:
Albright’s Hereditary osteodystrophy-
short 4th and 5th metacarpals

260
Q

bone remodeling

A

osteoclasts secrete osteolytic enzymes and acid to carve out resorption pit
osteoblasts are stimulated to move in and replace the remodeling cavity w/ new bone- called osteoid

Ca x PO4 >24 gives allows you to calcify/minearlize the osteoid

osteoblasts will be embedded in the new bone and become osteocytes
-mechanoreceptors sense stress on bone and tell whether you need to form new bone or not

RANK-L
binds to receptor RANK
stimulates osteoclastic bone resorption (main regulator)
OPG- decoy receptor that can sequester RANK-L and prevent it from binding

WNT
major stimulator for osteoblastic bone formation
inhibited by Sclerostin

261
Q

osteoporosis

A

compromised bone strength
predisposing to increased risk of fragility fractures! (low trauma fracture)

spine/vertebral > Hip > wrist
2/3 are asymptomatic and don’t hurt
(shorter - kyphosis; wedge fractures)

262
Q

risk factors for fragility fractures

A

age
previous fall
low bone mass
**previous fracture

BMD is related to fracture risk
Osteopenia when T score is low- up to 6fold increase in having a fracture

263
Q

abnormal bone remodeling

A

when OC resorption > OB formation

bone mass is lost

critically occurs during menopause

also when you age, or if you take steroids

risk factors for low bone mass:
non-modifiable:
age, race, gender, FHx, early menopause
modifiable:
low Ca, low VitD, estrogen, sedentary, smoking, alcohol, caffeine, meds
264
Q

low bone mass DDx

A

not always osteoporosis!!
need an H and P exam
ex meds- glucocorticoids
SSRIs, anticonvulsants

265
Q

osteomalacia and rickets

A

impaired bone MINERALIZATION
resulting in soft, weak bones
(bones have osteoid, but it’s soft and weak because it doesn’t mineralize)

inadequate Calcium x PO4 product for bone mineralization

osteomalacia- adults
pain
deformaties (bowing of long bones, flaring ends, delayed epiphyseal calcification)
fractures, pseudofractures (Milkman’s fractures and loser’s lines)

rickets- children
pain
deformities
muscle weakness
short stature
266
Q

phosphate disorders

A

acquired hypophosphatemia

  • poor intake
  • renal phosphate wasting- esp hospital acquired

congenital hypophsphatemic rickets
-Vit D resistant rickets!!!
doesn’t respond to Vit D alone
primary abnormality is disorder in renal tubule that results in renal PO4 wasting
—-renal po4 wasting
—-impaired active Vit D formation- need PO4 and active Vit D both to correct problem
—-this accounts for 95% of all congenital rickets!!!

267
Q

Paget’s disease of bone

A

idiopathic bone condition
characterized by excessive/unregulated bone resorption and formation

trabecular structure is disordered and weak

either from:
genetic predisposition (familial, gene mutations, esp SQSTMI mutation)

chronic paramyxovirus infection (geographic variation, dog ownership, time trends, viral studies)

unifying hypothesis:
requires:
genetic component (enhances osteoclast formation/reactivity)
paramyxovirus infection (induces changes in osteoclast precursors)

Beethoven

268
Q

Paget’s disease clinical features and course

A
clinical features:
skeletal:
pain*
deformity*
fractures*
osteoarthritis
hypervascularity (excessive bleeding)
acetabular protrusion
osteogenic sarcoma
commonly monostotic or polystotic when it sets in, and it usually stays that forever
pelvis
skull
vertebrae
femur
tibia

neuro: deafness- CN8 compressed in osteum
spinal cord compression (hypervascularity- compressing spinal cord)

CVS:
atherosclerosis
aortic stenosis
CHF (high output- high flow to bones)

clinical course
1- osteoclastic (high NTC/CTX)
hyperactive bone resorption

2- mixed (high NTC/CTX AND high alk phos)
bone formation catches up w/ resorption rate (alk phos secreted by osteoblasts)

3- osteoblastic (w/ high then low alk phos)
resorption stops and excessive formation remains; alk phos high until osteoblasts stop

269
Q

Paget’s Disease Dx

A

remodeling markers- elevated (alk phos)

X ray features- very specific
osteolytic lesions
"blade of grass" sign in long bones
osteoclastic lesions near lytic areas
thickened, disorganized trabecular
thickened, expanded cortex
expansion of bone size

bone scan- very sensitive
focal areas of intense uptake

bone biopsy- occasionally needed, but very classic
inc osteoclast numbers w/ increased nuclei
increased osteoblasts in periphery
disorganized, mosaic, woven bone

270
Q

prevalence of endocrine disorders in US

A

metabolic syndrome 35%
obesity 20-30%
diabetes 6-22%
etc

thyroid nodules 30-60%!!!
40% noticed by pt
30% noted by other person
30% detected by other tests
----risk for cancer is 10-15%; small but NOT insignificant
271
Q

thyroid neoplasm types

A

benign:
adenoma

malignant:
papillary 85-90%     (multifocal, LN)
follicular/Hurthle 5%   (vascular spread)
anaplastic <2%     (very aggressive)
medullary 5%     (familial)
Lymphoma (rare)
Sarcoma (rare)
Metastatic (rare)
272
Q

Thyroid adenoma

A

benign neoplasm
solitary nodule
follicular/Hurthle cell

DDx:
hyperplastic nodule follicular ca

careful evaluation of the capsule!!

