Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Gov & CIt > Unit 3 > Flashcards

Unit 3 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
U.S. Government Basics flashcards AP® U.S. Government flashcards
1
Q

Which of the following requires a warrant?

A. The installation of a wiretap.
B. Seizure of evidence that is in plain view.
C. Mandatory drug-testing of student athletes.
D. Search of a vehicle if there is probable cause to believe a crime has been committed.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

According to the 4th Amendment, a warrant can be issued only in cases where there is

A. Immediate danger.
B. A summons.
C. Probable cause.
D. Strong suspicion.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The 13th Amendment banned

A. slavery and involuntary servitude.
B. state or federal laws that discriminate against any group because of ancestry or ethnic character.
C. abortion.
D. racial discrimination by government or private persons.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Evidence gained as a result of an illegal act by police cannot be used against the person from whom it was seized. This is called

A. a bill of attainder.
B. double jeopardy.
C. The Exclusionary rule.
D. Probable cause.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The major rule the Supreme Court applies in wiretapping cases is that

A. Wiretaps may only be used under the supervision of the courts.
B. Only federal law enforcement agencies may use wiretaps.
C. Evidence obtained through electronic means is a violation of the right to privacy.
D. Wiretaps may be used only in public places.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The specific rights that are covered under the 14th Amendment’s Due Process Clause

A. are listed in the Bill of Rights.
B. have been eliminated one-by-one by the Supreme Court.
C. have been spelled out case-by-case by the Supreme Court.
D. are listed in each State’s constitution.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Protection against arbitrary acts of the government are technically known as

A. civil rights.
B. rights of association.
C. libel.
D. civil liberties.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Because the Supreme Court has never found the 2nd Amendment to be within the meaning of the 14th Amendment’s Due Process clause,

A. Citizens are free to keep arms in their home without government restrictions.
B. States may not keep militias.
C. Citizens are strictly forbidden to keep guns in their homes.
D. States can limit the right to keep and bear arms.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For an arrest to be lawful, police must have either a warrant or

A. a grand jury indictment.
B. a bill of attainder.
C. a writ of habeas corpus.
D. probable cause.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The 2nd Amendment states that (choose all that apply.)

A. people accused of crimes do not have to incriminate themselves.
B. involuntary servitude is unconstitutional.
C. citizens are entitled to keep and bear guns.
D. each State may keep a militia.

A

C & D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following statements about civil rights are true? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Each person’s rights are relative to the rights of others.
B. Rights sometimes conflict with one another
C. Some rights may be limited in wartime.
D. Rights are extended only to citizens.

A

All but D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Reasonable suspicion of a crime is called

A. probable cause.
B. discrimination.
C. slander.
D. the police power.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The Due Process Clause of the 14th Amendment guarantees that

A. State governments will police the National Government.
B. States will not deny people any basic or essential liberties.
C. States are not bound by their State constitutions in matters of individual rights.
D. The National Government will not interfere with constitutional rights.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The 9th Amendment protects

A. freedom of speech and the press.
B. freedom of religion.
C. the right to a jury trial.
D. individual rights not listed in the Constitution.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Positive acts of government that seek to make constitutional guarantees a reality for all are known as

A. civil rights.
B. rights of association.
C. civil liberties.
D. Free Exercise Clauses.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is one of the rights NOT stated in the Constitution that the Supreme Court has decided is “retained by the people”?

A. The right not to be convicted with illegally-gained evidence
B. The right to free assembly
C. The right to a speedy trial
D. The right to speak freely

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Today, police need to get a search warrant before they can

A. Open the glove compartment or trunk of an automobile in order to search it.
B. Search the home of a person suspected of criminal activity.
C. Seize evidence that is in plain view.
D. Search garbage bags in front of a home or office.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following statements about the 4th Amendment is true?

A. It applies only to the States.
B. It prohibits all arrests made without a warrant.
C. It forbids unreasonable searches and seizures.
D. It has been of little importance in our history.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The first ten amendments to the Constitution are known as the

A. Preamble.
B. Unalienable Rights
C. Bill of Rights.
D. Due Process Clauses.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In order to obtain a search warrant, police must have

A. a writ of assistance.
B. probable cause.
C. police power.
D. a bill of attainder.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is included in the First Amendment? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Right of assembly
B. Freedom of speech
C. Freedom of religion
D. Right of petition
E. Freedom of the press
A

All of the Above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most of the Court’s Establishment Clause decisions have involved

