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OST 510 > Unit 2 Exam > Flashcards

Unit 2 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

List the layers of the chest wall starting from the skin and ending in the pleural cavity

A

1) Skin
2) Superficial fascia
3) Deep fascia
4) Intercostal muscles (EI, II, innermost intercostals)
5) Endothoracic fascia
6) Parietal pleura
7) Pleural cavity
8) Visceral pleura.

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2
Q

List the three apertures (openings) of the diaphragm; specify the vertebral level at which each is located and the structures that pass through each.

A
  • Caval opening @T8 (IVC)
  • Esophageal Hiatus @ T10 (Anterior and Posterior vagal trunks, esophagus)
  • Abdominal Hiatus @T12 (Descending thoracic aorta, thoracic duct).
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3
Q

Describe the general attachment of the diaphragm.

A

Diaphragm is attached at the costal margin of the 12th rib, and the superior L1-L3 vertebras which the right and left crus muscles attached to.

The aortic hiatus is between the right and left crus.

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3
Q

Blood supply of the diaphragm

A

Internal thoracic artery (from subclavian) gives off muscluophrenic and pericardiophrenic arteries

Thoracic aorta give off superior phrenic artery.

Abdominal aorta gives off inferior phrenic artery.

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4
Q

Describe the azygos venous system

A

The azygos venous systems, which gives off multiple intercostal veins, drains to both the SVC and the IVC. Since the azygos system also communicates with the lumbar veins, these collateral pathways will serve as a route back to the IVC should an obstruction occur in the main trunk

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5
Q

Specify the arteries that supply the lung parenchyma.

A

Bronchial arteries supply the lung parenchyma which come from the thoracic aorta and the intercostal arteries from the internal thoracic artery.

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6
Q

Specify the locations of the costodiaphragmatic and its inferior limits.

A

Anteriorly, located adjacent to rib 6
Laterally, located adjacent to rib 8
Posteriorly, at level of T10

Midclavicular: Ribs 8
Midaxillary: Ribs 10
Midscapular: Ribs 12

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7
Q

Distinguish the regions of the heart supplied by the right versus the left coronary artery

A

In most individuals, Right coronary artery branch off the right aortic sinus and gives rise to POSTERIOR ANTERVENTRICULAR ARTERY and the RIGHT MARGINAL ARTERY (acute).

  • RCA Supplies: Right atrium, most of right ventricle, diaphragmatic surface of left ventricle, posterior 1/3 of the interventricular septum, the SA node (60%) and the AV node.

Left coronary artery branch off the left aortic sinus and gives rise to ANTERIOR INTERVENTRICULAR ARTERY and the CIRCUMFLEX ARTERY. Circumflex artery gives off left marginal artery (Obtuse).

  • LCA Supplies: Left atrium, majoirty of left ventricle, part of the right ventricle, anterior 2/3 of the interventricular septum including AV bundle of His, and SA node (40%).
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7
Q

Specify the skeletal landmarks that define the transverse thoracic plane and relate this plane to the anatomical subdivision of the mediastinum.

A

Transverse thoracic plane (sternal angle) around T4/T5 IV disc which divides the mediastinum into the superior and inferior compartments.

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8
Q

Place the layers of the pericardium in order from superficial to deep.

A

MOST OUTER
Pericardium = Inelastic fibrous
pericardium

Parietal serous membrane (inner serous pericardium)

Pericardial cavity

Visceral pericardium (epicardium)
(MOST INNER)

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9
Q

Explain cardiac tamponade in relation to the fibrous pericardium.

A

The fibrous pericardium is not very elastic so when fluid accumulate within the pericardial cavity, this restrict the full potential of the heart’s output.

Veins of the face and neck can become swollen due to the backup of blood.

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10
Q

What are the planes of the superior mediastinum and its associated organs?

A

Venous plane: SVC, R and L brachiocephalic vein and its two branches.