273
Q

thyroid follicular/Hurthle Cell carcinoma

A
thyroid follicular/Hurthle cell carcinoma:
2 types:
minimally invasive 
--vascular or capsular invasion!!!!!!
widely invasive
--more extensive invasion!!!!!
274
Q

thyroid papillary carcinoma

A
papillary carcinoma:
most common 85%
well-differentiated
multifocal
lymphatic spread
excellent prognosis
-lots of purple numbs w/ pink centers on a white background
-highly cellular aspirate
-+/- colloid
-papillae w/ vascular core
NUCLEAR FEATURES make the dx
-optically clear nuclei!!!
-nuclear pseudo inclusions
-nuclear grooves!!!!! (like coffee beans)
-rare or absent mitoses
-Psammoma bodies
-----little orphan Annie eyes!!!!!
papillary cellular aggregates
275
Q

thyroid gland anaplastic carcinoma

A

older age group (poor survival)
rapidly growing mass
necrosis and hemorrhage
–can see the transition to anaplastic!!! from mostly light pink to dark purple/dark pink/ light pink swirls

3 patterns:
spindle cell
giant cells
squamoid cells

gross:
lots of little cubbies; looks like star crunch

276
Q

thyroid gland medullary carcinoma

A

solid proliferation of cells w/ granular cytoplasm (C cells)
highly vascularized stroma
hyalinized collagen and/or amyloid
may have Psammoma bodies

immunostains:
Thyroglobulin -
Calcitonin +
Chromogranin +

277
Q

thyroid gland lymphomas

A

background autoimmune thyroiditis
large fleshy masses (skeletal muscle looking)

DDx: anaplastic ca of thyroid

Positive LCA, usually B-cell
gene rearrangement

278
Q

thyroid gland

sarcomas and metastatic

A

sarcomas: blank?

metastatic:
melanoma
renal
lung
breast
head/neck
colon
279
Q

approach to pt w/ thyroid nodules

A

first do H/P and TSH level:

LOW TSH:
nuclear imaging

nl/HIGH TSH:
DIAGNOSTIC US
---no nodule: FNA not indicated
---nodule(s) that meet FNA criteria-->
FNA
---malignant= preop US and surgery
---benign = monitor
---non diagnostic = repeat US-guided FNA
---indeterminate= consider nuclear imaging or surgery
FNA biopsy:
98% that look benign are benign
98% that look malignant are malignant 
of the suspicious ones, 80% are benign 
-drop on slide, scrape, wash 3x in dye alcohol solns
280
Q

proto-oncogene
oncogene
tumor suppressor gene definitions

mutations

A

proto-oncogene
nl gene which codes for a protein that promotes nl cell division

oncogene
mutated gene which codes for a protein that causes unregulated cell division

tumor suppressor gene
nl gene which codes for a protein the restrains cell division or that promotes cell differentiation, DNA repair, or apoptosis

tumors result form oncogene activation or tumor suppressor gene loss

  • cells transformed by genetic mutations are likely to develop more mutations
  • cancers result from multiple sequential genetic mutations
mutations:
papillary ca: RET/PTC rearrangement 20%
Ras point mutation: 20%
BRAF point mutation: 40%
p53 inactivating mutations on the "brakes"- poorly differentiated thyroid cancers

thyroid tumor signaling: venn diagram

FTC: follicular thyroid carcinoma
Ras, Pax8-PPARgamma (50%), radiation, oxidative stress, genetics

PTC: RET/PTC, Ras, BRAF, MEK-ERK, (p53?)

middle/shared: PI3K, beta-catenin

281
Q

radiology- anatomy of thyroid

A

thyroid gland is made of 2 lobes located along either side of trachea
connected across midline via isthmus

10-40% of nl pts have small pyramidal lobe superior to the isthmus in front of thyroid cartilage

variable size

282
Q

imaging modalities of thyroid

A

anatomic imaging
US, CT, MRI
-indicated to detect/characterize palpable or incidentally found thyroid nodule
–US is best!!!

functional imaging
Iodine-123 or 131 scan
to evaluate for canton of thyroid gland/nodule in pt w/ abnl thyroid function
evaluate for distant metastatic disease

PET/CT scan
staging and restating of thyroid cancer

radiograph

  • NOT useful to detect thyroid disease
  • may incidentally suggest thyroid enlargement/mass by noting mass effect on soft tissues or on tracheal air column
283
Q

ultrasound thyroid imaging

A

no radiation, real time, doppler capability

the BEST modality to detect/characterize nodule

best modality to detect lymph node metastasis in post-op pt of thyroid cancer
-real-time guidance for FNA biopsy

thyroid nodule on US
discrete lesion w/in the thyroid gland that is radiologically distinct from the surrounding thyroid parenchyma
–nonpalpable, incidentally discovered nodules are termed “incidentalomas”

284
Q

lymph node assessment in thyroid imaging

A

essential in setting of thyroid cancer
detection of lymph nodes

characterization- nl vs abnl

mapping:
lymph node mapping will alter the surgery in 40% of pts, as it may find abnl nodes in different compartments of the neck

285
Q

CT of the neck- nl thyroid

A

hyper dense on non-contrast

hyper vascular w/ IV contrast

radiation

need IV contrast to detect local invasion

CT:
useful to define local extension of cancer in adjacent structures
-detect abnl lymph nodes, esp in areas not visualized by US
-distant metastasis

286
Q

MRI thyroid imaging

A

useful in ID’ing infiltrative disease, esp in post-therapy neck where anatomy is distorted
-detection of invasion of adjacent structures and deep nodal tissue

T2- thyroid is slightly hyper intense

cannot differentiate solid vs cystic nodule

can’t visualize micro-calcification

expensive

287
Q

Iodine scan of thyroid imaging

A

radio iodine demonstrates distribution of functioning thyroid tissue, incl ectopic tissue

must discontinue iodine containing preparation and meds that could potentially affect the ability of thyroid to accumulate iodine to do this test

I-123 scan:
to eval the func of the thyroid nodule in pt w/ abnl thyroid function
half life 13 hrs

