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Higher Biology > Unit 2 - Metabolism & Survival > Flashcards

Unit 2 - Metabolism & Survival Flashcards

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1
Q

what is metabolism

A

all of the chemical reactions that take place inside all living cells

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2
Q

what two types of organisms must control their metabolism in order to survive

A

unicellular & multicellular

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3
Q

name four metabolic reactions

A
  1. respiration
  2. protein synthesis
  3. photosynthesis
  4. starch synthesis
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4
Q

describe metabolic pathways

A

a series of chemical reactions which take place within a cell, involving several enzymes

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5
Q

what will the products of one chemical reaction in a metabolic pathway become in the next one

A

the substrate

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6
Q

metabolic pathway diagram… (glycolysis)

A

glucose
|
enzyme a
|
v
glycogen<== intermediate 1 ==> starch
(mammals) N (plants)
|
enzyme b
|
N
intermediate 2
|
enzyme c
|
v
intermediate 3
|
many enzyme controlled steps
|
v
pyruvate

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7
Q

what three things can metabolic pathways have?

A
  1. reversible steps
  2. irreversible steps
  3. alternative routes
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8
Q

alternative route diagram…

A

glucose————————————->
| |
enzyme a |
| alternative route
v |
intermediate 1 v
N sorbital
| |
enzyme b several enzyme
| controlled steps
N |
intermediate 2 |
| |
enzyme c |
| |
v |
intermediate 3 |
|——————————————v
many enzyme controlled steps
|
v
pyruvate

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9
Q

fermentation in mammals and fermentation in yeast equation

A

mammals:
pyruvate <=========>lactate

yeast:
pyruvate ===> CO2 + ethanol

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10
Q

name and define the two types of metabolic pathways

A
  1. catabolic:
    involve breaking down (degrading) large
    molecules into smaller ones - this
    releases energy
  2. anabolic:
    involve building up (synthesising) large
    molecules from smaller ones - this
    requires energy
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11
Q

give an example of each type of metabolic pathway (catabolic & anabolic)

A

catabolic:
respiration
(glucose + oxygen ==> CO2 + water)

anabolic:
protein synthesis
(amino acids ==> protein)

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12
Q

name two structures with membranes

A
  1. chloroplast
  2. mitochondria
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13
Q

what does a chloroplast include inside it

A

inner membrane, granum, stroma, thylakoids, outer membrane

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14
Q

what does a mitochondria include inside it

A

cristae, outer membrane, central matrix, inner membrane

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15
Q

name three ways materials can pass through the membrane

A
  1. diffusion
  2. osmosis
  3. active transport (pump mechanism)
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16
Q

name three functions of proteins in the plasma membrane

A
  1. protein pores (diffusion)
  2. pumps (active transport)
  3. enzymes (ATP synthase)
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17
Q

where are the proteins in the plasma membrane embedded

A

in the phospholipid membranes

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18
Q

what are some of the proteins embedded in the cell membrane and what do they do

A

enzymes which catalyse the steps in metabolic pathways

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19
Q

what are metabolic pathways controlled by

A

the presence or absence of particular enzymes

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20
Q

give three reasons why are enzymes essential to metabolic pathways

A
  1. they speed up chemical reactions
  2. they remain unchanged after the
    reaction so can be used again
  3. they lower the activation energy
    required to carry out the reaction
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21
Q

what is induced fit

A

when the active site changes shape to better fit the substrate after the substrate binds

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22
Q

what are the three steps to induced fit during an enzyme catalysed reaction

A
  1. reactants bind to the active site in a
    specific orientation, forming an enzyme-
    substrate complex
  2. interactions between enzyme and
    substrate lower the activation energy
    required
  3. products have a lower affinity for the
    active site and are released. enzyme is
    unchanged after reaction
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23
Q

do substrate molecules/products have a low or high affinity for the active site and what does this result in

A

substrate molecule(s) have a high affinity (attraction) for the active site so will bind readily.
products have a low affinity, allowing them to leave the active site, free to catalyse another reaction.