Arterial plane: Aortic arch, brachiocephalic trunk, root of L common carotid and L subclavian

Visceral plane: Trachea and esophagus.

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11
Q

What are the divisions of the inferior mediastinum and its associated organs?

A

Anterior mediastinum: Contains connective tissue, fat, lymphatic vessel and the thymus.

Middle mediastinum: Houses the pericardium, and the heart along with its vessels.

Posterior mediastinum: DATES + R/L Vagus nerves along with its branches (anterior and posterior vagal trunks that contribute to the esophageal plexus.

Descending thoracic aorta, Azygos veins, Thoracic duct, Esophagus, Sympathetic chain.

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12
Q

3 Locations where the esophagus is naturally constricted.

A
  • The aortic arch
  • The left main bronchus
  • The diaphragm at the esophageal hiatus.
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13
Q

Specify the spinal cord segments that supply preganglionic sympathetic fibers to thoracic viscera.

A

T1 – T5/T6 levels of the spinal cord segments

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14
Q

List the structures of the root of the neck that are at risk of compression from a Pancoast tumor.

A

A Pancoast tumor is a tumor on the apex of the lungs. Inferior roots of the brachial plexus, subclavian vessels, cervical portion of the sympathetic chain are all structures at risk which can lead to Horner’s syndrome or upper limb symptoms.

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15
Q

What is the sympathetic and parasympathetic innervations of the heart?

A

Sympathetic innervations to the heart: Cardiopulmonary splanchnic nerve

Parasympathetic innervations to the heart: CN-X

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16
Q

Distinguish the type of sensory information (visceral afferent) that travels retrograde along sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways from the heart

A

Parasympathetic route: heart rate, blood chemistry, or blood pressure

Sympathetic route: perception of pain, stretch, pressure.

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17
Q

Distinguish visceral pain from somatic pain in terms of intensity and ability to localize.

A

Visceral pain: Dull, poorly localized
Somatic pain: Sharp, well localized

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18
Q

Specify the dermatomes and region of the body to which visceral pain arising from the heart and mediastinal viscera may be referred.

A

Thoracic viscera pain will be referred to T1-T5/T6 segments of the spinal cord, and therefore the T1-T5/T6 dermatomes that correspond to the chest and arms.

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19
Q

Portions of the foregut?

A

Distal esophagus, stomach, the duodenum (above the major duodenal papilla), liver, gallbladder, and pancreas

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20
Q

Portions of the midgut?

A

Rest of the duodenum, the jejunum, ileum, cecum, appendix, ascending colon, and the proximal 2/3 transverse colon

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21
Q

Portions of the hindgut?

A

Distal 1/3 transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum and proximal anal canal.

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22
Q

Distinguish the abdominopelvic tissues/structures whose lymph drains through pre-aortic and lumbar (para-aortic) lymph node groups, respectively.

A

Pre-aortic lymph nodes drain lymph from the GI tract and its accessory organs.

Lumbar lymph nodes (para-aortic) are located on the lateral aspect of the abdominal aorta, and they drain lymph from the retroperitoneal viscera, pelvic viscera, deep body wall structures inferior to the umbilicus, and the lower limbs

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23
Q

List the spinal nerves that innervate the abdominal body wall

A

Innervation of the abdominal body wall is through branches of the ventral primary rami of the T7-L4 spinal nerves (thoraco-abdominal nerves)

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24
Q

Specify the arterial and nervous supply of the tissues of the perineum

A

Internal pudendal artery gives off rectal, perineal, dorsal penis/clitoris artery.

Internal pudendal nerve and gives off same nerve name branches as artery.