I-131 scan:
diagnostic and therapeutic role
half life 8 days
detect local and distant thyroid cancer metastasis
tx of hyperthyroidism as well as for well-differentiated thyroid cancer

image thyroid gland after 6hrs w/ gamma camera
calculate uptake w/ thyroid probe

nl gland takes up iodine uniformly
hot/large gland: likely Graves disease

288
Q

evaluating a cold vs hot thyroid nodule w/ I-123

A

cold:
next- do an US to determine solid vs cyst

if solid- 15-25% cancer risk
do a US guided FNA

if cystic- benign

hot:
malignancy unlikely in functioning nodule <1%
5-10% nonfunctioning nodules are cancerous

289
Q

I-131 scan in the dx and treatment of:

A

hot lymph nodes
hot lungs
nl low-level salivary gland activity

290
Q

how to reliably differential between benign and malignant thyroid disease

thyroid nodule evaluation

A

no imaging modality is reliable!!!

tissue dx by FNA should be obtained on suspicious lesions

nonpalpalble (incidentalomas) have same malignancy risk as palpable nodules of same size
generally only nodules >1cm should be evaluated
occasionally <1cm nodule needs to be evaluated based on suspicious US findings, assoc lymphadenopathy, Hx of head and neck irritation, or Hx of thyroid cancer in first degree relatives

291
Q

The imaging test of choice to evaluate a thyroid lesion size, location, and simple cyst vs not simple cyst is

What is the imaging testof choice to evaluate a patient with hyperthyroidism?

A

ultrasound

iodine scan

292
Q

to find out whether or not you should recommend something

A
search for guidelines based on:
quality of evidence
benefits vs harms
applicability (cost, resource)
pt values and preferences
293
Q

IOM (NAM) Standards- 8

A

how you should judge whether a clinical guideline is trustworthy

est transparency (process and funding explicit and public)

manage conflicts of interest (disclosure, divestment, exclusion)

group composition (multidisciplinary- methodology experts, clinicians, pts/consumers)

collaboration/coordination with systematic evidence review

establish and provide explanation for, and strength of recommendation

  • describe benefits and harms
  • summarize evidence and gaps (quality, quantity, consistency)
  • describe any influence of other factors (values, opinions, theory, clinical experience)
  • provide level of confidence/certainty, rating of strength, and explanation of difference in opinion

provide clear, standardized articulation of recommendation

external review by full spectrum of relevant stakeholders (experts, organizations, agencies, pts, public representatives

provide updating w/ monitoring of the literature and updates based on new info

294
Q

Appraisal of Guidelines for Research and Evaluation AGREE

A

Canadian

AGREE instrument assess methodological rigor and transparency w/ which a guideline is developed to:

  • assess the quality of guidelines
  • provide a methodological strategy for the development of guidelines
  • inform what info and how info ought to be reported in guidelines
295
Q

US Preventive Services Task Force USPSTF

A

independent panel of nationally recognized, non-federal experts experienced in primary care, prevention, evidence-based medicine, and research methods

charged by US Congress to:

  • review scientific evidence for clinical preventive services and
  • develop evidence-based recommendations for the health care community

recognized in the Affordable Care Act

Steps in Explicit Process

  • define the question about the providisoin of a preventive service with an analytic framework
  • define and retrieve relevant evidence
  • judge the quality of individual studies and adequacy of evidence for key questions
  • synthesize and judge the adequacy of the body of evidence across key questions
  • judge the certainty of net benefit (balance of benefits and harms)
  • link magnitude and certainty of net benefit to a recommendation statement/letter grade

—-No “Divestment” requirement- meaning I’m going to remove those stocks

16 members

  • no sub-specialists
  • no pts/advocates, but there is inclusion of consumer input

an ideal study is a randomized control trial that shows reduced morbidity/mortality for screening efforts- actually pretty rare!!

  • –screening for the diseases is rare, so you have to study 100000s of people over time to generate cases, and what drives these studies is number of cases
  • –a lot of task forces don’t have this level 1 evidence

good quality = HIGH INTERNAL VALIDITY

296
Q

evaluating the body of evidence for each key question

A

Do the studies have the appropriate research design to answer the key question?

To what extent are the studies of high quality (internal validity)?

To what extent are the studies generalizable to the US population (external validity)?

How many studies and how large have been done to answer the key question (precision of the evidence)?

How consistent are the studies?

Are there additional factors supporting conclusions?

convincing evidence is:
derived from several high-quality studies w/ consistent, logical results generalizable to the US primary care population and setting

then judge the certainty of net benefit (estimate it)

certainty = the risk of being wrong

better health outcomes = making morbidity/mortality go down

297
Q

forrest plot omega-analysis

A

whiskers- CI
if they cross RR of 1, it’s not significant

-could make a bunch of individual non-significant studies, when combined, significant.

RR = that % decrease/increase in mortality

298
Q

pros and cons of the review process for screening

A

pros:
creates recommendations based on evidence without bias
standardized set of recommendations
high bar of evidence to make recommendations

cons:
most commonly is “Insufficient” evidence
no consideration of pt values or cost/effectiveness
expensive and time consuming process
doesn’t answer the vital questions (periodicity, age to start/stop screening, effectiveness in diverse pop’s)
uncertain of how well it works in rare diseases

299
Q

define evidence based medicine

A

integration of best research evidence! w/ clinical expertise! and pt values!

best research evidence- strong to weak
systematic review of RCTs!!!!
randomized control trials!!
controlled observational studies (cohort, case control, cross-sectional)
uncontrolled observational study (case series)
physiologic and animal studies
unsystematic clinical observations, expert opinion

why EBM matters:
ID of best available evidence and integration of evidence into practice has the potential to:
improve health and well-being
avoid harms and conserve resources

300
Q

systematic review vs traditional literature reviews

A

systematic-
summary of the best available evidence to address a focused question
–use standard methods designed to reduce bias!!!!
question- focused
sources, search- explicit, comprehensive
selection- criterion-based
appraisal- critical
synthesis- systematic (narrative or quantitative)
inferences- evidence based

lit reviews-
like all research, are subject to selection and info bias
question- broad
sources, search- unspecified
selection- unspecified
appraisal- variable
synthesis- variable (narrative)
inferences- sometimes evidence-based
301
Q

pyramid of EBM resources

A

start w/ summaries and guidelines (guidelines decision analyses)

then reappraised research (systematic reviews)

then nonpreappraised research (primary studies)

302
Q

critical appraisal of systematic reviews

A

are the results valid???