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24
Q

what three things is enzyme action affected by (expand on no. 3)

A
  1. temperature
  2. pH
  3. substrate concentration - if the substrate conc. is low, the rate of reaction is low. this improves as the substrate conc. increases. as substrate conc. increases further, the rate of reaction remains constant.
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25
Q

explain the effect of increasing substrate concentration on enzyme activity (at low concentration…)

A

at low substrate conc., many of the active sites on enzymes are not occupied, therefore there is a low rate of reaction. as substrate conc. increases, more enzymes are able to catalyse reactions so there is an increase in the rate of reaction. as substrate conc. increases further there is a plateau as all of the active sites on enzymes are occupied by substrates

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26
Q

what does the presence of a substrate or the removal of a product do to a sequence of reactions in enzyme action

A

drive a sequence of reactions in a particular direction

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27
Q

define inhibitors

A

substances which can slow down the rate of an enzyme

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28
Q

state the two main types of inhibitors

A
  1. competitive
  2. non-competitive
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29
Q

where do competitive inhibitors bind to on an enzyme

A

they have a similar shape to the substrate so they also fit the enzyme’s active site and bind there

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30
Q

what happens when a competitive inhibitor joins the enzyme

A

it prevents the substrate binding, therefore reducing the number of substrate molecules being used by the enzyme

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31
Q

how is the effect of a competitive inhibitor reversed

A

by increasing the substrate concentration. with more substrate molecules present, there is a higher chance that the active site will be occupied by a substrate molecule rather than the inhibitor.

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32
Q

when is the maximum rate of reaction achieved during increasing substrate concentration

A

when the inhibitor is out-competed by the substrate

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33
Q

where do non-competitive inhibitors bind to on the enzyme and what does this result in

A

they don’t interfere with the active site and instead bind to another part of the enzyme. this results in the shape of the enzyme being altered so the active site’s shape is also altered. the substrate can now no longer fit the enzyme’s active site and therefore the reaction cannot take place

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34
Q

can the effect of a non-competitive inhibitor be reversed by increasing substrate concentration?

A

no

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35
Q

give examples of non-competitive inhibitors

A

heavy metals like lead and silver

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36
Q

what is end product feedback inhibition

A

another way a metabolic pathway can be regulated

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37
Q

how does end product feedback inhibition work

A

as the conc. of the end product builds up to a critical level, some of the product binds to an earlier enzyme in the pathway and blocks this enzyme’s action, preventing further (unnecessary) synthesis of the end product

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38
Q

what three things each play a part in controlling metabolic pathways

A
  1. competitive inhibition
  2. non-competitive inhibition
  3. feedback inhibition
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39
Q

what is ATP used for and give three examples of these things

A

to transfer energy to cellular processes which require energy
1. muscle contractions
2. synthesis reactions
3. active transport

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40
Q

what is ATP made up of

A

one adenosine and three inorganic phosphate groups (Pi)

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41
Q

define phosphorylation

A

addition of phosphate group

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42
Q

what two reactions does ATP act as a link between

A

energy-releasing reactions and energy-consuming reactions

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43
Q

what is glycolysis and where does it occur

A

it is the first stage of aerobic respiration and it occurs in the cytoplasm

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44
Q

does glycolysis require oxygen

A

no

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45
Q

what happens during glycolysis

A

glucose (a 6 carbon molecule) is broken down into 2 molecules of pyruvate (a 3 carbon molecule) in a series of enzyme controlled reactions.

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46
Q

what is ATP required for in glycolysis

A

the phosphorylation of glucose and intermediates during the series of reactions

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47
Q

how many molecules of ATP is generated during glycolysis and what is the process to get to that conclusion

A

there is an investment of 2 ATP molecules in the energy investment phase and 4 ATP molecules are generated during the energy pay off stage. resulting in a net gain of 2 ATP

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48
Q

what bond are the carbons held together by in a 6C glucose molecule

A

hydrogen bonds

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49
Q

what happens when the glucose molecule is split during glycolysis

A

hydrogen ions and electrons are released and must bind to a carrier

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50
Q

what is the hydrogen carrier during glycolysis

A

NAD which becomes NADH when carrying hydrogen ions

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51
Q

what is the name of the enzyme that removes hydrogen ions and electrons from the glucose during glycolysis

