Unit 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Amnestic

A

Pertaining to the loss of memory

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2
Q

Analgesia

A

Condition without pain

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3
Q

Anticholinergic

A

An agent that blocks the action of acetylcholine

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4
Q

Antisialagogue

A

Agent that inhibits mucous secretions of respiratory and digestive tracts

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5
Q

Aspiration

A

Condition in which gastric contents enter the lungs

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6
Q

State the purposes of the preoperative anesthesia evaluation

A

Gather pertinent patient information to determine optimal anesthetic plan
Confirm surgical diagnosis
Assess concurrent medical conditions
Identify patient’s current medications

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7
Q

List the components of a preoperative evaluation.

A

Patient questionnaire
Follow up personal interview with anesthesiologist
Pre-anesthesia physical exam

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8
Q

Identify classification of preoperative medications

A
Sedatives
     Relieve anxiety
          midazolam (Versed)
Analgesics
     Relieve pain
          meperidine (Demerol)
Anticholinergics
     Inhibit mucous secretions 
          Atropine
Gastric agents
     Reduce risk of nausea and vomiting which might lead to aspiration
     Minimize damage if aspiration occurs
Antacids
     Neutralize gastric acid present
          sodium citrate (Bicitra)
Antiemetics
     Reduce nausea and risk of postoperative vomiting 
Gastrokinetic
     Reduce gastric fluid volume
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9
Q

Capnometry

A

Measurement of carbon dioxide exhaled by patient

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10
Q

Local anesthesia

A

Parenteral administration of an anesthetic agent to nerve endings in the immediate surgical site

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11
Q

MAC

A

Monitored anesthesia care

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12
Q

Pulse oximetry

A

measure of the oxygen saturation of blood

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13
Q

Regional anesthesia

A

Technique used to accomplish both sensory and motor block to an entire area of the body

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14
Q

Pulse oximeter

A

Assess respiratory function

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15
Q

Sphygmomanometer

A

Measure of the force of blood against the vessel walls

Monitor cardiovascular status

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16
Q

BP – blood pressure

A

Instrument to measure patient’s temperature

Detect hypothermia or hyperthermia; Used to check effectiveness of heat loss prevention measures

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17
Q

Capnometer

A

Device to measure carbon dioxide (CO2) exhaled by patient

Assess respiratory function; adequate ventilation; and early detection of compromised ventilation or MH

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18
Q

Consciousness monitor

A

Modified EEG that records patient’s brain activity

To assess patient’s level of awareness under general anesthesia

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19
Q

nerve stimulator

A

A device that stimulates a nerve and measures response

Assess extent of motor blockade for intubation and surgical

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20
Q

List themost common local anesthetic agents used in surgery.

A

Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
bupivacaine (Marcaine, Sensorcaine)
ropivacaine (Naropin)

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21
Q

State safety considerations for use of epinephrine in local anesthetic agents.

A

Know purpose for each concentration of epinephrine
Know route for each concentration of epinephrine
Read and verify all medication labels before accepting

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22
Q

List and state the type of regional blocks

A

Spinal anesthesia (aka. intrathecal)
Blocks pain and motor response to the entire lower body
Injected through the dura into subarachnoid space, usually not higher than L3-L4
Epidural anesthesia
A regional anesthetic technique that blocks pain to the entire lower body
Injected outside the dura
Used for labor and delivery; Cesarean section; or for post-op pain control
Peripheral nerve block (aka. extremity block)
Provides motor and sensory block to an arm or leg
Injected into a nerve plexus supplying a limb
Also used whenever there is an increase risk of complications for the patient if using general
Intravenous regional anesthesia (IVRA) aka. Bier block
Provides motor and sensory block to an extremity, usually the arm
A double-cuff tourniquet is applied at the proximal arm
An IV cannula is inserted into a vein in the hand
The cuff of the tourniquet is inflated
Agent injected into IV cannula, filling the veins of the arm
Tourniquet keeps agent in the arm

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23
Q

Intubation

A

Process of placing an endotracheal tube

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24
Q

Extubation

A

Removal of an endotracheal tube

25
Q

LMA

A

Laryngeal masked airway

An airway that is placed over the larynx

26
Q

RSI

A

Rapid sequence induction

A process used to secure and control the airway quickly

27
Q

State indications for general anesthesia.

A
The surgical procedure to be performed
      Multiple sites, like  a skin graft, bone graft, breast reconstruction
     Need for motionless field
     Long duration
     Thoracic and most abdominal procedures
The individual patient
     Age (all pediatrics)
     Impaired cognitive ability
     Mental/emotional state
     Patient preference when possible
28
Q

List options for airway management.