  • clearly focused question (pop studies, intervention given, outcomes considered!!),
  • inclusion criteria, comprehensive search, assessed for validity
  • PICOS pop, interventions, comparisons/controls, outcomes, study design types (ideally RCT)
  • –publication bias***

are the valid results meaningful???

  • consistent results? (measuring the same thing? heterogeneity)
  • size of tx effect?
  • precision of tx effect?

are the valid, meaningful results relevant to my practice?

  • can they be applied to my pt?
  • were all important outcomes considered?
  • are benefits worth harms and costs?
303
Q

meta-analysis pros and cons

A
pros-
summary statistic (common measure of effect from different studies)

reliability- more accurate est of effect size

power- overcomes the small studies w/ small sample sizes

cons-
may inappropriately combine heterogenous studies (apples and oranges)

doesn’t control for bias

problems in interpretation of the summary statistic

304
Q

PTH actions pharm

A

PTH gland:
hypocalcemia is MAJOR stimulus for release
Vit D and high Ca INHIBIT PTH release via distinct receptors

intestine:
high Ca abs via increased 1-25 Vit D synthesis

bone:
activates OCs–> increase bone remodeling
acute effect: increase bone resorption –> increase serum Ca

kidney:
increased reabs of Ca at DCT
increased excretion of PO4

305
Q

loop diuretics vs thiazide diuretics on plasma Ca

A

loop diuretics:
decrease plasma Ca

thiazide diuretics:
increase plasma Ca

306
Q

Vitamin D actions pharm

A

PT gland:
decreased release of PTH (via feedback inhibition of PTH synthesis)

intestine:
increased synthesis of Ca binding protein and channel
-enhanced dietary abs of Ca and PO4

bone:
induce RANK-L in OBs- role in bone mineralization

kidney:
decreased excretion of Ca and PO4

UV light:
makes pre D3
heat:
makes D3 cholecalciferol (preferred over D2)

kidney:
takes 25-D3 (calcidiol) from liver—option in liver disease!!
takes D2 (ergocalciferol)

makes 1,25-D3 (calcitriol) –choice in renal disease

307
Q

Vit D preparations pharm

A

Vit D3-
cholecalciferol
preferred over other Vit D metabolites for repletion- modest cost

Vit D2-
ergocalciferol (from plants)
less efficient in elevating 25-OHD levels than D3 in repletion states

1,25-Vit D3 
calcitriol
active form of Vit D
most useful in CKD and Vit D dependent rickets!!!!
rapid onset of action, t1/2 6 hrs

25-OH Vit D
calcidiol
not readily available in US
useful in pts w/ liver disease***

Dihydrotachysterol
activated by hepatic 25-OH - equivalent to 1-OHD3 in function
can be used in disorders where calcitriol is used

308
Q

med options for treating hyperparathyroidism pharm

A

calcimimetic drug-
Cinacalcet!!!!!!
—-decrease PTH release
bind to Ca-sensing receptor CaSR in PT gland
-increases sensitivity of CaSR to Ca–> reduced release of PTH (no hypercalcemia!!!)— no effect on D3 in gut, and no effect on OC/OB activation
complementary mech to Vit D and analogs that target the VDR
used in secondary hyperparathyroidism!! and non-surgical pts in primary hyperparathyroidism!!!

anti-resorptive bone drug
-Bisphosphonate!!
Denosumab!!!

309
Q

Vitamin D analogs pharm

A

Calcitriol analogs: paracalcitol!!!
inhibits PTH release from gland via action at D3 receptor (VDR)
used in secondary hyperparathyroidism!

does NOT increase Ca abs or mobilization from bone— NO hypercalcemia

clinical advantage over calcitriol is uncertain

310
Q

calcitonin regulation on pharm

A

it’s a secondary regulator

the calcitonin cells are in thyroid gland, and if you get them removed (during hyperthyroidism surgery fix) there’s no major effect on Ca homeostasis

released from parafollicular cells of thyroid–> primary stimulus for release is hypercalcemia!

bone:
inhibits OC bone resorption

kidney:
increases Ca and PO4 excretion

311
Q

estrogen actions on bone pharm

A

positive effect on bone mass-
agonist at ERalpha receptors on OBs and OCs
-estrogens directly regulate OBs- cause differentiation and decreased apoptosis

MAJOR EFFECT of estrogens–>
decrease number and activity of OCs

  • –estrogens INCREASE OB production of osteoprotegerin OPG!!!
  • OPG is a decoy receptor- binds RANK-L and prevents OC activation!!!!

low estrogen in post-menopauses causes:
longer lifespan of OCs and shorter of OBs/osteocytes
–> more bone resorption- more fragile bones- bone fractures!!

312
Q

glucocorticoid actions on bones pharm

A

glucocorticoids decrease bone density

lowering of serum Ca (antagonist Vit D effect on gut) –> increase in PTH then stimulates OC activity

increase production of RANK-L by OBs and decrease OPG–> increase OC activity –> increase bone resorption!!!

risk of osteoporosis!!! when GCs used for inflammation

  • dose/duration dependent
  • adequate Ca/VitD intake is essential

plus suppressive effects on osteoblasts!!

