Unit 2 Review Questions Flashcards
1
Q
- Which national organization writes U.S. codes and standards dealing with fire protection?
A) EPA
B) NIOSH
C) OSHA
D) NFPA
A
D) NFPA
2
Q
- In the ICS structure, who is the one person ultimately responsible for managing an incident?
A) The EO
B) The planning chief
C) The incident commander (IC)
D) The operations chief
A
C) The incident commander (IC)
3
Q
- Who is the IC’s point of contact for representatives from outside agencies?
A) The planning director
B) The communications center
C) The liaison officer
D) The staging chief
A
C) The liaison officer
4
Q
- What would be the designation for the 7th floor on a high-rise?
A) Sector 7
B) 6th floor
C) Division 7
D) Level 6
A
C) Division 7
5
Q
- As more companies arrive at an incident, what is one reason the command structure must expand?
A) To employ the arriving officers
B) To maintain span of control
C) To allow unity of command
D) To counter the formation of sectorization
A
B) To maintain span of control
6
Q
- What is the term usually used for a group of companies or crews working in the same geographical area?
A) Branch
B) Brigade
C) Division
D) Regiment
A
C) Division
7
Q
- Why should rope be protected from prolonged exposure to sunlight?
A) Because exposure to ultraviolet radiation can damage rope
B) Because the inside of a rope heats up to damaging temperatures
C) Because the heat causes delamination of the sheath of ropes
D) Because the rope can easily become hot enough to the touch to cause bums
A
A) Because exposure to ultraviolet radiation can damage rope
8
Q
- What term describes a second line that is attached to a rescuer and that serves as a backup if the main line fails?
A) Tag
B) Lifeline
C) Tether
D) Belay
A
D) Belay
9
Q
- What kind of rescue takes place in a location such as a tank, silo, underground electrical vault, or storm drain?
A) Confined space
B) Trench
C) Collapse
D) Machinery
A
A) Confined space
10
Q
- How often should ground ladders be visually inspected?
A) Monthly
B) Quarterly
C) Annually
D) Bi-annually
A
A) Monthly
11
Q
- What is a benefit of Class A foam?
A) Does not conduct electricity
B) Forms unbreakable barrier on fuel spills
C) Increases surface tension of water
D) Reduces surface tension of water
A
D) Reduces surface tension of water
12
Q
- Class B foam is used for what types of fires?
A) Flammable liquids
B) Electrical instruments
C) Metal shavings
D) Wood
A
A) Flammable liquids
13
Q
- From where are defensive firefighting operations conducted?
A) Interior
B) Roof
C) Exterior
D) Staging area
A
C) Exterior
14
Q
- What is one characteristic of a fog stream?
A) It has a long throw for reaching distant targets.
B) It wets a surface without actually cooling it.
C) It creates water droplets with a very large surface area.
D) It is nearly ineffective at absorbing heat.
A
C) It creates water droplets with a very large surface area.
15
Q
- What is one advantage to a straight stream over a fog stream?
A) It absorbs heat better.
B) It uses less water.
C) It provides more reach.
D) It requires only half the pump pressure.
A
C) It provides more reach.
16
Q
- What is a combination fire attack a combination of?
A) Front and side
B) Vent and no-vent
C) Direct and indirect
D) Small and large handline
A
C) Direct and indirect
17
Q
- Where does a direct fire attack deliver the water?
A) To the base of the fire
B) To the perimeter of the burning area
C) Right to the middle of the flames
D) To the hottest part of the flame, just above it
A
A) To the base of the fire
18
Q
- In what type of operation are large handlines and master streams more often used?
A) Deluge
B) Defensive
C) Sprinkler-assisted
D) Interior attack
A
B) Defensive
19
Q
- When water is converted to steam it expands to _____times the volume of an equivalent amount of liquid water.
A) 1600
B) 1700
C) 1800
D) 1900
A
B) 1700
20
Q
- Portable monitors, deck guns, and ladder pipes are examples of _____
A) handlines
B) ventilation tools
C) hose stabilizers
D) master stream devices
A
D) master stream devices
21
Q
- The greatest danger of propane cylinders is _
A) Low vapor density
B) BLEVE
C) Cryogenic
D) Relief valve actuation
A
B) BLEVE
22
Q
- What is the primary role of a fire alarm system?