A

Mask
LMA
Endotracheal (ET) tube

29
Q

Outline steps in the process of endotracheal intubation.

A

Patient’s muscles relaxed with neuromuscular blocker
Laryngoscope inserted; view vocal cords
Intubate (insert ET tube); inflate cuff PRN
Ventilate (O2 & inhalation agents)
Assess lung sounds and secure tube

30
Q

State facts regarding the concept of awareness under anesthesia.

A

Awareness under anesthesia is a condition that may occur when the patient does NOT demonstrate characteristic physiologic responses to pain and/or inadequate depth of consciousness, resulting in direct recall of events during surgery in other words failure of general anesthesia to render a patient insensate
Unpredictable; unknown cause
Those affected
About 1/2 report auditory recall
About 1/2 report sensation of being unable to breathe
About 1/3 recall pain
When patients have explicit recall of events; may have devastating patient results – such as PTSD
What can a student do?
NEVER make personal or insulting comments about a patient or negative comments about the procedure
Set a good example
Do not participate in or encourage inappropriate conversations
Be an agent for positive change

31
Q

Identify drug source, category, and purpose for papavarine.

A

Source: opium poppy
Category: It is a smooth-muscle relaxant
Purpose: Used to dilate small blood vessels that require anastomosis
Such as in CABG

32
Q

albuterol

A

Category: a Beta adrenergic agonist
purpose: treat Bronchospasm (relaxes bronchial smooth muscle)

33
Q

dopamine

A

category: an Adrenergic agonist
purpose: Anaphylaxis (treat hypotension)

34
Q

succinylcholine

A

category: a depolarizing muscle relaxant
purpose: Laryngospasm (enable reintubation)

35
Q

epinephrine

A

category: hormone, adrenergic agonist, vasopressor
purpose: Anaphylaxis (raise blood pressure)
Cardiac arrest (strengthen force and rate of contractions)

36
Q

dantrolene

A

category: a skeletal muscle relaxant
purpose: Malignant hyperthermia (reverse muscle contractions)

37
Q

Intravenous induction agents

A
Produce unconsciousness
Sedatives (Benzodiazepines)
     Valium, Versed, Ativan
Hypnotics (Barbiturates)
     methohexital (Brevital), ketamine (Ketalar), etomidate (Amidate), propofol (Diprivan)
38
Q

Analgesics

A
Prevent perception of pain
acetaminophen (Ofirmev; an IV form)
Natural opioid:
     morphine
Synthetic opioids:
     fentanyl (Sublimaze), alfentanil (Alfenta), sufentanil (Sufenta), remifentanil (Ultiva)
39
Q

Inhalation agents

A
Produce unconsciousness
Prevent motor response to painful stimuli
     Nitrous oxide
     isoflurane (Forane)
     desflurane (Suprane)
     sevoflurane (Ultane)
40
Q

Neuromuscular blockers

A

Relax muscles for intubation and surgical procedure
Depolarizing
succinylcholine (Anectine)
Non-depolarizing
Tracrium, Mivacron, Pavulon, Zemuron, Nimbex, Norcuron

41
Q

Reversal agents

A

Counteract the action of a specific agent
For opioids:
naloxone (Narcan), nalmefene (Revex), naltrexone (ReVia, Trexan)
For benzodiazepines:
flumazenil (Mazicon)
For non-depolarizing muscle relaxants:
neostigmine (Prostigmine), edrophonium (Tensilon)

42
Q

State each phase of general anesthesia and indicate beginning and ending of each phase.

A

First phase is Pre-induction
Begins When patient is admitted to preoperative area and continues when patient transferred to OR; monitors applied; pre-oxygenation
Ends At the initial administration of anesthetic agents
Second phase is Induction begins
Begins With administration of anesthetic agents
Ends When airway is secured and adequate depth of anesthesia is achieved
Third phase is Maintenance
Begins When airway is secured/stable and adequate depth of anesthesia is achieved; agents given PRN
Ends Conclusion of surgical procedure
Fourth phase is Emergence
Begins At end of surgical procedure
Agents discontinued or allowed to wear off, patient begins to awaken, airway removed (PRN)
Ends when the patient is Transported to PACU
Fifth phase is Recovery
Begins When patient is admitted to PACU
Patient fully awakens, vital signs must be stable before discharge
Ends Upon PACU discharge