A

dehydrogenase

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52
Q

what are the hydrogen ions and electrons temporarily bound to during glycolysis

A

a coenzyme (NAD) which acts as a hydrogen acceptor and carrier

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53
Q

where does NAD carry the hydrogen ions and electrons to during glycolysis

A

to the Electron Transport Chain on the inner membrane of the mitochondria to be used later

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54
Q

where are the two sites that aerobic respiration occurs at and the function of these places

A
  1. matrix of the mitochondria- fluid filled,
    containing enzymes (citric acid
    cycle)
  2. cristae of the mitochondria-folds,
    increasing surface area (electron
    transport chain)
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55
Q

what happens after glycolysis during aerobic respiration

A

the citric acid cycle

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56
Q

what happens after glycolysis at the start of the citric acid cycle and what are the steps during the citric acid cycle

A
  1. pyruvate diffuses into the matrix where
    it loses a carbon atom to become acetyl
  2. the carbon is removed as carbon
    dioxide and is released from the cell
  3. acetyl group then joins with a molecule
    called ‘co-enzyme A’ , forming acetyl co-
    enzyme A. the co-enzyme transports the
    acetyle group to the citric acid cycle
  4. acetyl combines with oxaloacetate to
    form citrate. this is followed by several
    enzyme controlled steps. this cycle will
    eventually lead to the regeneration of
    oxaloacetate
  5. ATP is generated (1 molecule per
    pyruvate)

(CO2 is released throughout the cycle)

  1. H ions and electrons are removed by
    dehydrogenase enzymes. these are
    accepted by NAD to form NADH
  2. the H ions and high energy electrons are
    passed to the electron transport chain
    on the inner mitochondrial membrane
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57
Q

what is the electron transport chain (2 things)

A

the final stage of the respiration pathway and a collection of proteins on the inner mitochondrial membrane (cristae)

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58
Q

at which stage of respiration is the most ATP produced

A

the electron transport chain

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59
Q

what is the cristae made of

A

proteins and phospholipids (like any membrane)

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60
Q

what are the steps to the electron transport chain

A
  1. the NADH from glycolysis and citric acid
    cycle release the electrons and pass
    them to the electron transport chain
  2. the electron transport chain is a series
    of carrier proteins attached to the inner
    mitochondrial membrane
  3. electrons are passed along the electron
    transport chain, releasing energy
  4. this energy is used to pump H+ across
    the inner mitochondrial membrane,
    creating a higher concentration outside
    the matrix
  5. H+ then flow back in across the
    membrane via molecules of ATP
    synthase. This enzyme converts ADP + Pi
    into ATP
  6. the majority of the ATP produced during
    cellular respiration is generated this way
  7. oxygen is the final hydrogen acceptor
    and combines with the electrons and
    hydrogen ions that reach the end of the
    chain to make water
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61
Q

how many molecules of ATP is generated in each of the following
1. glycolysis
2. citric acid cycle
3. electron transport chain

A
  1. 2
  2. 2
  3. 34
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62
Q

when does fermentation occur

A

in the absence of oxygen

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63
Q

fermentation in plants & yeast process…

A

glucose ————-
| } net gain of 2 ATP
2x pyruvate ——– produced (glycolysis)
|
ethanol + CO2

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64
Q

fermentation in animals process…

A

same as plants & yeast (glycolysis) but then 2x pyruvate goes to lactate and that step is reversible where O2 debt builds up from pyruvate to lactate but is then repaid going back the way

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65
Q

why is fermentation in animals reversible

A

because the oxygen debt can be repaid and lactate will convert back into pyruvate

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66
Q

how many ATP molecules are produced in aerobic respiration (per mol. of glucose)

A

38 ATP per molecule of glucose

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67
Q

how many ATP molecules are produced in fermentation (anaerobic respiration)

A

2 ATP (during glycolysis) from one molecule of glucose

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68
Q

define metabolic rate

A

the quantity of energy consumed per unit of time

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69
Q

what can metabolic rate be measured as (3 things)

A
  1. energy production (heat) per unit of
    time
  2. oxygen consumption per unit of time
  3. CO2 production per unit of time
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70
Q

what can a calorimeter be used to measure and what is recorded on it

A

used to measure metabolic rate and energy production (heat) per unit of time is recorded