A. church groups engaged in political activity
B. the official use of prayer by governmental bodies.
C. tax exemptions for religious organizations.
D. public and parochial schools.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following types of commercial speech may States prohibit? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Advertisement of products that are harmful to the public
B. False advertisement
C. Advertisement of prescription drugs
D. Advertisement of services that are illegal

A

B & D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The purpose of the Lemon test is to

A. determine the constitutionality of State aid to parochial schools
B. supply money for private and parochial schools to administer tests
C. decide which parochial schools are eligible for State aid.
D. eliminate all State aid to parochial schools

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Those who use speech to trigger an immediate danger or criminal action can be punished. This Supreme Court guideline is called

A. prior restraint.
B. the clear and present danger rule.
C. the lemon test.
D. the symbolic speed test.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The false and malicious use of the spoken word

A

Slander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The false and malicious use of the printed word

A

Libel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Expression by conduct such as carrying a sign or wearing an armband

A

Symbolic Speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Provides a separation between church and state

A

Establishment Clause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Protects the right to hold one’s own religious beliefs

A

Free Exercise Clause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The crime of attempting to overthrow or disrupt the government by force

A

Sedition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

the right to gather with others to promote political, economic, and social causes

A

Guarantee of Association

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following are not protected by the 1st Amendment? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Symbolic speech
B. Seditious speech
C. Slander
D. Prior restraint
E. Obscenity
A

All but A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The distinction the Court has made between prayer in Congress or in State legislatures, and prayer in public schools, is based largely on

A. whether the prayer advances religion
B. whether the prayer in any way threatens the public safety.
C. the maturity of those being led in prayer.
D. the doctrine expressed in the prayer.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following is NOT protected as free speech?

A. Arguing with a public official
B. Criticizing the government
C. Criticizing someone’s religion
D. Inciting a person to commit a crime

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Government has the right to make reasonable rules regulating assemblies in order to

A. limit free speech.
B. control the content of a demonstration
C. prevent the protest of government policies.
D. protect against the inciting of violence or the endangerment of life.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the right of assembly? (Mark all that apply.)

A. If a demonstration creates violence, the demonstrators can be lawfully arrested even if they have remained peaceful.
B. Assembling is a way by which Americans can seek to influence public policy.
C. Demonstrations which trespass private property are protected by the 1st Amendment.
D. Government can make and enforce reasonable rules covering time, place, and manner of assemblies.
E. Government can strictly regulate what is said during assemblies and demonstrations.

A

B & D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following are rules by which the Supreme Court judges obscenity cases? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Would the average person, judging by community standards, find the material obscene?
B. Does the material have serious artistic, literary, political, or scientific value?
C. Does the material describe in an offensive conduct specifically prohibited by an obscenity law?
D. Was the material created by practices that exploit women or minors?

A

All but D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following is a false statement regarding freedom of religion.

A. Public schools may sponsor religious exercises such as prayer, meditation, and Bible readings.
B. The Establishment Clause prohibits Congress from mandating a state religion.
C. The Supreme Court has allowed schools to institute “released time” programs so that students may attend private religious classes.
D. Government may use tax money to pay for busing students to parochial schools.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following is a true statement?

A. A shield law protects reporters from being forced to reveal their sources.
B. Any comments criticizing the government are considered seditious speech.
C. Wearing arm bands and burning flags are examples of prior restraint.
D. The Supreme Court has ruled that States may prohibit the teaching of evolution.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following are true statements about treason? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Prosecutors may charge a person with treason if they can show that the accused levied war against the United States.
B. A mandatory life sentence is the maximum penalty for treason.
C. Most State constitutions provide for treason.
D. If the accused does not confess, prosecutors must produce at least two witnesses to an overt act of treason in order to gain a conviction.

A

All but B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The Supreme Court has applied much of the Bill of Rights to the States through the application of which Amendment?

A. 14th Amendment
B. 4th Amendment
C. 5th Amendment
D. 13th Amendment

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A grand jury

A. plays a role in all federal and most State criminal cases today.
B. returns a true bill of indictment when it finds enough evidence to warrant a trial.
C. conducts its proceedings in public.
D. decides the guilt or innocence of those accused of crimes.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The right of citizens to just, legal action and court procedures before punishment can be levied is called

A. eminent domain
B. habeas corpus
C. double jeopardy
D. due process

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

To have a fair trial, a person is guaranteed which of the following? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Media coverage if demanded
B. Trial by a jury
C. Trial within a reasonable time
D. The chance to face his/her accusers
E. Adequate defense
A

B C & E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Capital punishment is

A. another name for bail.
B. to make war against the United States.
C. a heavy fine.
D. a penalty of death.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

If a person is tried for murder and the jury cannot decide on a verdict, the law says she

A. Cannot be retried for the same action unless there is new evidence.
B. Can be retried but only on a different charge, such as manslaughter.
C. Cannot be retried because a second trial would violate the ban on double jeopardy.
D. Can be retried on the same charge because a hung jury does not constitute double jeopardy.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A court order which prevents a prisoner from being held indefinitely without being charged

A

Writ of habeas corpus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A law, banned by the Constitution, under which an individual may be fined or punished without the benefit of a trial.