313
Q

bone formation review

A

PTH and Vit D are on both sides of the OB and OC cell activators

RANK-L increases OCs

OPG decreases OCs

OB precursors are required for maturation of OCs!!!, which then enhance maturation of OBs

RANK-L is on the OB precursor

314
Q

Adverse Rxns of Warfarin on bones pharm

A

Warfarin is a Vitamin K antagonist

can cause GI problems, but also OSTEOPOROSIS

contraindicated in pregnancy (crosses placenta)

315
Q

osteoporosis tx strategy pharm

A

alter bone remodeling

decrease bone resorption OR increase bone formation - meds do one or the other

anti-resorptive agents:
Bisphosphonates!!! (end in -dronate!!!)
Denosumab
Raloxifine
Calcitonin
Estrogens

Anabolic agents:
Teriparatide

316
Q

actions of anti-resorptive agents pharm

A

anti-osteoclast

increase OPG synthesis
-estrogen
Raloxifine

decrease RANK-L
Denosumab

decrease OC activity
BISPHOSPHONATES
-ex. Alendronate

317
Q

Bisphosphonates pharm

A

ex Alendronate, Risedronate, Ibandronate, Zoledronate

MOA:
pyrophosphate analogs w/ high affinity for bone at Ca-P interphase

BPs bind to active site of bone remodeling– direct inhibitory effects on OC!

  • induce OC ptosis
  • inhibits prenylation or proteins necessary for OX func
  • buried in bone, recycled when resorptive site undergoes remodeling- may persist 10+ yrs

Q week or more-
the med has phosphoric acid in it and you don’t want that coming up the esophagus
–take on empty stomach and remain upright- abs problems

ADRs:
GI irritation, esp esophagus
osteonecrosis of the jaw

currenlyt the MOST effective drug for tx/prevention of osteoporosis

318
Q

SERM meds in tx of osteoporosis pharm

A

SERM- Raloxifine
SERM (Bazedoxifene) + Estrogen

SERMS- selective estrogen receptor agonists

agonists on bone-liver,
inactive-antagonist on uterus
antagonist on breast

SERMS reduce risk of osteoporotic fractures, but less efficacy than estrogen or BPs

SERM + estrogen showed greater increases in BMD than SERM alone

advantages vs estrogen:
reduced risk of breast cancer and coronary events

disadvantages:
worsening of menopause vasomotor symptoms (leg cramps)
((NOT SERM + estrogen though))
–0% risk of breast-endometrial-ovarian cancer
—RISK of VTE disorders

choice in pts intolerant of BPs and at increased risk of invasive breast cancer risk

319
Q

estrogens treating osteoporosis pharm

A

reduce bone resorption via inhibitory effects on OCs
-most effective <5yrs after menopause

benefit possibly outweighs by:
increased risk of heart disease, breast cancer, stroke, VTE

Estrogen should be limited to women w/ significant vasomotor symptoms who are not at risk for heart disease!

320
Q

Denosumab pharm

A

prevent/tx osteoporosis

MOA:
humanized monoclonal Ab against RANKL
reduces OC activation improving bone mineral density

subQ injection every 6mo

ADRS:
Generally well tolerated- hypocalcemia possible

Role:
tx of pts at high risk for fractures- intolerant or non-responsive to other threrapies

321
Q

Calcitonin pharm

A

tx osteoporosis

MOA:
inhibition of OC bone resorption
modest inc in bone mass- less effective than the others

given via nasal spray or SC

ADRS:
Nausea, hand-swelling, urticaria,
concern w/ inc cancer rates

role:
FDA approved for tx, but not prevention of osteoporosis- use is declining

322
Q

Teriparatide pharm

A

prevent/tx osteoporosis

MOA:
only agent for tx of osteoporosis that STIMULATES BONE FORMATION- all other tx are anti-resorptive

continuous high levels–> bone demineralization and osteopenia (the OBs will activate OCs)

intermittent admin- increases OB activity and bond formation!!!

daily subQ injection

ADRs:
Nausea, HA, dizziness, muscle cramps

Role:
tx of severe osteoporosis in postmenopausal women and men at high risk of fractures

323
Q

Sclerotin pharm

A

secreted by osteocytes

inhibits bone formation by blocking OB differentiation!!!!

stimulates RANKL expression w/ subsequent stimulation of OC formation

Sclerotin antibodies- Romosozumab
increases bone formation and inhibits resorption

324
Q

thyroid development

A

1st endocrine gland to develo

arises from 2 distinct embryogenic lineages:

follicular cells- endodermal pharynx
prod thyroxine

parafollicular C cells- neural crest
prod Calcitonin

gland originates as proliferation of endodermal epi cells on median surface of pharyngeal floor between 1st and 2nd arches

initially hollow
solidifies and becomes bilobed

connected to tongue via thyroglossal duct (foramen cecum) as it begins initial descent

  • completes descent in 7th gestational week
  • begins to trap maternal iodide and secrete THs at 10-12 weeks
  • H-P-thyroid axis fictional at midgestation and feedback control evident by 25 weeks

both TSH and T4 gradually increase to term

within 30min after birth, TSH rises to 60-80microU
TSH results in inc T4 and T3 levels by 24hrs

325
Q

arrested thyroid migration

A

lingual, sublingual, or ectopic thyroid gland anywhere around the neck
-not enough cells, can’t grow to nl size

326
Q

fetal hypothyroidism

A

if fetus doesn’t make TH

placenta allows small passage of maternal T4
fetal brain rich in Type 2 deiodinase converts T4–>T3

both of these play critical roles in minimizing adverse effects of fetal hypothyroidism

327
Q

congenital hypothyroidism

causes

A

low TH from birth

  • assoc w/ irreversible neuro/growth problems if not detected/tx early
  • newborn screening allows for early detection

causes:
-defect in thyroid gland- thyroid dysgenesis

-defect in TH synthesis- thyroid dyshormonogenesis

TSH resistance

transient forms

central (hypothalamic/pituitary deficiency)

328
Q

thyroid dysgenesis

A

85% of all congenital hypothyroidism cases

aplasia, hypoplasia, or ectopy

probably some underlying genetic component

PAX8 defect***
-auto dom, varied phenotype, can have compensated or overt hypothyroidism, few assoc w/ renal agenesis

