Unit 2: High Functions and Neurodevelopment Beginning Flashcards

1
Q

Retinal ganglion cells

A

Important retinal detectors of light for circadian rhythms are ganglion cells that contain melanopsin and are depolarized by light.

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2
Q

Retinohypothalamic tract

A

Retinal ganglion cell → suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus → paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus → preganglionic sympathetic neurons in the thoracic spinal cord → pineal gland.

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3
Q

What is the function of the pineal gland?

A

The brain structure that produces melatonin from tryptophan.

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4
Q

What is the function of the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)?

A

The master clock of the circadian rhythm in the anterior hypothalamus.

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5
Q

How is the circadian rhythm controlled at a cellular level?

A

The circadian rhythm is regulated by gene expression and transcription of different proteins. Negative feedback leads to the self-regulation of this cycle.
The transcription and translation portions of this cycle take time so that is what allows the circadian rhythm to stay about the same without any light cues.

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6
Q

What is the cellular circadian rhythm?

A

Light-dependent degradation of Per which inhibits gene transcription of Clk and Bmal1 genes → Clk and Bmal1 acting as promoting transcription factors for Cry, Ccg, Per, and Rev-erb⍺ genes → Cry + Per2 dimers and Rev-erb⍺ inhibit Clk and Bmal1 activity.

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7
Q

What is EEG’s ⍺ rhythm associated with?

A

Associated with alertness; linked with the visual system.

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8
Q

What is EEG’s 𝛽 rhythm associated with?

A

Associated with mental activity and attention.

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9
Q

What are EEG’s theta and δ rhythm associated with?

A

Associated with drowsiness and sleep.

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10
Q

What is the interaction between aminergic and cholinergic systems with the circadian rhythm?

A

The aminergic system is most active while awake. Both aminergic and cholinergic systems decrease activity during non-REM sleep but aminergic systems decrease more leading to the cholinergic system becoming dominant.

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11
Q

What are sleep spindles and where do they come from?

A

Sleep spindles = high-frequency spike clusters that appear while we sleep.
Come from activity between thalamic and cortical neurons.

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12
Q

What are zeitgebers ?

A

Anything that can entrain that circadian rhythm.

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13
Q

What activity is required for wakefulness?

A

Being awake requires activation and tonic activity of thalamocortical systems.
Noradrenergic neurons of the locus coeruleus, serotonergic neurons of the DRN, and histamine neurons of the tuberomamillary nucleus (TMN) of the hypothalamus help increase wakefulness.
The TMN is activated by orexin/hypocretin which is produced by the lateral hypothalamus.
Cholinergic activity in the reticular activating system activates the thalamus leading to desynchronization between the thalamus and cortex.
Desynchronization of the cortex is necessary for wakefulness.

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14
Q

Why do anti-histamines make people drowsy?

A

Anti-histamines inhibit TMN activity which is why they make people drowsy.

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15
Q

What leads to REM sleep?

A

Monoamine systems are inactive while cholinergic systems are active.
Cholinergic neurons inhibit somatosensory input and motorneurons.

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16
Q

What is the function of the ventrolateral preoptic nucleus (VLPO)?

A

Part of the hypothalamus that inhibits wakefulness systems causing drowsiness.

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17
Q

What is learning and memory?

A

Experientially induced changes in the nervous system that may alter future behavior.

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18
Q

Have we ever observed a memory?

A

No, we have only ever infrared memories by changes in behavior.

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19
Q

What is priming?

A

A change in the processing of a stimulus due to a previous encounter with a similar stimulus.

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20
Q

What happens in the brain when reward motivates our behavior to increase memory?

A

Motivation increases our ability to remember relevant stimuli.
When reward motivates our behavior, the VTA is active and sends dopamine projections to the hippocampus. This aids in memory as the VTA is expecting a reward for the ability to recall this memory.

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21
Q

What are place cells, what do they need to fire, and do they adapt?

A

Place cells = cells in the hippocampus that fire only when the animal is in a particular location.

The responses of place cells depend on sensory information about that location and about where the animal thinks it is.

They can adapt to new environments and change/expand the location they respond to.

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22
Q

Where are place cells located in the hippocampus?