A

A bill of attainder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A law, banned by the Constitution, which makes an act crime and then punishes someone for committing the act before the law was passed

A

Ex post facto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A formal complaint presented to a grand jury against the accused by the prosecutor

A

Indictment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

To be tried for the same crime more than once, an action not allowed by the 5th Amendment

A

Double jeopardy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

If the accused waives their right to a jury trial, the judge alone hears the case and determines guilt or innocence.

A

Bench Trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Those arrested must be read a list of their rights and those rights explained if they do not understand them

A

Miranda Rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Money or property posted as a guarantee that the accused will return for trial is called

A. preventive detention.
B. equity.
C. bail.
D. a bill of attainder.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The long series of Court rulings on the rights of the accused have established that (Mark all that apply.)

A. society is best protected when the rights of the accused are protected.
B. every accused person is presumed innocent until proven guilty.
C. if police do not follow the letter of the law, their conduct may result in a guilty person going free.
D. Due process may be exactly defined.

A

All but D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The only crime that is specifically defined in the Constitution is

A. sabotage.
B. treason.
C. espionage.
D. murder.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The States’ police power is defined as the right to

A. Protect public health, safety, morals, and general welfare.
B. punish crimes within the limits set by the Constitution.
C. Protect the citizenry against crime.
D. Keep a militia and an armed law enforcement agency.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which of the following is a false statement?

A. The Supreme Court has ruled that a trial must not be too speedy or too public.
B. The Supreme Court has ruled that denying medical treatment to prisoners is cruel and unusual punishment.
C. The Supreme Court has ruled that all accused persons are entitled to bail.
D. The Supreme Court has ruled that capital punishment, fairly applied, is constitutional.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The process by which one culture merges into and becomes part of another culture is called

A. segregation.
B. integration.
C. assimilation.
D. naturalization.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The separation of one group from another is called

A. heterogeneous society.
B. segregation.
C. integration.
D. assimilation.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the largest minority group in the United States?

A. Native Americans
B. Asian Americans
C. Hispanic Americans
D. African Americans

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

People who leave their homes to seek protection from war, persecution, or some other danger are called

A. refugees.
B. expatriots.
C. immigrants.
D. aliens.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Most of the steps that have been made toward making equal rights a reality for all persons in the United States have been made by and on behalf of

A. Native Americans
B. African Americans
C. Asian Americans
D. women

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which is the MOST accurate description of the way minority groups historically have been treated in the United States?

A. with reluctance to accept their equality
B. with a sincere recognition of their cultural differences
C. with complete equality
D. with willing acceptance of immigrants, but only forced acceptance of those minorities already residing in the United States

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Over time, the makeup of the American population has become

A. more stable.
B. less heterogeneous.
C. more diverse.
D. less ethnic.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

In the past, women have been denied which of the following? ( Mark all that apply.)

A. The right to own property
B. Equal pay for equal work
C. Educational opportunities
D. Suffrage

A

All of the Above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

In recent decades, the fastest growing minority group in the United States has been

A. Asian Americans
B. Hispanic Americans
C. Native Americans
D. African Americans

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which of the following paved the way for nearly 60 years of continued segregation in the United States?

A. the strict scrutiny test
B. the rational basis test
C. Brown v. Board of Education
D. the separate-but-equal doctrine

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

One test that the Supreme Court uses to determine the validity of laws that discriminate between groups of people is the

A. Due Process test.
B. rational basis test.
C. Constitution.
D. Equal Protection test.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

In regard to the issue of equality, the Constitution states that

A. all people are equal in all ways.
B. government cannot draw distinctions between persons and groups.
C. slaves should be equal to free people.
D. no person can be denied equal protection of the laws.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which of the following statements does accurately describe the Supreme Court decision in Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka? ( Mark all that apply.)

A. It held that segregation by race in public education is unconstitutional.
B. It quickly brought about integration of schools in this country.
C. It reversed the earlier decision in Plessy v. Ferguson.
D. It struck down the separate-but-equal doctrine in education.