TITF1 defect***
also expressed in lung, forebrain, and pituitary gland
-humans w/ heater mutations assoc w/ combos of CH, resp distress, neuro disorders

TITF2 defect***
homozygous mutations= Bamforth-Lazarus Syndrome
CH, cleft palate, spiky hair, variably bifid epiglottis and choanal atresia

329
Q

thyroid dyshormonogenesis

A

accounts for 10-15% of congenital hypothyroidism

auto recessive

Goiter may be present

mutations in genes coding for proteins involved in TH synthesis

330
Q

Pendred syndrome

A

mutation of gene SLC26A4
encodes pendrin, a protein that mediates iodide efflux from follicular cell to colloid

auto recessive

assoc w/ goiter and sensorineural congenital deafness!!

thyroid phenotype mild
appears to depend on nutritional iodine intake
seldom presents in newborn period

331
Q

TSH resistance

A

mutation in TSH receptor

TSHR encodes transmembrane receptor- which mediates effects of TSH
critical for development and function of thyroid gland

hetero mutation- partial resistance
nl size gland
TSH elevation

homo mutation-
CH w/ hypoplastic gland
decreased T4 synthesis

defective TSH signaling!!

transient forms:
maternal TSH receptor-blocking antibodies
maternal iodine deficiency/excess
maternal radiodine admin
maternal meds
–Amiodarone, propylthiouracil, methimazole

332
Q

congenital central hypothyroidism

A

hypothalamic or pituitary deficiency

usually occurs in setting of multiple pituitary hormone deficiencies

need to eval other pituitary hormones and obtain cranial MRI

333
Q

signs/symptoms of congenital hypothyroidism

A

baby usually appears entirely nl for a few weeks

large posterior fontanel
prolonged jaundice
macroglossia
umbilical hernia
hypotonia
feeding difficulties
hoarse cry
334
Q

newborn screening and dx of congenital hypothyroidism

A

screen-
best 2-3 days of age

2 different screening methods:

primary T4-
if T4 is in lowest 10% of results that day, TSH will also be measured
-if TSH>20, considered abnl and call PCP
-if TSH<20, not call PCP but could still be abnl

primary TSH screen

Dx
if abnl screen, draw confirmatory labs
-in infants w/ proven CH, 90% have TSH >50
75% have T4 <6.5

335
Q

what to measure w/ thyroid hormones

A

complicated by high degree of protein binding of T4 and T3
T4 bound by TBG, TBPA, and Albumin
–deficient and excess thyroid binding proteins cause changes in values of total thyroid hormones

free hormone is active
its measurement is theoretically most useful assessment of thyroid func

some assays may give inaccurate results in presence of extreme variations in the conc’s of these proteins

336
Q

assessing T3 uptake

A

if T3 uptake and T4 are in same direction-
Thyroid disease
(ex hypothyroid)

if T3 uptake and T4 are opposite-
TBG abnormality
(ex high uptake and low T4= TBG deficient)

337
Q

treatment of congenital hypothyroidism

A

start tx w/ levothyroxine ASAP!!!

have parents crush tablet- don’t have pharmacy make suspension

monitor 4 weeks later, then every 3 months for first 3yrs

early and high dose tx give you excellent outcomes! :)

338
Q

Levothyroixine pharm

A

synthetic T4
2nd most frequently prescribed in US
narrow therapeutic index drug

bioavailability best in ileum-colon
abs may be impaired in severe myxedema

empty stomach w/ water before breakfast

drugs that can impair abs:
metal ions (antacids, Ca and Fe supplements)
Ciprofloxaxin, bile acid sequestrates
–avoid interaction by spacing levo dose between other drugs

resolution of symptoms begins within 2-3 weeks (T4 half life is 7 days)
requires 6-8 weeks maintenance to reach steady state plasma levels

-use causing initiating therapy if underlying cardiac disease exists! (overstimulation of the heart)

increase dose in pregnancy due to:
inc TBG levels (via increased estrogen)
decreased free T4,T3- no intact gland to increase production
-increased placental metabolism of T4,T3
avg doses increase 25%

no evidence to support superiority w/ any brand names
pharmacists can switch products unless prescriber indicates “dispense as written”-
advisable to use same T4 product throughout treatment for any pt

339
Q

drug effects on plasma-protein binding

ones that increase and decrease binding

A

increase binding:
Estrogens/ SERMS

Decrease binding:
anticonvulsants
phenytoin-carbamazepine

340
Q

T4–> T3 conversion inhibition by drugs pharm

A

the activating enzyme (type 1 or 2 deiodinase) is inhibited by:

glucocorticoids
beta blockers
(amiodarone)
propylthiouracil (in higher doses)

341
Q

treat myxedema pharm

A

acute medical emergency w/ low Na, low glucose, hypothermia, shock, death

large doses of T4 required
IV loading dose!! followed by daily IV dosing

hydrocortisone to prevent adrenal crisis as T4 may increase endogenous hydrocortisone metabolism

342
Q

levothyroxine alternatives
Liothyronine
Liotrix
Thyroid USP

A

Liothyronine- synthetic T3
-wel abs, rapid action
shorter duration that permits quicker dose adjustments
—–NOT recommended for routine replacement due to short half life
HIGH COST
—–AVOID in pts w/ cardiac disease (cardiotoxicity)
—–may inc risk of osteoporosis

Liotrix
4:1 mix of T4:T3
not advantage
more expensive
rarely required, not recommended 
may lower TSH and increase markers of bone turnover

Thyroid USP
dessicated porcine thyroid extract containing T3 and T4
-abs is same as non-combo products
——disadvantages:
variable T4/T3 ratio and content (toxicities!!!)
protein antigenicity
product instability
-less desirable than levo- should be AVOIDED for use in hypothyroidism