43
Q

Sedatives

A
Relieve anxiety
benzodiazepines:
     Diazepam (Valium)
     Iorazepam (Ativan)
     Midazolam (Versed) most commonly used
44
Q

Analgesics

A

Relieve pain
Opiod (Natural Drug)
Morphine (Astramorph, Duramorph) which is made using poppy plants.
Opiod (Synthetic Drug)
Meperidine (Demerol) which relieves pain for 2-4 hours

45
Q

Anticholinergics

A
Inhibit mucous secretions
useful if patient has Brady cardia because it can increase heart rate 
     atropine
     glycopyrrolate (Robinul)
     scopolamine
46
Q

Gastric agents

A

Purpose varies by subcategory of agents, so individual subcategories are listed for you on objective sheet
Overall it is used to reduce risk of nausea and vomiting which might lead to aspiration
Minimize damage if aspiration occurs

47
Q

Antacid

A

Neutralize gastric acid present
sodium citrate (Bicitra)
Tums

48
Q

H2 receptor antagonists

A

Block production of gastric acid

famotidine (Pepcid), ranitidine (Zantac)

49
Q

Proton pump inhibitors

A
omeprazole (Prilosec)
lansoprazole (Prevacid)
esomeprazole (Nexium)
Pantoprazole (Protonix)
Rabeprazole (AcipHex)
50
Q

Antiemetics

A

Reduce nausea and risk of postoperative vomiting (PONV)
ondansetron (Zofran)
Droperidol (Inapsine)

51
Q

Anaphylaxis

A

Severe, life-threatening allergic reaction

52
Q

Asystole

A

Absence of electrical activity in the heart.

53
Q

Diaphoresis

A

condition characterized by excessive or heavy sweating with no clear cause.

54
Q

Pyrexia

A

Rapid increase in body temperature

55
Q

List emergency situations associated with anesthesia.

A
Anaphylaxis
Transfusion (hemolytic) reaction
Bronchospasm sudden constriction of the bronchioles.
Laryngospasm
Cardiac arrest
Malignant hyperthermia
56
Q

Explain the role of the surgical technologist during a cardiac emergency in surgery.

A
First scrub
     Cover surgical wound
     Prepare internal defibrillator paddles (if open chest)
     Cardiac compressions
Second scrub
     Obtain crash cart
     Call for help 
     Document event, meds and time
     Assist anesthesiologist as directed
Surgical First Assistant
     Perform compressions
     Close incision PRN
     Record event
          Documents all the medications, their dosages and time they were administered.
57
Q

List the clinical signs of malignant hyperthermia.

A

Increase in end-tidal carbon dioxide (CO2)
Tachycardia-rapid heart rate
Tachypnea-rapid breathing
Muscle rigidity (e.g. masseter muscle rigidly)
Unstable blood pressure
Arrhythmias-is a condition where the heart is experiencing irregular rhythms or beats.
Cyanosis-bluish skin, as a result of low oxygen level
Diaphoresis-is an abnormal condition characterized by excessive sweating.
Pyrexia-is a condition that causes the body temperature to rapidly increase
Hyperkalemia-is a condition where the patient’s potassium level is higher than normal.
Myoglobinuria-is a condition where found that myoglobin is present in the urine.

58
Q

Outline the basic course of treatment for malignant hyperthermia.

A

Stop the procedure
Discontinue any triggering agent
Eliminate excess CO2 by hyperventilating the patient with 100% oxygen
Administer intravenously a muscle relaxant like Dantrolene to the patient.
Prepare to scrub out to help the anesthesiologist reconstitute Dantrolene as directed.
Sodium bicarbonate administered
Temperature reduction
Diuretics administered
Insulin administered

59
Q

Explain the role of the surgical technologist in a malignant hyperthermia crisis.

A

First scrub role; stay sterile if procedure is underway
Help close or cover wound securely PRN
Pass iced saline irrigation as soon as you have it - if abdominal case
Either help the surgeon or have the tech place a Foley catheter to the patient so that the anesthesiologist and the surgeon can measure the urine output.
Second scrub role
Break scrub; Get or send people for ice
May help reconstitute dantrolene as directed by the anesthesiologist
Help lower the patient’s temperature by helping acquire ice packs and applying them to places with large blood vessels.
Goes out to acquire the malignant hyperthermia cart, which contains the items and medications they will need to relieve the patient.
Change anesthesia machine when provider is ready
Surgical First Assistant
May stay scrubbed to protect wound or close
May break scrub to do any of the tasks listed
Record keeper
Document all the medications, their dosages and time they were administered.
Notify outside OR personnel of the situation