A

All but B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

One reason that women earn 80 cents for every dollar earned by men is that

A. historically, women have never formed labor unions to achieve equal pay.
B. on average, women are less capable for business than men.
C. they are in the minority.
D. on average, only low-paying occupations were open to women.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which of the following are consequences of the historical bias against Native Americans in this country? (Mark all that apply.)

A. the infant mortality rate of Native Americans.
B. the life expectancy of Native Americans.
C. the growth of the Native American population in the United States.
D. the unemployment rate among Native Americans.

A

All but C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The process of bringing a group into equal membership in society is called

A. segregation.
B. integration.
C. assimilation.
D. naturalization.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The Native American population dropped drastically after the arrival of Europeans in North America, largely as a result of

A. warfare and poverty
B. poverty and slavery
C. slavery and disease
D. disease and warfare

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

In an earlier part of United States history, Congress

A. consistently acted for the benefit of minority groups.
B. pursued legislation aiding African Americans, but not women.
C. helped further the discrimination of minorities by inaction.
D. pursued legislation aiding women only.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

One test that the Supreme Court uses to determine the validity of laws that discriminate between groups of people is the

A. equal protection test.
B. lemon test.
C. rational basis test.
D. due process test.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Jim Crow laws were intended to

A. give women a lesser status than men.
B. stop all segregation based on race.
C. integrate public schools
D. segregate African Americans.

A

D.

80
Q

Which of the following immigrants are most likely to be given preferential treatment?

A. Those who have communicable disease and need expert medical treatment
B. Farmers and laborers
C. Close relatives of U.S. citizens or resident aliens
D. Scientists and engineers

A

C.

81
Q

Which part of the Constitution declares that a person can become an American citizen either by birth or naturalization?

A. 14th Amendment
B. the Preamble
C. 13th Amendment
D. the Bill of Rights

A

A.

82
Q

A citizen of a foreign nation living in the United States

A

Alien

83
Q

The “law of the soil” which grants citizenship to anyone born on U.S. soil

A

Jus soli

84
Q

The “law of the blood” which grants citizenship to a child born outside of the United States to a U.S. citizen.

A

Jus sanguinis

85
Q

The legal process by which a person becomes a citizen of another country some time after their birth

A

Naturalization

86
Q

The involuntary loss of citizenship because an individual became a citizen by fraud or deception

A

Denaturalization

87
Q

The voluntary, legal process by which any U.S. citizen can renounce and forfeit the citizenship

A

Expatriation

88
Q

The process of legally requiring an alien to leave the United States

A

Deportation

89
Q

Today most undocumented aliens are from

A. Latin America
B. Asia
C. Africa
D. Europe

A

A.

90
Q

The first major attempt to limit immigration dealt with immigrants from what country?

A. Mexico
B. Germany
C. China
D. Italy

A

C.

91
Q

Which of the following individuals are currently American citizens? (Mark all that apply.)

A. A baby who was born on a U.S. ship in the middle of the Pacific Ocean to alien parents
B. An individual who was born in the Northern Mariana Island in 1976
C. A five year old child who was born in Australia to an Australian mother and an American father who is 30 years old and has lived continuously in Australia for the last 10 years.
D. The child of two U.S. citizens, neither of which have ever lived on U.S. soil
E. A 16 year old born to Canadian parents who have been living continuously in the United States for the past 20 years

A

A B & E

92
Q

Undocumented aliens are those who enter the United States

A. across the Mexican or Canadian borders.
B. without following proper legal procedures.
C. as naturalized citizens.
D. legally to work in seasonal jobs.

A

B.

93
Q

Which of the following is required of any adult who wishes to be naturalized? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Literacy in the English language
B. Legal entry into the United States
C. An understanding of the history and government of the United States
D. An employable skill or profession

A

All but D

94
Q

A person can become a citizen of the United States by which of the following means? (Mark all that apply.)

A. By an act of Congress or a treaty
B. By being born in the United States
C. By being born beyond American jurisdiction to American parents
D. By completing the process of naturalization

A

All of the Above

95
Q

In which of the following ways can someone lose his or her citizenship?

A. By committing fraud in the nationalization process
B. By marrying an alien
C. By voting in a foreign election
D. By committing a crime

A

A.

96
Q

Congress first began to regulate immigration during the

A. 1920s.
B. 1880s.
C. 1840s.
D. 1790s.

A

B.

97
Q

Until the 1960s most immigrants to the United States were from

A. Europe.
B. Africa.
C. Canada.
D. Latin America.

A

A.