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71
Q

what is a suitable control for a calorimeter experiment

A

replace the woodlice (organism) with glass beads (inert object)

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72
Q

what can a respirometer be used to measure and what is detected by it

A

used to measure metabolic rate and probes can be used to detect changes in CO2 concentration and O2 concentration

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73
Q

what happens when an organism’s metabolic rate increases to meet increasing demand for energy and what does this mean

A

its rate of aerobic respiration and oxygen intake increase. this means that organisms with high metabolic rates need efficient transport systems to deliver large supplies of oxygen to respiring cells

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74
Q

what does the heart consist of in the single circulatory system

A

one atrium and one ventricle

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75
Q

what happens in the single circulatory system and give an example of an organism which has one

A

blood passes through a two chambered heart once for each complete circuit of the body. e.g. fish

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76
Q

what does the heart consist of in the incomplete double circulatory system and what does this cause

A

only one ventricle and two atria. this causes some oxygenated blood (from the lungs) to be mixed with deoxygenated blood (from the body)

77
Q

give an example of organisms with an incomplete double circulatory system

A

amphibians and reptiles

78
Q

what does the heart consist of in the double circulatory system

A

two atria and two ventricles which are separated

79
Q

is there mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the double circulatory system

A

no, meaning the oxygenated blood can be pumped out at a higher pressure

80
Q

how do complete double circulatory systems enable a higher metabolic rate to be maintained

A

it enables more efficient oxygen delivery to cells

81
Q

give an example of an organism with a complete double circulatory system

A

humans

82
Q

name the three external abiotic factors that can affect an organism

A
  1. temperature
  2. salinity
  3. pH
83
Q

define a conformer

A

an organism whose internal environment is dependant upon the external environment

84
Q

what is the advantage and the disadvantage of conformers

A

advantage:
they do not require energy to keep their inner state relatively stable (low metabolic costs)
disadvantage:
they may have a narrower range of ecological niches unless they can tolerate (adapt) or resist variation in their external environment

85
Q

name a behavioural response some conformers use to slightly control their internal environment

A

lizards bask in the sun to raise their body temperature

86
Q

define a regulator

A

organisms that use metabolism to maintain a steady internal environment despite changes in the external environment

87
Q

what is the advantage and the disadvantage of regulators

A

disadvantage:
this requires high energy expenditure
advantage:
offers a wide range of ecological niches

88
Q

what is homeostasis

A

our ‘internal environment’ must be maintained i.e. kept in a constant state if we are to survive

89
Q

how is homeostasis possible

A

negative feedback control

90
Q

what is negative feedback control

A

the process by which a change in a factor (e.g. body temperature) triggers a mechanism which results in that factor returning to its normal level (norm or set point)

91
Q

what can thermoregulators do

A

maintain their body temperature

92
Q

what is essential for thermoregulators so they have a higher metabolic rate

A

energy for heat

93
Q

what is another word for thermoregulators

A

endotherms

94
Q

what is important for endotherms to do and what happens if they do not do this

A

regulate their body temperature to around 35-45 degrees C, the optimum temperature for most enzymes. if they do not do this then metabolic pathways will not function at their best

95
Q

what does regulating temperature in endotherms ensure

A

high diffusion rates to meet the metabolic needs of tissues

96
Q

what is the hypothalamus

A

the part of the brain responsible for the monitoring of body temperature

97
Q

what does the hypothalamus receive, what does this detect and what can it then respond by

A

receives nerve impulses (messages) from thermo-receptors in the skin which detect changes in blood-temperature. it can then respond by sending nerve impulses to the necessary effectors which return the temperature of the body to its normal level (via negative feedback)

98
Q

which organ plays an important role in regards to regulation of body temperature

A

the skin

99
Q

how does the skin bring the body temperature back to normal levels

A

information is communicated by electrical impulses through nerves to the effectors (e.g. skin), which bring about corrective responses to return temperature to normal

100
Q

what three things happen during overheating

A
  1. vasodilation
  2. sweating increases
  3. metabolic rate decreases
101
Q

what happens during vasodilation during overheating

A

arterioles near the skin surface dilate (become wider), this causes an increase in blood flow to the surface close to the skin and heat is lost from the blood via radiation