343
Q

treatment of graves disease pharm

A
meds:
interfering with hormone production:
antithyroid drugs- methimazole!!!
thionamides
iodides
inhibits synthesis of TH

modifying tissue response: symptomatic improvement
beta blockers-
reduce systemic hyperadrenergic symptoms and effects (tremor, palpitations, etc)
corticosteroids

glandular destruction:
radioactive iodine
surgery

344
Q

methimazole and Propylthiouracil “PTU” pharm

A

Thionamide
inhibits thyroid peroxidase
prevents T4/T3 synthesis

beta blockers alleviates symptoms until thionamide takes effect

only for thyrotoxicosis from excess production (Gravies- high RAI)
NOT excess release (low RAI)

Methimazole 100% abs; PTU is incomplete

both cross placenta and concentrated by fetal thyroid
-requires pregnancy caution (PTU crosses less readily- more protein bound)

short half lives but accumulate in thryoid-
clinical actions are longer

effective alone IF:
small goiter, low level of anti-TSH receptor Ab, and mild-moderate hyperthyroidism
-remission/recurrence is common

ADRs:
3-12% pruritic rash, GI intolerance, arthralgias
agranulocytosis (dangerous, but rare)
—-PTU: hepatotoxicity (rare but serious)

overall:
Methimazole generally preferred:
efficacy at lower doses, once-daily dose, and lower side effect incidence

PTU is safer for fetus/breastfeeding

345
Q

super saturated KI - SSKI

and Lugol’s soln (KI)

A

complex action, transient effect of high doses

inhibits T4-T3 synthesis (via elevated intracellular Iodide)

inhibits T4-T3 release (via elevated plasma Iodide)- blocks TG proteolysis

rapid onset- used in severe thyrotoxicosis (THYROID STORM)
-also used to decrease size and vascularity of hyperplastic gland prior to surgery

ADRs:
acneform rash, rhinorrhea, metallic taste, swollen salivary glands

disadvantages:
variable effects (some have no response)
rapid reversal of inhibitory effect when withdrawn
potential to prod new T3- worsen hyperthyroidism!

346
Q

radioactive iodine I-131 pharm

A

admin orally, rapidly abs, and concentrates in thyroid

beta-radiation causes slow inflammatory process that destroys parenchyma of gland over weeks-months

advantages:
easy admin
effective
low cost
no pain
disadvantages:
slow onset and time to peak
radiation thyroiditis- CV complications in elderly
may worsen opthalmopathy
major complication is HYPOthyroidism

NOT FOR PREGNANT or nursing women

no radiation-induced genetic damage, leukemia, or neoplasia

surgery- less common as I-131 is becoming better benefit:risk ratio
-50-60% of pts require thyroid supplementation after surgery due to iatrogenic hypothyroidism

347
Q

thyroid storm treatment pharm

A

control symptoms
inhibit release of preformed thyroid hormones
block T4–>T3 conversion

meds:
PROPANOLOL- controls CVS symptoms AND blocks T4–>T3

NaI or KI admin to slow hormone release
–best way to decrease release!!

PTU slows hormone release AND blocks T4–>T3

hydrocortisone protects against shock AND blocks T4–>T3 AND modulates immune response

348
Q

diabetes and mood

A

depression is 2-3x greater than general public
-worsens control of blood sugar

bipolar also increases risk of DM2
-higher obesity
-treatments (ex mood stabilizers)
sleep apnea worsens w/ insulin resistance

349
Q

hypercortisolism and psych

A

psych symptoms may predate physical symptoms

depressive- most common
anxiety
hypomanic/manic symptoms
psychosis
memory problems
350
Q

Calcium levels and psych

A
hyperparathyroidism with hypercalcemia***
common:
irritability, low mood, apathy, lethargy
severe:
delirium, psychosis, catatonia, coma
hypocalcemia:
common:
anxiety, paresthesias, irritability
severe:
psychosis, manic symptoms, tetany, seizures

you can have psychosis w/ both types of hypo and hyper calcemia

351
Q

Addison’s and Acromegaly psych

A

Addisons:
apathy, anhedonia, fatigue, depression

Acromegaly:
irritability/mood lability
depressive symptoms
personality changes***

352
Q

thyroid and psych problems

A

hypothyroidism:
depression
lethargy (major issue)!!
forgetfulness (can be confused w/ dementia!!!)
psychosis (later stages after physical symptoms)

subclinical hypothyroidism:
treatment-resistant depression
supplementation can improve depressive symptoms w/o evidence of hypothyroidism
--can worsen depression in bipolar 
--supplementaion is still controversial

hyperthyroidism:
anxiety**
depressive disorder
**
pts who become manic when thyrotoxic usually have underlying mood disorder or positive FHx for bipolar

353
Q

pregnancy and psych

A

some pregnancies are followed by postpartum thyroiditis- which may result in permanent hypothyroidism

postpartum depression= major depressive episode, severe, w/ permpartum onset
—-may be due to thyroid disease

thyroiditis: hyper —> hypo

most recover to euthyroid state

may be confused w/ postpartum depression,
or Graves disease relapse

Sheehan syndrome is rare

354
Q

worrisome growth intro

A

poor growth may be 1st/only sing of underlying health problem

consequences of missed dx incl permanent height deficits

always measure height/weight and plot them! (double check measurements)
–WHO growth chart is preferable

growth can be worrisome about:
height (<2 SD’s or 3.5” below mid parental target)
growth velocity (abnl slow linear growth or dropping across 2 major percentile lines)