98
Q

Today most immigrants to the United States come from

A. Europe and Canada.
B. Latin America and Africa.
C. Asia and Latin America.
D. Africa and Europe.

A

C.

99
Q

The Green Party, Right to Life Party, and Free Soil Party are examples of

A. ideological parties.
B. splinter parties.
C. economic protest parties.
D. single-issue parties.

A

D.

100
Q

The current officeholder is referred to as the

A. electorate.
B. speaker.
C. partisan.
D. incumbent.

A

D.

101
Q

A consensus is

A. multiple cultures and groups.
B. the largest number of ballots cast.
C. a society led by a dictator.
D. general agreement among various groups.

A

D.

102
Q

Although minor parties are generally not supported by the public they have been important because they (Mark all that apply.)

A. campaign locally as well as nationally.
B. can draw votes from a major party, weakening that party’s ability to win an election.
C. draw attention to neglected or controversial issues.
D. are able to raise as much money as major parties.

A

B & C

103
Q

A group of people who try to control government by winning elections and holding public offices is called a/an

A. coalition.
B. political party.
C. plurality.
D. electorate.

A

B.

104
Q

A coalition is

A. a nation of multiple cultures and groups.
B. the largest number of ballots cast.
C. a society led by a dictator.
D. a temporary alliance of different groups coming together to govern.

A

D.

105
Q

What are the two major parties in the United States today?

A. Democrat and Federalist
B. Republican and Democrat
C. Republican and Progressive
D. Federalist and Whig

A

B.

106
Q

The political devotion to the interests of one region is called

A. factioning.
B. area politics
C. dictatorship.
D. sectionalism

A

D.

107
Q

A firm allegiance and loyalty to the party and its policies is called

A. consensus.
B. sectionalism.
C. partisanship.
D. bipartisanship.

A

C.

108
Q

What term refers to all the people eligible to vote?

A. Factions
B. Sectionalism
C. Partisans
D. Electorate

A

D.

109
Q

Which of the following is a false statement?

A. The major political parties in the United States are decentralized and fragmented.
B. Split-ticket voting has decreased in recent decades.
C. Political parties in the United States are in decline.
D. The automatic leader of the party in power is the President.

A

B.

110
Q

Since the late 1960s politics and government

A. Has been dominated by the republicans.
B. Minor parties have dominated.
C. Has been dominated by the democrats.
D. Neither major party has completely dominated.

A

D.

111
Q

What is another term for the party of the sitting President?

A. The party in power
B. The nominating party
C. The executive party
D. The multiparty

A

A.

112
Q

The most important minor parties in United States’ history have typically been

A. single-issue parties.
B. ideological parties.
C. splinter parties.
D. economic protest parties

A

C.

113
Q

Which of the following is a false statement?

A. The first two political parties were the Democrats and the Republicans.
B. Dissenting groups within a party are called factions.
C. Before the 1960s the United States two major political parties had a history of alternating government control spanning decades.
D. Economics plays a major role in determining which party remains or comes to power.

A

A.

114
Q

Which of the following are the three main elements of the major parties in terms of the roles of their members? (Mark all that Apply.)

A. the party in the electorate
B. the party organization
C. the party media consultants
D. the party in government

A

All but C

115
Q

The Socialist, Communist, and Libertarian parties are examples of which type of minor party?

A. Single-issue parties
B. Ideological parties
C. Economic protest parties
D. Splinter parties

A

B.

116
Q

Which of the following is a true statement?

A. Voting only for the candidates of one party is called split-ticket voting.
B. State party committees are tightly controlled by the national committee.
C. Wards are the units into which States are divided for the election of congressional representatives
D. In recent decades, there has been a sharp increase in the number of voters who regard themselves as independents.

A

D.

117
Q

Which of the following is a function of political parties in American government? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Help govern generally in a partisan fashion
B. Act as watchdogs by observing and critiquing the operation of government
C. Nominate and gain support for the party’s candidates
D. Ensure that candidates are qualified and of good character
E. Inform people about and stimulate interest in public affairs

A

All of the Above

118
Q

The United States has a two-party system because (Mark all that apply.)

A. the United States is a pluralistic society.
B. of history and tradition.
C. Americans generally agree on key matters
D. single-member districts and election laws discourage minor parties.

A

All but C

119
Q

What is the function of a political action committee (PAC)?

A. To raise money to influence elections and public policy on behalf of special-interest groups
B. To monitor campaign contributions and report violations to the Federal Election Commission (FEC)
C. To set limits on campaign contributions.
D. To match privately-raised funds with government subsidies that help all candidates to be competitive.