102
Q

what happens when sweating increases during overheating

A

heat from the skin causes water (sweat) to evaporate, cooling the skin

103
Q

what happens when metabolic rate decreases during overheating

A

reduces the heat being produced in the body

104
Q

what four things happen during overcooling

A
  1. vasoconstriction
  2. erector muscles contract
  3. metabolic rate increases
  4. shivering
105
Q

what happens in vasoconstriction during overcooling

A

arterioles near the skin surface constrict (become narrower), this decreases the blood flow to the surface close to the skin and little heat is lost via radiation

106
Q

what happens when erector muscles contract during overcooling

A

this raises the hairs on the skin surface and a layer of warm air is trapped on the surface of the skin and acts as an insulator. goosebumps also occur

107
Q

what happens when metabolic rate increases during overcooling

A

heat is generated during metabolic

107
Q

what happens when metabolic rate increases during overcooling

A

heat is generated during metabolic reactions

108
Q

what happens during shivering during overcooling

A

involuntary twitching of muscles generates heat

109
Q

By which two ways can animals tolerate adverse conditions, give an example of each

A
  1. Surviving them through dormancy
  2. Avoiding them through migration
110
Q

Why would animals have to go through dormancy

A

When the cost of continued normal metabolic rate would be too high

111
Q

What four things decrease for an organism when it goes through dormancy

A
  1. Metabolic rate
  2. Heart rate
  3. Breathing rate
  4. Body temperature
112
Q

What can dormancy either be

A

Predictive or consequential

113
Q

When does predictive dormancy occur

A

Before the onset of adverse conditions

114
Q

when does consequential dormancy occur

A

After the onset of adverse conditions

115
Q

Which three forms can dormancy take

A
  1. Hibernation
  2. Aestivation
  3. Daily torpor
116
Q

Describe hibernation

A

A form of dormancy in some animals (usually mammals) which allows them to survive through the winter/low temperatures

117
Q

Describe aestivation

A

A form of dormancy in some animals which allows them to survive through periods of high temperature and/or drought

118
Q

Describe daily torpor

A

A time of dormancy within a 24 hour period, seen in animals with a high metabolic rate (e.g. birds and small mammals). The animals’ heart rate, breathing rate and body temperature also decrease

119
Q

Give examples of animals that undertake the following;
1. Hibernation
2. Aestivation
3. Daily torpor

A
  1. Hibernation- door mouse, hedgehog, grizzly bear
  2. Aestivation- crocodile, lungfish
  3. Daily torpor- humming bird
120
Q

Define migration

A

The seasonal Movement of members of the same species from one region to another

121
Q

What is energy used for during migration

A

To relocate to a more suitable environment

122
Q

What two behaviours can migration either be

A

Innate or learned

123
Q

Define innate behaviour

A

Behaviour that is inherited and therefore inflexible. It is part of the genetics of the organism

124
Q

Define learned behaviour

A

Behaviour that begins after birth and is gained from experiences. It is flexible and based on trial and error

125
Q

give an example of innate influences playing a primary role in migration

A

birds migrating due to an external stimulus change such as change in day length

126
Q

Which role do learned influences play in migration (primary or secondary)

A

Secondary

127
Q

What was the cross fostering experiment

A

Eggs from migratory and non-migratory birds were swapped

128
Q

What was discovered about innate and learned behaviour and the roles they take during the cross-fostering experiment

A

The migratory bird still migrated-innate behaviour and the non-migratory bird migrated with its new family-learned behaviour

129
Q

How do displacement experiments show that innate and learned behaviours are involved in migration

A

Migratory birds moved to a different location, birds still able to migrate to original migration location

130
Q

What four reasons do scientists study migration for

A

To find out:
1. When animals migrate
2. Where they are over winter
3. If they return to original summer territory
4. How long they live for

131
Q

What four specialist techniques can be used for tracking during long distance migration