A

On the dorsal side.

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23
Q

What are grid cells and what do they need to fire?

A

Grid cells = entorhinal cortex cells that activate when the animal is at multiple locations that form a hexagonal grid.

Activity is dependent on where an animal thinks it is.
These activate multiple times when the animal enters different hotspots in the grid. They help align measurements for the space that the place cells can use for directionality.

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24
Q

What areas are involved in consolidating and retrieving non-declarative memories?

A

The amygdala, PFC, basal ganglia, sensory association cortices, and cerebellum.

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25
Q

What areas are used for complex motor learning?

A

The basal ganglia and PFC are influential for complex motor learning.

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26
Q

What is stimulus-response (S-R) learning and who was behind that idea?

A

Organisms learn habits in response to a stimulus in the environment.
Clark Hull

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27
Q

What is the law of effect?

A

A particular behavior by an organism is likely to occur more often if it produces a desirable outcome.

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28
Q

What were E.C. Tolman’s arguments for learning?

A

Learning involves making associations between stimuli. No response to the stimuli is required.
No biologically significant effect was necessary for learning.
No reinforcement or punishment was necessary for learning.

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29
Q

What is stimulus-stimulus (S-S) learning and who was behind that idea?

A

Learning involves making associations between stimuli. It is more flexible than S-R learning.
E.C. Tolman.

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30
Q

What is the distinction between performance and learning?

A

Performance is more rote reaction to something. It’s like putting down answers memorized for a test without actually understanding the material.
Learning is more flexible and can be used in several contexts and be remembered for longer.

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31
Q

Why did Karl Lashley’s lesions studies not find much evidence for memory?

A

The rats could perform the tasks using multiple different memory systems. Thus, without lesioning all those areas, the rat could still perform the task.

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32
Q

What kind of learning is the caudate of the basal ganglia associated with?

A

Response learning.

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33
Q

How do learning responses occur?

A

First, many cognitive processes in the hippocampus are involved.
After much training, and it becomes a much more rote response, the caudate takes over. This frees other cognitive resources.
Then, the task can be performed without even consciously thinking about it.

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34
Q

What is the perforant pathway?

A

Hippocampus: Entorhinal cortex → dentate gyrus (DG)

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35
Q

What is the mossy fiber pathway?

A

Hippocampus: DG → CA3

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36
Q

What is the Schaffer collaterals?

A

Hippocampus: CA3 → CA1

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37
Q

What processing does the ventral hippocampus do?

A

Emotional processing.

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38
Q

Is the hippocampus only involved in spatial learning?

A

No. Hippocampal cells encode relationships. Some cells only care about directional relationships while others focus on temporal relationships.

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39
Q

Can animals respond accurately if there is a delay between the stimulus and reaction?

A

No. The longer the delay is, the less accurate animals can respond. The hippocampal cells have a broader response as the delay increases.

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40
Q

Where are grid cells located?

A

In the medial entorhinal cortex.

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41
Q

What information does the lateral entorhinal cortex encode?

A

Provides the “what” information for objects and stimuli in the environment.

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42
Q

Where are retrograde and long-term memories stored?

A

They become stored in the cortex and rely less on hippocampal activity.

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43
Q

Does retrieval of episodic memories require hippocampus activity?

A

It is currently thought yes because temporal relationships are important for episodic memories.

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44
Q

Does retrieval of semantic memories require hippocampus activity?

A

No

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45
Q

What happens to episodic memories over time?

A

They become more like discrete scenes and not as much mental time travel.
So, it is like looking through a photography book jumping between different captured images instead of going through a video reel.

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46
Q

What is reinforcement learning?

A

Desirable outcomes to actions that make you more likely to perform the action.

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47
Q

What part of the basal ganglia is involved in the reinforcement of memories/learning?

A

Ventromedial areas and NAc shell.

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48
Q

What part of the basal ganglia is involved in goal-directed behavior?

A

Dorsal striatum and the NAc core.

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49
Q

How is the amygdala involved in memory?

A

Especially with emotional-laden memories, it can help increase the consolidation of the memory.

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50
Q

What are neuronal ensembles?

A

A set of neurons that encode a particular memory/percept/behavior.