A

A.

120
Q

The election process is largely governed by

A. State law.
B. local law.
C. federal law.
D. PACs

A

A.

121
Q

The smallest geographic unit for conducting an election is a

A. ballot.
B. polling place.
C. precinct.
D. county.

A

C.

122
Q

Most campaign money comes from private sources.

True
False

A

True

123
Q

Most nominations today are made by

A. direct primaries.
B. convention.
C. petition.
D. caucus.
E. self-announcement.
A

A.

124
Q

Which of the following is the least used nominating method today?

A. Self-Announcement
B. Caucus
C. Convention
D. Direct Primary
E. Petition
A

B.

125
Q

Which of the following are often nominated and elected in a nonpartisan fashion? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Governors
B. City officers
C. State legislators
D. State judges
E. School board members
A

B D & E

126
Q

Which of the following are purposes of poll watchers? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Make sure that only qualified people vote
B. Monitor the counting of ballots
C. Discourage supporters of the opposing party from voting
D. Check to see if their party supporters are voting

A

All but C

127
Q

Primaries attract more voters than general elections.

True
False

A

False

128
Q

Soft money is money

A. raised and spent to elect candidates for Congress and the White House.
B. granted by the FEC to campaigns to match private funds raised by candidates.
C. that is illegally contributed above the limits set for federal elections.
D. given to a party organization for “party-building activities.”

A

D.

129
Q

Congress has set the day for national elections as

A. the Monday after the third Tuesday in November in even-numbered years.
B. the Monday after the first Tuesday in April in even-numbered years.
C. the Tuesday after the first Monday in November in even-numbered years.
D. the first Tuesday in November in odd-numbered years.

A

C.

130
Q

When a popular presidential candidate helps attract voters to other candidates on the party’s ticket, it is know as

A. logrolling.
B. the coattail effect.
C. ballot fatigue.
D. absentee voting.

A

B.

131
Q

The place at which voters actually vote is

A. a precinct.
B. a polling place.
C. an electorate.
D. a convention.

A

B.

132
Q

Presidential campaigns collect and spend the most money.

True
False

A

True

133
Q

Hard money is not regulated because of loopholes in campaign finance laws.

True
False

A

False

134
Q

Which of the following ballots tends to encourage straight-ticket voting?

A. Massachusetts ballot
B. Bed-sheet ballot
C. Office-group ballot
D. Party-column ballot

A

D.

135
Q

The process of candidate selection is called

A. balloting.
B. polling.
C. nomination.
D. election.

A

C.

136
Q

“Bedsheet ballots” can result in “ballot fatigue.”

True
False

A

True

137
Q

The secret ballot was introduced to prevent

A. “ballot fatigue.”
B. voter intimidation.
C. split-ticket voting.
D. racial discrimination

A

B.

138
Q

In a closed primary,

A. voters may choose any candidates regardless of their parties.
B. candidates are not identified by party.
C. generally only registered party members may vote.
D. any voter may vote in any one party’s primary.

A

C.

139
Q

The practice of voting for candidates of more than one party in any one election

A

Split-ticket voting

140
Q

To establish voting district boundaries so as to limit the voting strength of a particular group

A

Gerrymandering

141
Q

The term regularly used to describe those people who have no specific major party affiliation

A

Independent

142
Q

A payment made in order to vote.

A

Poll Tax

143
Q

The potential voting population

A

Electorate

144
Q

Voting which is done along strict party lines

A

Straight-ticket voting

145
Q

Congressional elections held in even-numbered years between presidential elections

A

Off-year election

146
Q

The differences in voting patterns between men and women is called

A. injunction.
B. political efficacy.
C. the gender gap.
D. preclearance.

A

C.

147
Q

Which of the following people is most likely to vote?

A. A 79-year-old man who lives in a nursing home in the suburbs in the South
B. A 40 year-old female doctor who lives in a large city in the northeast
C. A 28-year-old waiter who did not complete high school
D. An 18-year-old male who is a senior in a rural high school

A

B.

148
Q

Which of the following are significant reasons for nonvoting in United States elections today? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Apathy or distrust of politics
B. Widespread use of religious and literacy tests
C. Rules and regulations that make registration and voting cumbersome
D. Long-term mental or physical illness or illness on an election day

A

All but B

149
Q

Which of the following have been used to keep African Americans from voting? (Mark all that apply.)

A. passing political socialization laws.
B. literacy tests.
C. poll taxes.
D. threats and social pressures.

A

All but A

150
Q

To prevent fraudulent voting, most States require voters to

A. be a natural-born citizen.
B. register.
C. be able to read and write.
D. pay a poll tax.

A

B.