A) Notify the fire department
B) Hold the fire in check
C) Alert occupants
D) Summon help
A
C) Alert occupants
23
Q
- When referring to the left or right side of a vehicle, what is the point of reference?
A) As an observer in front of the car would see it
B) As a person standing on the driver’s side would see it
C) As an observer sitting in the driver’s seat would see it
D) As a person standing on the passenger’s side would see it
A
C) As an observer sitting in the driver’s seat would see it
24
Q
- What is the designation for the forward-most posts on a car?
A) The A posts
B) The forward posts
C) The bow posts
D) The number 1 posts
A
A) The A posts
25
25. What absolutely must be used in conjunction with rescue lift airbags?
A) Cribbing
B) Hosetape
C) Blocking
D) Designator ribbon
A) Cribbing
26
26. To de-energize an airbag, what is the first step of the two-step procedure?
A) Ground the solenoid.
B) Remove the cartridge.
C) Unscrew the primer.
D) Disconnect the battery.
D) Disconnect the battery.
27
27. What are the vertical support members on a vehicle that hold up the roof?
A) Spars
B) Posts
C) Frames
D) Columns
B) Posts
28
28. What is the structure that divides the engine compartment on a car from the passenger compartment?
A) The A post
B) The dashboard
C) The bulkhead
D) The partition
C) The bulkhead
29
29. Of what kind of glass is a windshield made?
A) Tempered
B) Laminated
C) Luminar
D) Luminescent
B) Laminated
30
30. When removing the victim from the vehicle, who is in charge of the move?
A) IC
B) EMT
C) Person holding c-spine
D) Person at the foot of the backboard
C) Person holding c-spine
31
31. What is the first level of technical rescue training?
A) Airport fire fighter
B) Level A
C) Awareness level
D) Tech 1
C) Awareness level
32
32. Why should fire fighters trained to the awareness level of technical rescue learn the names of the tools that will be used only by those with more advanced training?
A) Because they may have to use the tools if there are not enough more highly trained personnel to go around
B) Because one day they too will have the more advanced training
C) Because the public may ask unoccupied fire fighters what is going on
D) Because they may be called upon to assist with a tool
D) Because they may be called upon to assist with a tool
33
33. Aside from the simple benefit of training, what other advantage is there to training with other fire departments in the area?
A) It allows one department to critique the actions of the other.
B) It better enables fire fighters to respond to a mutual aid call.
C) It sets the stage for a little friendly interdepartmental competition on actual calls.
D) It is significantly less expensive to train with another department than alone.
B) It better enables fire fighters to respond to a mutual aid call.
34
34. What are lockout and tagout procedures used for?
A) Ensuring that power or machinery is not accidentally turned on when it needs to be off during a rescue
B) Denying entry to the public and the media when barrier or perimeter tape is not readily available
C) Securing vehicles whose engines must remain running during periods when they must be left unattended
D) Preventing theft or unauthorized use of construction-site machinery during the nights and weekends
A) Ensuring that power or machinery is not accidentally turned on when it needs to be off during a rescue
35
35. What level of rescue training allows the fire fighter to be directly involved in the rescue operation?
A) Awareness
B) Operations
C) Technician
D) Specialized
C) Technician
36
36. When does size-up begin?
A) When a senior fire officer arrives on scene
B) When victim is located
C) When dispatched
D) Upon arrival
C) When dispatched
37
37. What is the most common type of rescue situation?
A) Water rescue
B) Burning buildings
C) Collapsed structure
D) Motor vehicle crashes
D) Motor vehicle crashes
38
38. Training at the hazardous materials awareness level gives the fire fighter the knowledge and skills to recognize the presence of a hazardous materials, protect himself or herself,
call for assistance, and _____
A) decontaminate personnel
B) stop the spread of material
C) stop the leaking material
D) secure the area
D) secure the area
39
39. What activity usually is included in fire prevention duties for beginning firefighters?
A) Examining proposed building plans
B) Examining existing building plans
C) Conducting fire station tours
D) Conducting code inspections
C) Conducting fire station tours
40
40. What is one of the goals of public fire safety education?
A) To alert people to the legal ramifications of having a fire
B) To awaken public interest and support in the fire department
C) To teach people how to react if a fire occurs
D) To dispel a number of public myths about fire
C) To teach people how to react if a fire occurs
41
41. Select the true statement from the choices below.
A) Most fires are caused by uncontrollable or unpredictable events.
B) Most fires are caused by actions or situations that could have been prevented.
C) Most frres are caused by unknown mechanisms.
D) Most fires are caused by sequence-sensitive sets of events.
B) Most fires are caused by actions or situations that could have been prevented.
42
42. How often should smoke alarms be tested by pressing the test button?
A) Monthly
B) Quarterly
C) Semi-annually
D) Annually
A) Monthly
43
43. How often should the batteries in smoke detectors be replaced?
A) Twice a year
B) Annually
C) Biannually
D) When detector light flashes
A) Twice a year
44
44. What is one of the two types of smoke detector?
A) Finemist
B) Brushless
C) Chambered
D) Ionization
D) Ionization
45
45. What is a major concern with battery-powered smoke alarms?
A) Battery replacement
B) False alarm
C) Occupant ignoring activation
D) Occupant removal
A) Battery replacement
46
46. How often should a smoke detector be replaced?
A) Every year
B) Every 5 years
C) Every 10 years
D) They never need replacing
C) Every 10 years
47
47. What type of false alarm occurs when individuals deliberately activate a fire alarm?
A) Unwanted
B) Nuisance
C) Malevolent
D) Malicious
D) Malicious
48
48. How many and what size are the connections on a FDC?
A) Two 2½-inch females
B) Two 2½-inch male
C) One 2½-inch female
D) One 2½-inch male
A) Two 2½-inch females
49
49. What term refers to all of the information gathered and used by an investigator in determining the cause of a fire?
A) Evidence
B) Forensics
C) Documentation
D) Physical debris field
A) Evidence
50
50. What role do fire fighters play in fire cause determination?
A) They can provide essential assistance.
B) They can provide minimal assistance.
C) They have no role at all in this function.
D) They are the primary fire-cause investigators.
A) They can provide essential assistance.
51
51. Who has the legal responsibility to determine the causes of fires in most jurisdictions?
A) Police chief
B) Fire chief
C) District attorney
D) Coroner
B) Fire chief
52
52. What is the term for areas adjacent to a building?
A) Rotundas
B) Exposures
C) Sectors
D) Stages
B) Exposures
53
Within a fire department, what is the primary means of communicating at the incident scene?
A) Face to face
B) Runner
C) Radio
D) Hand signal
C) Radio
54
What term usually refers to companies or crews working on the same task or objective, although not necessarily in the same location?
A) Task
B) Group
C) Regiment
D) Project team
B) Group
55
55. If there is no officer on the first-arriving unit, who assumes command?
A) No one, until an officer arrives
B) The person those present choose
C) The frre fighter with the greatest seniority
D) Whomever the nearest responding chief officer designates over the radio
C) The frre fighter with the greatest seniority
56
What is it called when representatives from several different agencies work together to command a multi-jurisdictional incident in a coordinated manner?
A) Span of control
B) Barr-King-Sheal command
C) Operations control
D) Unified command
D) Unified command
57
57. Can and should ICS be used for everyday situations?
A) It cannot but should.
B) It cannot and should not.
C) It can and should.
D) It can but should not.
C) It can and should.
58
58. What ICS section is responsible for providing supplies, services, facilities, and materials during the incident?
A) Procurement
B) Provision
C) Logistics
D) Materiel
C) Logistics
59
59. In ICS terminology, what is a single resource?
A) A single fire fighter
B) A single person, fire fighter or not
C) A substance that will be applied, such as water
D) An individual vehicle and its assigned personnel
D) An individual vehicle and its assigned personnel
60
60. What is the term for an assembly of two to five single resources, such as different types of units, assembled to accomplish a specific task?
A) Brigade
B) Recon team
C) Task force
D) Regiment
C) Task force
61
61. What is the term for an assembly of five units of the same type with an assigned leader?
A) Strike team
B) Attack force
e) Regiment
D) Brigade
A) Strike team
62
62. What is one of the three basic ICS components that always apply to every incident?
A) You always report to one supervisor.
B) Level II staging is always located downwind.
e) The PIO always reports to the logistics section chief.
D) The logistics section is always the frrst to be filled.
A) You always report to one supervisor
63
63. In what condition should the fuel tanks on power tools be left when not in use?
A) Full
B) Approximately half full
e) Almost empty; the engine should be run until it runs out of gas.
D) Absolutely empty and dry; the tank should be drained at its low point.
A) Full
64
64. How often should power equipment be tested?
A) Daily
B) Frequently
C) Infrequently
D) Rarely
B) Frequently
65
65. What is it called when a rope is suddenly put under unusual tension?
A) Rope hammer
B) Dynamic loading
C) Dynamic hammer
D) Shock loading
D) Shock loading
66
What is the term used to describe a device used to connect one rope to another rope, harness, or itself?
A) Carabiner
B) Flange
C) Pulley
D) Rope break
A) Carabiner
67
67. How is the length of bolt cutter handles related to the amount of cutting force that can be applied?
A) They are not related.
B) The longer the handle, the weaker the cutting force.
C) The longer the handle, the greater the cutting force.
D) It depends on what is being cut.
C) The longer the handle, the greater the cutting force.
68
68. How does foam extinguish flammable liquid fires?
A) Inhibits chemical chain reaction
B) Separates fuel from fire
C) Dilutes the fuel
D) Cools fire
B) Separates fuel from fire
69
69. What is the term for a device that mixes the foam concentrate in the fire stream in the proper percentage?
A) Foam proportioner
B) Foam concentrator
C) Foam reducer
D) Foam variator
A) Foam proportioner
70
70. What foam application method should be used on pooled liquid fires on the ground?
A) Bankshot (bank-down)
B) Raindown
C) Sweep (roll-on)
D) Subsurface injection
C) Sweep (roll-on)
71
71. Which type of nozzle moves more air and is therefore more likely to disrupt the thermal balance?
A) Solid
B) Straight
C) Cellar
D) Fog
D) Fog
72
72. An indirect attack is indicated when the temperature is increasing and it appears that _____is about to happen.
A) backdraft
B) structural collapse
C) rollaway
D) flashover
D) flashover
73
73. What is the objective of an indirect fire attack?
A) To extinguish the fire directly and immediately
B) To quickly remove as much heat as possible from the fire atmosphere
C) To mix the fire gases with water vapor, diluting them
D) To cause the fire gases to condense into liquids and fall to the surface
B) To quickly remove as much heat as possible from the fire atmosphere
74
74. In what kind of operation is the objective for fire fighters to get close enough to the fire to apply extinguishing agents at close range?
A) Intervention
B) Exposure protection
C) Offensive
D) Reactive
C) Offensive
75
75. What is one use for a fog stream besides putting water on a fire?
A) Grounding a live electrical wire
B) Fireground communications signals
C) Freezing the thermal layering into place
D) Venting smoke and heat out a window
D) Venting smoke and heat out a window
76
What is an elevated master stream device that is mounted at the tip of an aerial ladder called?
A) Ladder pipe
B) Neuse pipe
C) FDC
D) Ground monitor
A) Ladder pipe
77
77. Before any interior attack is initiated, what should be done to the structure?
A) The outside wetted
B) The roof sounded
C) Secondary search
D) Ventilation
D) Ventilation
78
78. What is installed on propane cylinders to allow excess pressure to escape?
A) Pinhole
B) Primer valve
C) Purge valve
D) Relief valve
D) Relief valve
79
79. What is added to propane to give it a distinct odor?
A) Mercaptan
B) Triptan
C) Sulfur
D) Methane
A) Mercaptan
80
80. The best method to prevent a BLEVE is to direct the heavy stream of water _
A) on the relief valve
B) at the end of the container
C) at the point of flame impingement
D) below the point of flame impingement
C) at the point of flame impingement
81
81. What building access device is particularly dangerous to operate around overhead electrical wires?
A) Sparking circular saw
B) Ladder
C) Non-sparking hydraulic spreader
D) Ram
B) Ladder
82
82. What is the term for any other building or item that may be in danger as a result of an incident in another building or area?
A) Liability
B) Exposure
C) Endangerment
D) Abutment
B) Exposure
83
83. What is the term for the amount of combustible material and the rate of heat release associated with a building being evaluated in the context of potential exposures during a preincident survey?
A) Fire load
B) R rating
C) Molecular weight
D) Relative density
A) Fire load
84
84. The required flow rate for a building is calculated based upon the building's size, construction, contents, and ____
A) municipality
B) location
C) time of day
D) exposures
D) exposures
85
85. Which of the following could be a difficulty when trying to gain access to a public assembly during an emergency?
A) Occupants trying to evacuate
B) Access routes
C) Reduced visibility
D) Hazardous materials
A) Occupants trying to evacuate
86
86. If hazardous materials are present, what is available to assist the fire fighter in identifying safe response practices for the hazardous materials?
A) Hazardous materials identification sheet
B) Shipping label
C) Bill of lading
D) Material safety data sheet
D) Material safety data sheet
87
87. What is the term for short lengths of sturdy timber used to stabilize a vehicle in place?
A) Batting
B) Tatting
C) Cribbing
D) Bedding
C) Cribbing
88
88. What type of glass is the rear window of a vehicle?
A) Laminated
B) Insulated
C) Tempered
D) Plastic
C) Tempered
89
89. What is the term for a vehicle that operates by a battery-powered electric motor and a conventional gasoline-powered engine?
A) Hybrid
B) Crossover
C) Changeover
D) CNG
A) Hybrid
90
90. When should emergency medical care be provided for a trapped victim?
A) As soon as access is made
B) Before extrication begins
C) After extraction begins
D) After victim has been removed from the vehicle
A) As soon as access is made
91
What is the most common method of establishing the control zones for an emergency incident site?
A) Stationing fire fighters along a perimeter
B) The use of police or fire line tape
C) Stationing police along a perimeter
D) Police-style pedestrian traffic barricades
B) The use of police or fire line tape
92
92. What is the term for preparing a victim for movement as a unit, often by using a long spine board or similar device?
A) Evaluating
B) Demobilizing
C) Restraining
D) Packaging
D) Packaging
93
93. What should a fire fighter do if he or she does not understand the orders he or she has received?
A) Proceed with what they know needs accomplished
B) Request orders from another supervisor
C) Wait for orders to be restated
D) Ask for clarification
D) Ask for clarification
94
94. What is the only time a victim should be moved prior to completion of initial care, assessment, stabilization, and treatment?
A) Victim's life is in immediate danger.
B) In order to get to another victim
C) To facilitate end of work period
D) Supply of medical equipment is low
A) Victim's life is in immediate danger.
95
95. At what type of incident should an accountability system be established?
A) Complex
B) All incidents
C) Incidents with victims
D) Technical rescue
B) All incidents
96
96. What type of fire extinguisher should be located in the kitchen?
A) ABC
B) Halon 1211
C) Halon 1301
D) BD
A) ABC
97
97. Where should gasoline and other flammable liquids be stored around a residence?
A) The basement only
B) The garage only
C) The attic or garage
D) An outside storage area or out building
D) An outside storage area or out building
98
98. Is children playing with matches still a common cause of bedroom fires?
A) No
B) Yes
C) No, not unless the children are permitted to actually smoke cigarettes
D) Yes, but only in homes without smoke detectors
B) Yes
99
99. What is the mnemonic to use to instruct people what to do if their clothes catch on fire?
A) Look, feel, open
B) Learn not to burn
C) Stop, drop, roll
D) EDITH
C) Stop, drop, roll
100
100. Which fire safety program teaches people how to safely get out of their homes in the event of a fire?
A) Look, feel, open
B) Learn not to burn
C) Stop, drop, roll
D) EDITH
D) EDITH
101
101. What is the more common and less expensive type of smoke detector?
A) Acoustic
B) Magnetic
C) Ionization
D) Photoelectric
C) Ionization
102
102. Sprinkler heads perform two functions, one of which is to apply water to the fire. What is the other?
A) Notify occupants of the frre
B) Auto-restore when the fire is out
C) Activate the fire alarm system
D) Report any trouble in the system
C) Activate the fire alarm system
103
103. What does a water-motor gong signify?
A) A sprinkler system has high head pressure.
B) Water is flowing in a sprinkler system.
C) Water is flowing in a standpipe system.
D) A sprinkler system has low head pressure.
B) Water is flowing in a sprinkler system.
104
104. How does carbon dioxide primarily extinguish a fire?
A) Displacing oxygen
B) Inhibit chemical reaction
C) Removes fuel
D) Cooling
A) Displacing oxygen