A
  1. Leg rings
  2. Satellite tracking
  3. Togging
  4. Painting
132
Q

Describe how leg rings work when tracking long distance migration

A

Bands can be placed on the leg of the organism (e.g. birds). Bands have a specific ID number on them which can be logged each time an individual is captured. OR, different combinations of coloured bands can be used which are easily identified without recapture

133
Q

Describe how satellite tracking works when tracking long distance migration

A

A tracker is attached to the animal and GPS technology is used to track them. No recapturing is needed, data is precise but technology is very expensive

134
Q

What are the three domains of living things

A
  1. Bacteria
  2. Archaea
  3. Eukaryote
135
Q

What percentage of microbes are bacteria

A

Around 50%

136
Q

Which domains of life do microorganisms belong to

A

All three

137
Q

How can humans make use of microorganisms in industry and for research

A

Microorganisms use a wide variety of substrates for metabolism and produce a range of products for their metabolic pathways

138
Q

Why are microorganisms widely used in research and industry (give 3 reasons)

A
  1. They are easy to culture
  2. They reproduce and grow quickly
  3. Their metabolism can be controlled and manipulated relatively easily
139
Q

Name three complex molecules that microorganisms produce and need

A
  1. Amino acids
  2. Vitamins
  3. Fatty acids
140
Q

What do some microorganisms require in order to obtain all the raw materials they need

A

Them to be supplied in the growth media

141
Q

What is one of the ingredients that complex growth media contain

A

Beef extract

142
Q

What two things does growth media require

A
  1. Raw materials for making molecules
  2. An energy source
143
Q

What two places can an energy source for growth media either be derived from

A

Chemical substrates (e.g. sugar) or from light in photosynthetic microorganisms

144
Q

How/where can microbes be grown to get a useful product

A

On a large scale in a fermenter

145
Q

What needs to be controlled to ensure the optimum yield of the microbes (product)

A

Certain environmental conditions

146
Q

What four factors affect growth (microbes)

A
  1. Sterility
  2. Temperature
  3. Oxygen levels
  4. pH
147
Q

Why do fermenters need to be sterile when growing microorganisms

A

To reduce competition within desired microorganisms for nutrients and reduce the risk of spoilage of the product

148
Q

How is microorganism growth measured

A

By measuring the increase in cell numbers over a given period of time

149
Q

What are the four phases of growth

A
  1. Lag phase
  2. Log phase
  3. Stationary phase
  4. Death phase
150
Q

What happens during the lag phase

A

The lag phase shows very little increase in cell number as the cells adjust to the conditions. Microbes induce new enzymes to metabolise the substrate

151
Q

What happens during the log phase

A

The log phase (exponential phase) is when the cells grow and multiply at maximum rate due to plentiful nutrients

152
Q

When does the stationary phase take place

A

As the nutrients begin to run out (depleted) or toxic metabolites begin to accumulate

153
Q

What happens during the stationary phase

A

The number of cells dying is equal to the number of new cells being produced. Secondary metabolites which are not needed for growth can be produced, e.g. antibiotics

154
Q

How does the stationary phase give the microbe an ecological advantage in the wild

A

It allows them to out-compete other microorganisms (i.e. the antibiotic produced will kill other microbes)

155
Q

What happens during the death phase

A

The number of cells dying exceeds the number of new cells being produced. There is a lack of nutrients to support new cells or the accumulation of metabolites are so toxic that they can no longer survive

156
Q

Summarise the growth pattern of a unicellular culture (include all four stages)

A
  1. Lag phase:
    Where enzymes are induced to metabolise substrates
  2. Log or exponential phase:
    Most rapid growth due to plentiful nutrients
  3. Stationary phase:
    Nutrients become depleted and production of toxic metabolites
  4. Death phase:
    Toxic accumulation of metabolites or lack of nutrients in the culture
157
Q

Which two ways can cell numbers be counted

A
  1. Total cell count
  2. Viable cell count
158
Q

What does a total cell count involve

A

All cells whether dead or alive

159
Q

What does a viable cell count involve

A

Count only the cells which are alive

160
Q

What does a viable cell count show (that a total a cell count doesn’t) during the death phase

A

A death phase where cell numbers are decreasing

161
Q

Why is it difficult to graph the log phase on graph paper with regular scales

A

Because of the rapid increase in cell number

162
Q

What is the best way to graph the log phase

A

Use a log scale where the scale increases exponentially at each interval on the y-axis

163
Q

What two ways can wild strains of microorganisms be improved by

A
  1. Mutagenesis
  2. Recombinant DNA technology
164
Q

Define mutagenesis

A

The creation of mutations

165
Q

Exposure to what things can result in mutations

A

UV light and other forms of radiation or mutagenic chemicals

166
Q

What are the five stages to genetic engineering 

A
  1. Bacteria cell with chromosome and plasmid inside, human cell with insulin gene in a chromosome
  2. Plasmid extracted from bacteria cell and cut open, gene cut out of chromosome using enzyme
  3. Gene inserted into plasmid using enzyme
  4. Plasmid inserted into bacterium
  5. Grow large numbers of genetically engineered bacteria to produce large quantities of insulin
167
Q

What does recombinant DNA technology enable genetic engineers to do

A

Transfer gene sequences from one organism to another

168
Q

What does recombinant DNA technology allow the production of

A

Plant an animal protein by a micro organism that has been artificially transformed

169
Q

What can genetic engineers find during recombinant DNA technology

A

Particular genes which code for desirable traits

170
Q

What can the gene that genetic engineer is found during recombinant DNA technology be inserted into

A

A vector, then put into a bacteria cell

171
Q

What does the bacteria cell produced by recombinant DNA technology have the capabilities of

A

The original gene

172
Q

What is a vector

A

A DNA molecule used to carry foreign genetic information to another cell

173
Q

What two things are used as vectors during recombinant DNA technology

A
  1. Plasmids
  2. Artificial chromosomes
174
Q

When are artificial chromosomes preferred over plasmids as vectors

A

When larger fragments of foreign DNA are required to be inserted

175
Q

What three sites are in a plasmid vector

A
  1. Restriction site
  2. Marker gene
  3. Origin of replication
176
Q

What happens in the restriction site of a plasmid vector 

A

Restriction endonuclease enzymes target sequences of DNA. Different enzymes will target different sequences

177
Q

What are the four steps to recombinant DNA technology

A
  1. A restriction enzyme is used to cut a target sequence of DNA
  2. This will remove the required gene from the chromosomes and leave sticky ends
  3. The same restriction endonuclease enzymes cut open the restriction site on the plasmid leaving sticky ends which are complimentary to those on the gene
  4. Ligase enzyme is used to seal pieces of DNA into plasmids to make a recombinant plasmid with recombinant DNA. Altered plasmids can be inserted into host bacterial cell
178
Q

What does the marker gene on the plasmid allow

A

Allows the cells with the plasmid to be easily identified

179
Q

What is selective marker genes put in the plasmid to do

A

To protect the cells, e.g. an antibiotic resistant gene

180
Q

What does the use of the selective marker gene then mean the cells can be subjected to

A

Subjected to the antibiotic and those with the vector will survive while others won’t survive

181
Q

What does another type of marketing not the selective marker gene allowed the cells containing it to be

A

Easily identified e.g. a gene which produces fluorescent proteins which show up under UV light

182
Q

What two things does the origin of replication on a plasmid vector have

A

Genes responsible for the self replication of the plasmid DNA and regulatory sequences allowing it to control the existing genes as well as the inserted genes

183
Q

what five things does recombinant DNA technology use

A
  1. Insulin
  2. Human growth hormone
  3. Factor VIII
  4. EPO (erythropoietin- promotes red blood cell production)
  5. Interferon (part of the immune system)
184
Q

What do prokaryotes only contain (introns/exons)

A

Exons

185
Q

What does prokaryotes only containing exons mean when a eukaryotic gene is inserted into a prokaryote

A

Are eukaryotic gene when insert into a prokaryote may form an inactive protein as the polypeptide may be folded incorrectly

186
Q

How do scientists overcome the limitations of prokaryotes

A

Scientists will now often produce desired human proteins using genetically transformed yeast since yeast is a eukaryote

187
Q

How can it be made sure that the newly altered bacterium is safe to use in the environment

A

Genes could be introduced that prevents its survival in the wild

Higher Biology (2 decks)

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