151
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the right to vote? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Political socialization
B. Suffrage
C. Literacy
D. Franchise
E. Political efficacy
A

B & D

152
Q

Which of the following are factors that influence voter behavior? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Occupation
B. Religion
C. Education
D. Age
E. Family
A

All of the Above

153
Q

The Voting and Civil Rights Acts of the 1960s

A. increased voter alienation.
B. made the 15th Amendment effective.
C. eliminated gerrymandering.
D. created a lack of political efficacy among the electorate.

A

B.

154
Q

Which of the following is a false statement?

A. In general, more of the electorate votes in off-year elections.
B. More people are likely to vote for a presidential candidate than for congressional candidates.
C. People with no sense of political efficacy feel that any choice they make will have no effect.
D. When a contest between two candidates is very close, people are more likely to vote.

A

A.

155
Q

The latest expansion of the electorate came in 1971 with the passage of the 26th amendment which

A. Gave women the right to vote.
B. Made poll taxes and literacy tests illegal.
C. Gave 18 year olds the right to vote.
D. Gave legal aliens the right to vote.

A

C.

156
Q

What are three requirements for voting in all States?

A. Party membership, age, and employment
B. Income, literacy and age
C. Citizenship, age, and residency
D. Citizenship, literacy, and residency

A

C.

157
Q

Which of the following is a historical trend regarding American suffrage?

A. The States have assumed greater power in determining voter qualifications.
B. Voting restrictions have gradually been eliminated.
C. Straight-ticket voting has greatly increased, especially in recent years.
D. As the American birthrate declined the electorate has grown smaller.

A

B.

158
Q

Which of the following methods of measuring public opinion is the most reliable?

A. Selective sampling
B. Random sample
C. Straw poll
D. Quota sample

A

B.

159
Q

The best example of the use of random sampling to determine who will be elected as your school president would involve

A. asking every seventh student on an alphabetized list of all students whom they would vote for
B. picking out a specific number of students as they leave the school, and asking whom they would vote for.
C. asking each student in your class whom he or she would vote for.
D. asking one student in each classroom whom he or she would vote for.

A

A.

160
Q

What term describes societal problems that need government attention?

A. Public agenda
B. Sound bites
C. Medium
D. Straw poll

A

A.

161
Q

Attitudes held by a significant number of people concerning governmental and political questions are known as

A. public policies.
B. public opinion.
C. the mass media.
D. interest groups.

A

B.

162
Q

Which of the following is true of straw polls? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Straw polls are often used today.
B. Straw polls are scientifically constructed.
C. Straw polls are very unreliable.
D. Straw polls ask the same question to large numbers of people.

A

All but B

163
Q

Which of the following play a role in shaping public opinion? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Mass media
B. Peer groups
C. Opinion leaders
D. Historical events

A

All of the Above

164
Q

Polls are taken to

A. determine people’s attitudes and viewpoints.
B. provide a system of checks and balances.
C. guarantee the constitutional rights of all people.
D. further the political socialization of individuals.

A

A.

165
Q

The most reliable measure of public opinion is

A. straw votes.
B. pressure groups.
C. quota samples.
D. scientific polls.

A

D.

166
Q

The influence of the mass media on American public opinion is limited by the fact that

A. political leaders are able to manipulate the mass media to their own advantage.
B. most Americans do not follow public affairs closely.
C. most Americans distrust the news media.
D. most people read a wide variety of news publications with varying opinions.

A

B.

167
Q

The views of different generations are formed in part by the different historical events that occurred during their lifetimes.

A. True
B. False

A

True

168
Q

Which form of mass media is the principle source of political information in the United States?

A. Magazines
B. Television
C. Radio
D. Newspapers

A

B.

169
Q

Which of the following polling methods would produce reliable results?

A. Interviewing 1,500 people to measure how the nation’s entire adult population feels about an issue
B. Asking respondents: “Do you think innocent children should be put in the streets by closing the city’s orphanage?”
C. Interviewing an entire sample over the telephone
D. Making sure the pollster doing face-to-face interviews is dressed neatly and speaks respectfully

A

All but B

170
Q

A popular movie star who speaks publicly about a political issue could be considered an opinion leader.

True
False

A

True

171
Q

A quota sample is more reliable than a random sample.

True
False

A

False

172
Q

What would be the best advice to a person who wants to learn more about political issues?