355
Q

how to calculate midparental target height

A

boys:
(mom’s height + 5” + father’s height) / 2

girls:
(mom’s height + father’s height - 5”) / 2

356
Q

when do children start their growth spurts

skeletal maturation

A

girls-
avg puberty age is 10-10.5 (breasts, not period)
-big growth spurt at onset

boys-
11
-growth spurt mid-puberty

skeletal maturation

  • skeletal maturation correlates w/ time of epiphyseal closure
  • greater bone age delay = longer time before the plates fuse closed
  • height predictions can be made using height and bone age–not accurate in growth disorders or pubertal tempo
357
Q

causes of short stature/abnormal growth

A

normal/physiologic
Familial short stature
constitutional growth delay

Pathological:

Nutritional**

Endocrine:

  • -Hypothyroid***
  • -GH deficiency***
  • -Cushing
  • -Rickets

Chromosomal:
Turner***
Down
Prader-Wili

skeletal dysplasias

Small for gestational age***

drugs
glucocorticoids
stimulants

358
Q

familial short stature

A

nl growth velocity and height within nl limits for parents’ heights

initially have decrease in growth rate between 6-18mo, then maintain a single trajectory

**no further fall off after first 2 yrs

359
Q

constitutional growth delay

A

“late bloomer”

growth deceleration during first 2 yrs
followed by nl growth paralleling lower percentile

skeletal maturation is delayed

**catch-up growth achieved by late puberty and delayed fusion of growth plates

generally end up along lower-normal of family range

reassurance of nl growth pattern

can tx boys w/ testosterone if bone age >=11.5 to avoid compromising final height (kickstart puberty)

can tx girls w/ estrogen (not as common)

360
Q

failure to thrive

A

infants or toddlers <2yo w/:

deceleration of weight gain to <3% or
fall across 2 major centile lines

non-organic causes most common-
poor nutrition and psychosocial factors

may look like constitutional growth delay, but this is a primary WEIGHT issue- weight falls off before height

361
Q

nutritional growth retardation

A

linear growth stunting form poor weight gain in children >2yo

may be 2/2 systemic illness (Celiac, IBD), stimulant meds

sometimes hard to distinguish from constitutional growth delay and constitutional thinness

362
Q

hormonal causes of worrisome growth

A

generally, weight is spared (may appear chubby, not underweight)- short fatties

hypothyroidism (often acquired)
-growth response is good w/ meds

GH/IGF-1 abnormalities
*Abnl growth velocity w/ exclusion of other causes
Congenital-
-hypothalamic-pituitary malformations
---holoprosencephaly (forebrain)
---Schizencephaly (cleft problems)
---Isolated cleft lip or palate
---Septo-optic dysplasia (midline brain abnl; blindness, developmental delay)
---optic nerve hypoplasia
---empty sella syndrome
Acquired:
Trauma
CNS infection/meningitis
Hypophysitis (autoimmune at pituitary stalk)
CNS tumors- craniopharyngioma, germinoma
Cranial irridation- for other cancers

Cushing (commonly from steroids)
Rickets

363
Q

GH/IGF-1 abnormalities in growth

A

Abnl growth velocity w/ exclusion of other

causes

Congenital-

  • hypothalamic-pituitary malformations
  • –holoprosencephaly (forebrain)
  • –Schizencephaly (cleft problems)
  • –Isolated cleft lip or palate
  • –Septo-optic dysplasia (midline brain abnl; blindness, developmental delay)
  • –optic nerve hypoplasia
  • –empty sella syndrome
Acquired:
Trauma
CNS infection/meningitis
Hypophysitis (autoimmune at pituitary stalk)
CNS tumors- craniopharyngioma, germinoma
Cranial irridation- for other cancers
decreased muscle build
increased subQ fat, esp around trunk
face immature for age**
prominent forehead, depressed mid face
M small penis
other midline facial defects
may have hx of prolonged jaundice, hypoglycemia in newborn period

evaluate:
Bone age
random, single GH not useful
IGF-1:
may be low in malnutrition regardless of GH status
IFGBP-3 less affected by nutrition, may be better in young children

stimulating test:
Clonidine, Arginine, Glucagon, L-dopa
–look for peak of 10= nl

364
Q

syndromic shot stature

A

chromosomal

skeletal dysplasia and other genetic syndromes

Turner syndrome- haploinsufficiency of SHOX gene

Prader-Wili- GH deficient

Noonan syndrome- abnl GH post-receptor signaling

365
Q

Turner syndrome

A

most common sex chromosome abnormality of Females

complete or partial absence of 1 X chromosome

virtually all have short stature

final height ~20cm less than target height if untreated

Haploinsufficiency of SHOX genes are responsible for skeletal and growth abnormalities

GH therapy has been shown to sig improve growth and final adult height

starting tx early is important- best potential for growth

clinical findings:
may be subtle so dx is often delayed 
skeletal:
short stature
increased carrying angle
short neck
micro or retognathia 
lymphatic obstruction:
lymphedema
low hairline "trident sign"
webbed neck
cardiac- bicuspid aortic valve, coarctation
renal- horseshoe kidney
ovarian insufficiency
hypothyroidism/Celiac
otitis media (ear infections)
hearing loss
non-verbal learning disability
366
Q

small for gestational age

A

< 2 SD’s for birth weight or length

etiologies:
maternal- infection, nutritional deficiencies, uterine abnormalities, smoking, alcohol, drugs
placental
fetal

most healthy infants born SGA achieve catch-up by 2yo
10-15% remain short
-final height may also be compromised by early/rapid puberty

GH tx is FDA-approved for SGA who fail to catch u by 2yo
may inc final height by ~3in

367
Q

MEN syndromes

A
MEN1
AD
Menin gene
Pituitary adenoma
Parathyroid adenoma or hyperplasia
Pancreatic endocrine neoplasm/islet cell tumor
MEN2A
AD
RET gene
Medullary thyroid carcinoma and C cell hyperplasia
Parathyroid hyperplasia
Pheochromocytoma
MEN2B
AD
RET gene
Medullaryy thyroid carcinoma and C cell hyperplasia
Pheochromocytoma
Diffuse ganglioneuromatosis of GI tract
Marfanoid body habitus