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51
Q

What is Hebb’s idea for neuronal activity?

A

Neurons that fire together wire together.

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52
Q

What are some synaptic changes in LTP?

A

Larger synapses.
Increased AMPA responsiveness.
Greater axon terminals on a postsynaptic cell.

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53
Q

What sort of memories is REM better at consolidating?

A

Memories with emotional content.

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54
Q

Why is sleep important for memory?

A

Memories are replayed. They are done at a faster rhythm and this helps synaptic changes to occur.
There is coordinated brain activity that helps consolidate memories throughout the cortex as well.

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55
Q

Grammar

A

A set of rules for language production

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56
Q

Syntax

A

Placing the words in a meaningful order

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57
Q

Prosody

A

The rhythm, stress, and tonal variation that gives language its emotional meanings.

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58
Q

Semantics

A

Meanings of words.

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59
Q

What are the characteristics of Broca’s aphasia?

A

Halting speech
Preservation = tendency to repeat phrases or words
Disordered syntax
Disordered grammar
Disordered structure of individual words
Comprehension intact

60
Q

What are the characteristics of Wernicke’s aphasia?

A

Fluent speech
Little spontaneous repetition
Syntax adequate
Grammer adequate
Contrived or inappropriate words
Comprehension not intact

61
Q

What is conduction aphasia?

A

Caused by a lesion between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area.
Individuals can comprehend and produce speech but they have difficulty in making the appropriate responses to speech.

62
Q

What is the McGurk effect?

A

The perception of speech can be altered by the individual’s mouth movements.
If someone is mouthing a word but you hear a different one, the brain may jam those two together to make a separate word from the inputs.

63
Q

What is aprosody and where does it normally damage?

A

Aprosody occurs with right hemisphere language. This leads to a lack of emotional stress and tonal variation in words.

64
Q

Do bilinguals store the words for the same object/concept in the same place?

A

Not necessarily.

65
Q

What is the visual word form area?

A

Visual word form area (VWFA) = area in the left occipital-temporal sulcus that is activated by visual words that are used for reading ability.

66
Q

What is the source of speech?

A

Vocal cords/folds.

67
Q

What are the filters of speech?

A

Tongue, teeth, lips.

68
Q

Is there any evidence that non-human animals engage in language?

A

No. They communicate for sure, but even taught animals miss important concepts for language.

69
Q

What is the basic model for speech? Is it supported anymore?

A

Auditory information → Wernicke’s area → Broca’s for speech output
No, it is not supported as it is too simple of a model.

70
Q

Does damage to Broca and Wernicke’s areas or their connections always produce aphasia? Why or why not?

A

It doesn’t always as there are many places that when stimulated lead to speech problems when they were not expected to.
Basically, there are many more areas involved in language than just Wernicke’s and Broca’s.

71
Q

What is the dorsal stream for language processing?

A

Processes lexical recognition and combination.

72
Q

What is the ventral stream for language processing?

A

Regulates sensorimotor transformations for production.

73
Q

What are stains used for?

A

To image different parts of neural tissue.

74
Q

What is tract tracing used for?

A

To follow the connections in the brain.

75
Q

What is degeneration labeling?

A

Targets terminal boutons

76
Q

How is the transcriptome measured and how it is done?

A

Through RNA sequencing.
RNA → cDNA → amplification → compared gene number to expected

77
Q

What is in-situ hybridization?

A

Targeting RNA using a fluorescent probe to see what products are being produced.

78
Q

What are the rules for determining if a gene is carrying out a function?

A

It must be present at the right time and place.
It must be sufficient to accomplish the result on its own.
It must be necessary meaning that the results cannot happen without it.

79
Q

What is forward genetics?

A

Induced mutations followed by a screen for the desired phenotype.

80
Q

What is the Cre-LoxP system?

A

A gene is flanked by two LoxP sites. Cre comes in and then removes that gene.

81
Q

How can you get temporal specificity with the Cre-LoxP system?

A

Cre is bound to a ligand-binding domain of the estrogen receptor.
The synthetic ligand, tamoxifen, leads to Cre-ER being brought into the nucleus.

82
Q

What does CRISPR/Cas9 do?