A. Pay attention to newspaper stories.
B. Watch television news and commentary shows daily.
C. Regularly read the major newspapers and news magazines.
D. Explore a variety of sources of political information.

A

D.

173
Q

Election results are a very accurate measure of public opinion.

True
False

A

False

174
Q

Public opinion is complex and hard to define.

True
False

A

True

175
Q

Which of the following are part of the scientific polling method?

A. Tabulating the data
B. Defining the universe
C. Constructing the sample
D. Preparing valid questions

A

All of the Above

176
Q

Which two groups have the strongest impact on political socialization in the United States?

A. School and race
B. Income and mass media
C. Mass media and the family
D. School and the family

A

D.

177
Q

Mass media refers to

A. attitudes held by a significant number of people on affairs of government and politics.
B. people with whom one regularly associates.
C. a group of events and issues of concern to people at large.
D. communication that reaches a large, widely dispersed public.

A

D.

178
Q

PACs that concentrate their efforts on one particular issue are also called

A. public-interest groups.
B. single-interest groups.
C. trade associations.
D. labor unions.

A

B.

179
Q

Which of the following are important and useful functions of interest groups? (Mark all that apply.)

A. They provide valuable information to government.
B. They stimulate interest in public affairs.
C. They represent shared issues rather than geography.
D. They add another level of checks and balances to the political process.
E. They provide a way for common citizens to participate in the political system.

A

All of the Above

180
Q

Which of the following are goals of interest groups? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Building a positive image for their group
B. Being chiefly interested in winning elections and controlling government
C. Promoting a particular public policy
D. Supplying the public with information they believe the people should have

A

All but B

181
Q

Interest groups are also called pressure groups.

True
False

A

True

182
Q

A labor union is an organization of workers who

A. work on farms.
B. work in the same job or industry.
C. hold exactly the same political beliefs.
D. represent the interests of the business community.

A

B.

183
Q

Which of the following are valid criticisms of interest groups? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Some have an influence far out of proportion to their size and importance.
B. Some appear to be a large group but represent only a few people with narrow, self-serving agendas.
C. Some use illegal and dangerous tactics like bribery.
D. Some are dominated by an active minority that does not accurately represent the group.

A

All of the Above

184
Q

Interest groups are most interested in

A. nominating specific candidates for office.
B. affecting a broad range of public policy issues.
C. influencing specific public policies.
D. winning a broad range of elections.

A

C.

185
Q

Lobbying is

A. supplying the public with information about a particular case or issue
B. trying to build a positive public image of an interest group.
C. pressuring lawmakers and other government officials in an effort to influence public policy.
D. attempting to resist the pressures from special interest groups.

A

C.

186
Q

The term grass roots refers to

A. party politicians.
B. trade associations.
C. interest groups.
D. average voters.

A

D.

187
Q

Lobbyists today are people who generally

A. are hired by the government to support certain policies.
B. use unfair propaganda to get a group’s point across.
C. work illegally to get their group’s needs met.
D. work within the governmental process to affect policies.

A

D.

188
Q

A PAC that concentrates on one issue is called a single-interest group.

True
False

A

True

189
Q

Lobbyists are regulated and seldom engage in illegal activities.

True
False

A

True

190
Q

Which of the following provides legal protection for the activities of interest groups?

A. The 1st Amendment
B. The Lobbying Disclosure Act of 1995
C. The 10th Amendment
D. The Preamble to the Constitution

A

A.

191
Q

What is propaganda?

A. Making campaign contributions, writing speeches, and drafting legislation
B. Creating a particular belief through the use of one-sided persuasive techniques
C. Using bribery and threats to bet what a group wants
D. Concentrating a group’s efforts on one issue

A

B.

192
Q

Most interest groups are formed on the basis of

A. economic interests.
B. religious interests.
C. political interests.
D. geographic interests.
E. environmental interests.
A

A.

193
Q

Propaganda presents both sides of an issue.

True
False

A

False

194
Q

Which of the following are propaganda techniques? (Mark all that apply.)

A. Name calling
B. Using glittering generalities
C. Using objective logic
D. The bandwagon approach
E. Presenting only one side of an issue
A

All but C

195
Q

Public-interest groups push for policies that only benefit their supporters.

True
False

A

False

196
Q

Trade associations usually represent

A. non-profit groups.
B. farm workers.
C. labor unions.
D. the business community.

A

D.

197
Q

Organized interest groups apply pressure to government by (Mark all that apply.)

A. forming minor political parties.
B. the use of propaganda.
C. contributing to political campaigns through their PACs.
D. lobbying.

A

All but A

Gov & CIt (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions