Unit 2 Renal path Flashcards

1
Q

what type of patients should be treated for bacteriuria?

A

Pregnant pts, pts undergoing traumatic genitourinary procedures (transurethral prostatectomy)
, renal transplant pts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What patients develop Strep. Agalactiae UTI’s?

A

Pt’s with diabetic mellitus and pregnant women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the characteristics of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Hypoalbuminemia, edema, and massive proteinuria, fatty lipid casts, lipiduria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the side effects of loop diuretics?

A

Dehydration (dizziness and orthostatic hypotension)

Podagra- gout of the big toe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are loop diuretics mainly used for

A

CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are thiazides mainly used for?

A

Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Are there any thiazide drugs that can be used IV

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are ACE inhibitors mainly used to treat

A
  1. HTN
  2. CHF
  3. other things
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors thats not a dry cough, and why does it cause it?

A

Increased serum creatinine.

Because it lowers GFR, thus less creatinine excreated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the function of leydig cells

A

they are the principle source of androgen production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are a leydig tumor cause

A

Drastic increase in testosterone

Can also increase estrogen production which leads to gynecomastia, loss of libido, ED, infertility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A pt comes in with dark urine and complains of being very fatigued and sore. they also have muscle pain, what could be happening

A

Rhabdomyolysis leading to acute tubular necrosis, because the myoglobin from muscle breakdown fucked up the kidney leading to rapid kidney injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How can you distinguish between PSGN and IgA nephropathy?

A

Similar symptoms but antistreptolysin O antibodies being in serum suggests PSGN, not IgA nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the most common cause of glomerular hematuria

A

IgA nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in the US

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the common symptoms of FSGS

A

Proteinuria, edema, and hypertension

coupled with mild hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What kind of drug is acetazolamide, its MOA and uses

A

Carbonic anhydrase Inhibitor

Inhibits CA in the proximal tubule, leads to diuresis of bicarb, sodium, potassium, and water

Also used for altitude sickness- leads to metabolic acidosis which causes body to breath better at higher altitudes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a side effect of acetazolamide?

A

Paresthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the hallmark characteristics of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis?

A

Low serum bicarb, high serum Cl-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of metabolic acidosis do all RTA present with

A

Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What should I think about with I see “GI illness”?

A

Diarrhea–> bicarb loss –> non anion gap metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is RTA type 2

A

Bicarb reabsorption in PCT is FUCKED

leads to hypokalemia, Non anion gap MA, alkaline urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is RTA type 1

A

H+ secretion is fucked in the DCT

leads to Non anion gap MA, hypokalemia, kidney stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is RTA type 4

A

Aldosterone response in collecting duct is impaired

leads to inability to secrete protons and potassium–> metabolic acidosis and hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is methanol metabolized into

A

Formaldehyde–> formic acid and lactic acid via alcohol dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What can methanol poisoning lead to

A

CNS symptoms- dizziness, confusion, coma, etc.
Visual problems
metabolic acidosis
High anion gap and elevated osmolar gap (due to increased formic acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is ethylene glycol metabolized into

A

glycolic acid—> oxalate acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What can ethylene glycol poisoning lead to

A

Similar CNS symptoms to methanol
Renal problems (AKI and stones)
Metabolic acidosis with high anion gap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If theres renal failure is it ethylene glycol or methanol poisoning?

A

Ethylene glycol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If theres visual problems is it ethylene glycol or methanol poisoning?

A

Methanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a common side effect of ACE inhibtiors

A

Angioedema due to increased bradykinin levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a common side effect of spirolactone

A

Gynecomastia due to estrogen mimic action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a common side effects of loop diuretics?

A

Hypokalemia due to increased Na and water reabsorption in the collecting duct

Ototoxicity due to loop diuretics tendency to concentrate the inner ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When being shown acid-base disorder questions what should I imediately think?

A

Whats the bicarb level
Whats the Cl- level

Whats the Pco2 levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What should I think about thats obvious AF when im given symptoms

A

What is causing these symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

THINK LOGICALLY NOT ANKILLY

A

dumbass mf start using your smarts brotha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If theres evidence of glomerular damage with hypertension what should i think?

A

Nephritic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Nephritic or Nephrotic syndromes will present with what in the question stems

A

Nephritic- hallmark Hematuria, not trace urine RBCs

Nephrotic- hallmark proteinuria, not trace urine proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

when I see FeNa in question stem what should I think about

A

Kidney tubule function. Is it damaged or not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How does hypotension affect the way the kidney handles sodium

A

Hypotension–> RAAS–> arteriolar constriction–> dec. GFR –> Dec. filtered load –> Increases sodium reabsorption

41
Q

what causes an increase in PTH secretion

A

hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and impaired 1,25- Vit D production

42
Q

what are some characteristics of lupus nephritis

A

Arthralgia, myalgia, erythematous skin rash, hypertension, hematuria

43
Q

What serologic studies confirms lupus nephritis

A

Anti-double stranded DNA antibody

44
Q

What is the most common cause of immune deposition in membranous nephropathy

A

anti-PLA2 antibody.

45
Q

Bleeding and hypotension for days are indicative of what. and what does that mean for the kidney

A

Ischemia–> Acute tubular necrosis

46
Q

What kind of casts are seen in ATN

A

Brown granular (muddy) casts

47
Q

Where are deposits seen in berger disease

A

IgA deposits in the mesangium

48
Q

Play attention to word choices such as sudden onset mf… how that can help you

A

Distinguish acute symptoms like kidney stone flank pain compared to slower onset things like nephrotic/nephritic syndromes

49
Q

Who gets UTI’s from enterococcus faecalis

A

post surgery pts, especially those given cephasporins

50
Q

MOA of Trimethoprim

A

Folate analog.Competitive inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase.

DHF–> THF (tetrahydrofolate) doesnt occur—> decreased nucleotide synthesis—> no cell DNA replication/transcription

51
Q

MOA of ampicillin

A

Cell wall analog–> Cell wall crosslinking inhibition (cell wall synthesis)

52
Q

Tetracycline MOA

A

Bacterial protein synthesis inhibitor
-broad spectrum

53
Q

MOA of chloramphenicol

A

Reversibly binds to bacterial 50s ribosome, thus inhibiting peptide bond formation

54
Q

What kind of Abx is levofloxacin

A

fluoroquinolone

55
Q

MOA of levofloxacin

A

topoisomerase II inhibitor (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV (separates replicated chromosomal DNA)–> blocks bacterial DNA replication and translation

56
Q

What population can get Staph. Aureus UTI?

A

elderly pts with catheter and recently underwent an invasive medical procedure.

57
Q

What are histological characteristics of renal cell carcinoma

A

Clear cytoplasm

58
Q

What causes the cough side effect with ACE inhibitors

A

increased bradykinin levels, which can also cause angioedema

59
Q

What can BPH lead to

A

Obstructive uropathy–> hydronephrosis–> chronic renal failure

60
Q

What is cortical atrophy of the kidney

A

Shrinkage or loss of function of the cortex of the kidney

61
Q

What can cause cortical atrophy of the kidney

A

Progressive damage to the nephrons such as in..
1) Chronic kidney failure
2) Obstructive uropathy: kidney stones, BPH
3) Chronic Interstitial nephritis- tubules scarred
4)Renal Artery stenosis- ischemia

62
Q

Which drug causes a decrease formation of CSF and also aqueous humor in the eye

A

Acetazolamide

63
Q

What is conivaptan and what is it used for?

A

a V1/V2 (vasopressin) receptor antagonist (IV used only)

it is used to treat things like SIADH–> increase excretion of free water

also used to treat hyponatremia

64
Q

What drug lowers intracranial pressure and how

A

Mannitol, by drawing out free water from the brain

65
Q

What drugs can cause hypomagnesemia?

A

Loop and thiazide diuretics

66
Q

Which drug causes a decrease in plasma renin, AI, AII, and aldosterone. Why?

A

Metoprolol.

Blocks Beta-1 receptors in the JGA which results in a decrease renin release which drops the levels of the other things too.

67
Q

What drug decreases renin activity but not production

68
Q

Why do renin levels increase with ACE inhibitors?

A

Because the body doesnt know that ACE is inhibited, it just knows that BP isnt going up, therefore releases more renin.

69
Q

What is entresto?

A

Drug combo of sacubitril and valsartan

70
Q

Why is valsartan given with sacubitril

A

Since sacubitril normally inhibits the enzyme neprilysin which can degrade AII

Losartan is given to inhibit the AII thats not degraded

70
Q

What drugs are contraindicated with entresto

A

ACE inhibitors

71
Q

Prils, like trils elevate levels of what

A

Bradykinin–> dry cough and angioedema

72
Q

What kind of diuretic is chlorthalidone

73
Q

What is a common side effect of chlorthalidone

A

sexual dysfunction (erection and impotence)

74
Q

What drug has shown the ability to significantly slow the progression of albuminuria CKD with hypertension

A

ACE inhibitors

75
Q

What classes of drugs treat overactive bladder?

A

Anti-muscarinics (antiparaysym)

Beta-3 adrenergic agonists

76
Q

What are the common anti-muscarinic drugs used to treat overactive bladder and how

A

Oxybutynin
Solifenacin
Tolterodine

MOA- inhibits detrusor muscle

77
Q

What are the common beta 3 adrenergic agonist drugs used to treat overactive bladder and how

A

Mirabegron
Vibegron

inhibits detrusor muscle

78
Q

M1,M2,M3 GPCR effects

A

M1-Gq
M2-Gi
M3-Gq

79
Q

A1,A2, B1, B2 GPCR effects

A

QISS
A1-Q
A2-I
B1-S
B2-S

80
Q

What drug is a renal vasodilator

81
Q

Which drug can increase renal perfusion in hypovolemic shock

82
Q

Which nephritic syndromes have normal vs low complement levels and why

A

IgA nephropathy - normal levels bc complement dont really like IgA. Also goodpasture

PSGN, Lupus, DPGN cause lower levels of complement because IgG/IgM are involved

83
Q

What nephritic syndrome should I think of when theres recurrent hematuria episodes that revolve spontaneously?

A

IgA nephropathy

84
Q

Which organisms can cause struvite stones and why?

A

Klebsiella and proteus bc they are urease positive

85
Q

How do urease positive bacteria cause ammonia magnesium phosphate stones

A

Urease breaks down urea in ammonia and OH- which alkalizes the urine (inc in pH) and cause cause precipitation of the stone

86
Q

Eosinophils in urine is associated with what disease and what related symptoms

A

Acute interstitial nephritis. Rash, fever, acute kidney injury

87
Q

do urine stones form in dilute or concentrated urine

A

Concentrated

88
Q

Why can their be blood positive but RBC negative in a urinalysis

A

because its detecting HEME not RBC’s

89
Q

What things can cause rhabdomyolysis

A

Crush injuries, seizures, drugs (statins)

90
Q

Where does the most common type of RCC originate from the kidney

A

Proximal tubules

91
Q

What is primary polydipsia?

A

A syndrome of increased fluid consumption due to excessive thirst which can be causes be psychiatry issues or emotional stress.

92
Q

What drug can be used to treat bipolar

93
Q

How does lithium used affect ADH

A

It lowers its effects thus caused polydipsia and polyuria

94
Q

Where does ADH act in the kidney tubules

A

Collecting duct via Aquaporin 2 channels

95
Q

Should the specific gravity of urine be higher or lower than normal after being water deprived

96
Q

ESA’s side effects

A

hypertension and increased risk for thromboembolic events due to increased blood viscosity

97
Q

How can albuterol (beta2 agonist), sympathomimetics, and insulin cause hypokalemia

A

They all stimulate the Sodium-potassium pump which causes potassium to shift intracellularly.