A

It is guided by an RNA target and then cuts that DNA with a double-strand break.

83
Q

What is gastrulation?

A

Gastrulation = development of the primary germ layers from the blastula.

84
Q

What is blastocoel?

A

Blastocoel = hollow inside of the blastula.

85
Q

What is the neural crest?

A

The junction between the neural tube and the rest of the ectoderm.
Gives rise to many neurons and glia in the peripheral nervous system.

86
Q

What are proneural genes?

A

Proneural genes = genes coding for transcription factors that are required for the formation of neural cells from epidermal cells.

87
Q

What is the animal pole?

A

The area of the blastula where the epidermis and neural tissues will develop.

88
Q

What is the vegetal pole?

A

The area of the blastula that will become the future gut.

89
Q

What does the ectoderm develop into?

A

Nervous system, skin, and some internal organs

90
Q

What does the mesoderm develop into?

A

Muscles, bones, blood, circulatory and immune systems.

91
Q

What does the endoderm develop into?

A

Gut and associated organs such as the liver and pancreas.

92
Q

What is the notochord?

A

An elastic rod-like structure that can provide directional reference to surrounding tissues during embryonic development.
It also induces the formation of the neural ectoderm/neural plate.
In vertebrates, the notochord is eventually replaced by the spinal cord.

93
Q

What germ layer does the notochord come from?

A

Mesoderm.

94
Q

How does mesoderm develop during gastrulation?

A

It is invaginated into the blastula.

95
Q

After gastrulation, what is the animal cap fated to become?

A

Neural tissue.

96
Q

Can the animal cap develop into neural tissue without the mesoderm?

A

No. Because the mesoderm has the notochord.
Without the mesoderm, the animal cap becomes epidermal tissue.

97
Q

What are the names of some proneural genes for primary induction?

A

Noggin, Chordin, and Follistatin.

98
Q

What is the role of bone morphogenic proteins (BMPs) in neural induction?

A

They inhibit neural induction.

99
Q

What is the role of Noggin and Chordin in neural induction?

A

They prevent BMPs from binding to their receptors so that neural tissue development is disinhibited.

100
Q

What neural tissue are Noggin and Chordin necessary for developing?

A

Anterior tissue.

101
Q

What is the 2-step model in anterior and posterior patterning?

A

The first step is that the ectoderm must be activated to develop neural tissue.
The second step is that along the anterior-posterior axis, the posterior tissue is transformed to develop posterior tissue.

102
Q

What is planar signaling? What are some planar signals?

A

The signal gradient for anterior to posterior tissue.
Retinoic acid and FGF are planar signals for posterior tissue development.

103
Q

What is the role of retinoic acid in neurodevelopment?

A

RA leads to posterior Hox gene expression.

104
Q

What is the role of FGF in neurodevelopment?

A

Anterior-posterior patterning.
Leads to posterior tissue development.

105
Q

What is the role of Wnt in neurodevelopment?

A

Anterior-posterior patterning
Wnt must be inhibited to produce anterior brain tissue.
Polarity

106
Q

What is the role of BMP in neurodevelopment?

A

Inhibits neural tissue development.
Dorsal-ventral patterning.

107
Q

What is the role of Shh in neurodevelopment?

A

Dorsal-ventral patterning.

108
Q

What family do BMPs belong to?

A

TGF-𝛽 family.

109
Q

What is the role of bicoid in neurodevelopment?

A

Specifies head development.

110
Q

What types of genes regulate anterior-posterior patterning in Drosophila?

A

Segment polarity genes: gooseberry and patch
-Role: Define anterior-posterior polarity in segments

Pair-ruled genes: even-skipped, odd-skipped, paired, runt
-Role: Define segment compartments

Gap genes: Kruppel, knirps
-Role: Define zones

111
Q

Why must initial polarity be set up maternally?

A

Because there is no embryonic transcription prior to cellularization.

112
Q

How is polarity established in the Drosophila egg?

A

There is diffusion and local anchoring on different sides of the cells for different transcription factors.
This leads to gradients of different transcription factors that will induce the development of different structures.

113
Q

Why is discussing segmentation important?

A

Because many genes involved in segmentation in Drosophila play roles in anterior-posterior development in vertebrates.

114
Q

What are Hox genes?

A

Genes that induce the development of different body parts.

115
Q

What needs to be co-inhibited to produce anterior brain tissue?

A

BMP and Wnt.

116
Q

What are the antagonists for BMP and Wnt?

A

Noggin and ddk-1.

117
Q

What is the function of Otx2?

A

It’s a homeodomain transcription factor that is expressed in the midbrain and forebrain.

118
Q

What is the function of Gbx2?

A

It’s a homeodomain transcription factor that is expressed in the hindbrain.

119
Q

What area of the brain does FGF8 promote?

A

Anterior brain tissue.

120
Q

How are sharp borders created between different areas of the developing brain?

A

Cross-repression.

121
Q

What are Pax genes?

A

Pax genes are other homeotic genes that also specify developmental segmentation.
Ex: Pax6 is the master controller for eye development. Anywhere it is expressed will develop eyes.

122
Q

How is dorsal-ventral patterning set up in the developing brain?

A

Sonic hedgehog (Shh) = a notochord protein that travels to ventral areas of the neural tube inducing floorplate development and setting the ventral side.
A gradient between BMP + Wnt and Shh develops the dorsal-ventral patterning.

123
Q

Why are C. elegans used as a neurogenesis model?

A

Simple structure with about 1,000 cells.
Simple nervous system with 302 neurons and 56 glia.
Rapid regeneration time
They are transparent

124
Q

On what side does the nervous system develop in C. elegans and Drosophila?

A

On the ventrolateral side.

125
Q

What does the short gastrulation (sog) regulate?

A

Promotes neurogenesis in Drosophila by promoting delamination.

126
Q

What is delamination?

A

Dividing or becoming layers.

127
Q

What is the achaete-scute (AS-C) complex?

A

A complex of 4 proneural genes that is part of the bHLH transcription factor family.

128
Q

How is it decided which cell becomes a neuroblast in a proneural cluster?

A

Randomly, one cell in the cluster will express more AS-C, Delta, and Notch which leads to that cell inhibiting the others from becoming neuroblasts.
The lateral inhibition leads to reduced AS-C gene expression.

129
Q

What is a method used to map the fate of different cells?

A

Viruses

130
Q

How are labeled nucleotides used in neurogenesis studies?

A

Labeled nucleotides are incorporated into cells that are actively dividing. Their progeny will then be labeled.

131
Q

What is interkinetic nuclear migration?

A

The nucleus moves toward the ventricular surface of the neural tube when dividing (G2/M phases).

132
Q

What is the ventricular surface?

A

The surface that is continuous with the ventricles of the brain.

133
Q

What do radial glia do?

A

They divide asymmetrically along the ventricular zone, producing an intermediate precursor cell (IPC).
Their projection provides a surface new cells use to climb to the destination.

134
Q

What do intermediate precursor cells (IPCs) do?

A

They divide symmetrically in the subventricular zone.

135
Q

What do radial glia turn into at the end of neurogenesis?

A

Astrocytes.

136
Q

How is the cerebral cortex developed?

A

Inside out (VI → I).

137
Q

What is Layer I composed of?

A

Few neuronal cells.
Mostly intracortical axons and synapses.

138
Q

What are layers 2 + 3 composed of?

A

Large excitatory pyramidal neurons that project to other cortical areas, often through the corpus callosum.

139
Q

What is layer 4 composed of?

A

Neurons that receive thalamocortical projections.

140
Q

What are layers 5 + 6 composed of?

A

Neurons that are projecting out of the cortex.
Contains corticothalamic cells.

141
Q

Where are excitatory cells developed from?

A

Dorsal ventricular zone.

142
Q

Where are inhibitory cells developed from?

A

Ventral ganglionic eminence.

143
Q

What is the temporal specification of cell fate?

A

Different cells are formed at different times.
So, young cells are more adaptable but older cells are fated to their specification.

144
Q

What is the reverse rostrocaudal gradient?

A

Caudal → rostral development.

145
Q

What is the lateromedial gradient?

A

Lateral → medial development.

146
Q

What is the ventrodorsal gradient?

A

Ventral → dorsal development.