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25
Q

List the layers of the anterolateral abdominal wall starting from the skin and ending with the peritoneum

A
  1. Skin
  2. Superficial fascia
    • Camper’s fascia (superficial fascia, fatty layer)
    • Scarpa’s fascia (superficial fascia, membranous deep layer) – Strong enough to hold in sutures.
  3. Deep fascia
  4. Abdominal muscular layer (Each is encased with its own investing DEEP fascia)
    • External oblique
    • Internal oblique
    • Transversus abdominis muscle
  5. Internal fascia (Endoabdominal fascia, transversus abdominis fascia)
    • touches the parietal peritoneum
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26
Q

Specify the muscular components of the walls of the true pelvis

A

The right and left piriformis muscles and the right and left obturator internus muscles

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27
Q

Describe the function of the pelvic diaphragm and specify its muscular components.

A

The muscular pelvic diaphragm of the floor of the pelvic cavity provides support for the pelvic viscera and resists increases in intra-abdominal pressure that occur during forced expiration, coughing, vomiting, sneezing, urinating, defecating, and lifting heavy objects. Weaknesses of the pelvic diaphragm can lead to prolapse of pelvic organs and urinary and/or fecal incontinence.

Muscle of the pelvic diaphragm consist of the coccygeus and the levator ani (puborectalis, pubococcygeus, and iliococcygeus)

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28
Q

Specify the structures that create the median, medial, and lateral umbilical folds in the parietal peritoneum of the anterior abdominal wall

A

Median umbilical folds: is the midline fold in the parietal peritoneum formed by the obliterated urachus of the embryo.

Medial umbilical folds: created by the obliterated distal ends of the umbilical arteries of the fetus.

Lateral umbilical folds: The paired inferior epigastric arteries (and accompanying veins) that are underneath the parietal peritoneum.

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29
Q

Define a mesentery and describe what types of structures may travel within them.

A

Mesenteries are double layers of peritoneum that connect intraperitoneal viscera to the posterior abdominal wall. Mesenteries contain blood vessels, nerves, lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes, and fat. The mesenteries that supply the small intestines are the mesentery proper

30
Q

Explain where excess fluid will likely pool/collect in the peritoneal cavity when in a supine position versus the erect position

A

When the patient is standing tall and erect, excess fluid is pool into the rectovesical pouch (male) or the rectouterine pouch (female).

When the patient is laying supine, excess fluid will pool into either the rectovesical (male) or the rectouterine (female) pouch or the hepatorenal recess.

31
Q

List the Intraperitoneal Organs
“DALT SPRSSS”

A

Duodenum (1st part), Appendix/cecum, Liver, Transverse colon

Spleen, Pancreas (tail portion), Rectum (upper 1/3), Small intestines (jejunum and ileum), Sigmoid colon, Stomach.

32
Q

List the Retroperitoneal Organs
“SAD KIE”

A

Suprarenal glands, Abdominal Aorta, Distal 2/3 rectum

Kidneys and ureters, IVC and its tributaries, esophagus

33
Q

List the Secondary Retroperitoneal Organs “DDAP”

A

Duodenum (2nd-4th parts), Descending colon, Ascending colon, Pancreas (Head, neck body)

34
Q

Where is the spiral valve and its function?

A

The spiral valve is within the neck of the gallbladder, and it regulates the rate that bile is being released.

35
Q
  1. Explain the anatomical basis of biliary occlusion leading to pancreatitis and/or jaundice.
A

The hepatopancreatic ampulla is the narrowest point in the bile duct and gallstones tend to get stuck here will and can lead to pancreatitis. Any obstruction along the common bile duct will cause obstructive jaundice.

36
Q

Portal Hepatis verus Portal triad?

A

Portal triad contains: bile duct, Portal vein, and Hepatic artery

Porta hepatis: Hepatic portal vein, R/L hepatic arteries, R/L hepatic ducts, lymphatics, and nerves enter and exit the liver.

Portal triad leads to the portal hepatis.

37
Q

Explain the nervous control of defecation and specify the muscles and somatic nerves involved; distinguish the roles of sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves in this process

A

Internal anal sphincter is autonomically influenced. Contraction in the sympathetic state and relaxed in the parasympathetic state.

The external anal sphincter is somatic and voluntary which is innervated by the inferior rectal nerve.

Defecation involves relaxation of both the external and internal sphincter with contraction of the abdominal muscle.

38
Q

Describe neurovasculature above the pectinate line.

A

(Visceral portion, upper 2/3 of canal)

The anal canal is supplied by the superior rectal artery

Venous drainage is through the superior rectal vein of the IMV (PORTAL SYSTEM)

The lymphatics drain to the internal iliac lymph nodes.

Autonomic innervation of internal anal sphincter.

39
Q

Describe the neurovasculature below the pectinate line.

A

(Somatic portion, lower 1/3 of canal)

Supplied by the middle rectal arteries (from internal iliac) and the inferior rectal arteries (from the internal pudendal artery).

Venous drainage to the CAVAL system via middle and inferior rectal veins.

The lymphatics drain to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.

The inferior rectal nerve (branch of the pudendal nerve) innervates the somatic portion of the external anal sphincter

40
Q

Explain the anatomical basis of the varied referred pain patterns of the pancreas.

A

Pancreatic pain is usually perceived as a severe discomfort in the epigastric region. Due to the deep placement of the pancreas in the abdomen, pancreatic pain will often radiate to the back. Boring pain.

41
Q

Describe the changing pattern of pain typical of an advancing case of cholecystitis.

A

Can start as dull in the epigastric region but shift to the right hypochondriac region. Pain may spread to the posterior thoracic wall or right lower neck and shoulder (C3-C5 dermatomes) should the inflamed wall of the gallbladder contact and irritate the diaphragmatic peritoneum

42
Q

Internal versus external hemorrhoids?

A

Internal hemorrhoids: Swelling of the internal rectal venous plexus above the pectinate line

External hemorrhoids: Thromboses (blood clots) within the external rectal venous plexus, which circles the external anal sphincter

43
Q

Describe the anatomical basis of renal vein entrapment syndrome and relate this to its common symptoms.

A

The superior mesenteric artery compresses against the renal vein which can lead to hematuria or proteinuria. Sometimes, the 3rd part of the duodenum may also be compressed leading to nausea and vomiting. In males, left testicular vein pain can also occur as the testicular vein drains to the left renal vein.

44
Q

Specify the anatomical basis of the pelvic pain line and explain its significance with respect to the pathways visceral pain information from abdominopelvic viscera

A

Visceral organs above the parietal peritoneum line (Pelvic pain line) of the demarcation travel retrograde via sympathetic routes (T5-L2/L3) while those below the line travel retrograde along parasympathetic routes/nerves to reach the spinal cord at S2-S4.

44
Q

Specify the region of the body wall to which visceral pain from the kidneys will be referred

A

Kidney viscera is in contact with the parietal peritoneum, so it travels retrograde along SYMPATHETIC ROUTES to the T11-T12 region of the spinal cord which result in referred pain to the body wall, including the back, flank and lower anterior abdominal wall.

45
Q

Specify the changing pattern of pain associated with the passage of renal calculi from the kidney to the urinary bladder

A

Start around flank and umbilical area but as the stone goes and moves through the ureter (ureteric calculi), the pain is associated to the groin region. Peristaltic spams of the ureter muscles can cause painful sensations due to the blockage of urine by the stone.

46
Q

Explain the relationship of the external abdominal oblique to the inguinal ligament and specify the ligament’s medial and lateral attachments.

A

The inguinal ligament is the thickened reinforced inferior free edge by the aponeuroses of the external oblique muscle. Laterally, the inguinal ligament attaches to the ASIS. Medially, the fibers of the inguinal ligament attach to the pubic tubercle and to the pubic bone.

47
Q

Describe the descent of the ovaries from the lumbar region to the pelvic cavity, noting the attachments of the gubernaculum, and the remnants of this structure that persist in the adult.

A

The descent of the ovaries from the posterior abdominal lumbar regions to the pelvic cavity are due to the pulling of the gubernacula as it attaches to the uterus and becomes the ovarian ligament and the round ligament as the remnant structures in adults.

48
Q

Define cryptorchidism and specify the clinical consequences of this condition if left uncorrected.

A

Cryptorchidism is the failure of one (sometimes both) testes to descend into the scrotal sac. If left untreated, sperm cannot be produced properly since the position of the testicle will result in a higher temperature than what is needed for proper sperm development.

49
Q

List the contents of the inguinal canal in anatomical males and females; explain the relationship of the ilioinguinal nerve to the inguinal canal.

A

Males have the spermatic cord, with its vessels and ducts within, while females have the round ligament of the uterus.

The ilioinguinal nerve and the genitofemoral nerve passes through the inguinal canal in both males and females.

50
Q

List the layers of the spermatic cord and relate these to the layers of the abdominal wall

A

Transversalis fascia = internal spermatic fascia.

Internal oblique muscle & aponeurosis = cremaster muscle and cremasteric fascia.

external oblique muscles & aponeurosis = external spermatic fascia.

51
Q

Explain the significance of the processus vaginalis to congenital inguinal hernias and hydrocele.

A

Hydrocele: filled serous secretions within the tunica vaginalis which is from the processus vaginalis in males.

Congenital hernias: The processus vaginalis remains intact and patent allowing abdominal contents to herniate into the open space into the inguinal canal. Also known as indirect inguinal hernia and is most common.

52
Q

Specify the boundaries of the inguinal triangle

A

The boundaries of the inguinal triangle (AKA Hesselbach’s triangle) is an area of natural weakness in the anterior abdominal wall. Bounded by the lateral border of the rectus abdominis muscle medially, the inguinal ligament inferiorly, and the inferior epigastric vessels laterally.

53
Q

Specify the nerves at risk of injury in inguinal hernia repair surgeries

A

Branches of the L1 ventral primary rami ( ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerves) are at risk in inguinal hernia repair surgeries).

54
Q

Explain how prostatic carcinoma can metastasize to the spine and central nervous system.

A

The prostatic venous plexus drains to the internal iliac veins and communicates with other nearby venous plexuses including the Batson’s plexus of the spinal canal.

55
Q

List the contents of the spermatic cord; explain the anatomical basis of testicular torsion and varicocele.

A

Spermatic cord consist of: ductus deferens, testicular artery, pampiniform plexus of veins, sympathetic and visceral afferent nerve fibers, tunica vaginalis, internal spermatic fascia, cremaster muscle and fascia, and external spermatic fascia.

Varicocele: dilatation of the pampiniform venous plexus within the scrotum. “Bag of worms” feel.

Testicular torsion: When the testes and spermatic cord rotate and twist within the scrotum, thus cutting off blood to the testes.

56
Q

List the 3 zones of the prostate gland and indicate which of these are typically involved in benign prostatic hyperplasia vs prostatic carcinoma

A

The peripheral zone (PZ) contains the majority of prostatic glandular tissue.

The central zone (CZ) is the area that surrounds the ejaculatory ducts.

The transition zone (TZ) surrounds the urethra as it enters the prostate.

Prostatic hyperplasia is an enlarged prostate (noncancerous), usually the transition zone, which can block the prostatic urethra and blocking urine.

Prostatic carcinomas are cancerous, usually from the peripheral zone and thus can be palpated on rectal exam.

57
Q

Explain the nervous control of erection, emission and ejaculation and specify the muscles and somatic nerves involved.

A

Erection is the dilation of the blood vessels within the erectile tissue under PARASYMAPTHETIC CONTROL. These nerves travel via the prostatic plexus and is at risk for injury during prostatectomies.

Ejaculation consist of emission and ejaculation.

Emission is under SYMPATHETIC CONTROL where the sperm and seamen are in the prostatic urethra.

Ejaculation has both automonic and somatic parts:

  • Autonomic: Contraction of the urethral smooth muscles (PARASYMPATHETIC) and closure of the internal urethral sphincter (SYMPATHETIC).
  • Somatic: Contraction of the bulbospongious muscle innervated by the pudendal nerve.
58
Q

Distinguish lymphatic drainage of the testes and scrotum

A

Testes: follows the path of their vascular supply and travels along the course of the testicular arteries to drain directly to lumbar (para-aortic) nodes located at the origin of these arteries.

Scrotum: a derivative of the abdominal wall – drains first to lymph nodes located in the inguinal region of the anterior thigh.

59
Q

List in order, from superficial to deep, the layers of the body of the scrotum

A

Skin.
Dartos Fascia And Muscle.
External Spermatic Fascia (External Oblique and aponeuroses)
Cremaster Muscle (Internal oblique and aponeuroses)
Cremasteric Fascia. (Internal oblique and aponeuroses)
Internal Spermatic Fascia. (Transversalis fascia)

(then follows the layers of the testes)

60
Q

Describe the cremasteric reflex and specify the sensory and motor nerves involved

A

Sensory nerve: Ilioinguinal nerve
Motor nerve: genital branch (motor) of the genitofemoral nerve

Stroking the superior and medial inner thigh will cause contraction of the Cremasteric muscle along with the Dartos muscle and ascend the testicle superiorly within the scrotum.

61
Q

Describe the primary lymphatic drainage pathways of breast tissue; explain how breast cancer can metastasize to the adjacent breast.

A

Lymphatic drainage of the breast tissue begins in the subareolar plexus – a collection of large lymph vessels situated under the areola. Majority of the breast lymph nodes, especially the lateral breast side, drain primarily to the axillary node while the medial breast tend to drain to the parasternal lymph nodes or to the opposite side of the breast.

Cancer cells can move within these lymphatic networks. Cancer cells can metastasize to adjacent breast via parasternal lymph nodes.

62
Q

Explain the anatomical basis of the following changes in the breast that occur secondary to pathology: Peau d’Orange, skin dimpling, decreased mobility.

A

Decreased mobility: Possible adhesions of the retromammary space to the investing fascia of the thoracic wall where fat would normally be to allow movement. Cancer invasion of the retromammary space will decrease mobility

Skin dimpling: Shortening of the suspensory ligament (or lactiferous ducts) on the breast due to cancerous cells and fibrosis.

Peau d’Orange: Edema from lymphatic blockage. Dimpled and orangish color appearance of breast.

63
Q

Relate the broad ligament of the uterus to the peritoneum; specify the structures embedded within the broad ligament.

A

Two opposed layers of parietal peritoneum fuse (the superior surface of the urinary bladder fuse with the anterior surface of the uterus in the vesicouterine pouch area) to form the broad ligament.

The broad ligament consist of mesovarium, mesosalpinx, and mesometrium.

64
Q

Specify the significance of the round ligament of the uterus in advanced cases of uterine cancer.

A

Lymph from the uterus near the region of the round ligament attachment drains along the route of the round ligament and to the inguinal area and into the superficial inguinal nodes. Therefore, enlarged superficial inguinal lymph nodes can signify advanced uterine cancer.

65
Q

Specify the structures or spaces that can be accessed and/or palpated through the vaginal fornices.

A

Posterior and lateral fornices can access Ovaries, ureters, and uterine arteries.

66
Q

Specify and explain the dynamic and passive support mechanisms that maintain the uterus in position in the pelvic cavity

A

Dynamic support: Requiring muscle activity of some kind, contraction of the pelvic diaphragm and perineal muscles of the pelvic floor.

Passive support: Support provided by the anteverted and anteflexed position of the uterus alongside the attachment of ligaments including the CARDINAL LIGAMENT (lateral wall) and the UTEROSACRAL ligaments.

67
Q

Specify the vascular structures that are at risk when transecting the transverse cervical (Cardinal Ligament) and the Suspensory ligament of the ovary.

A

Transverse cervical (Cardinal ligament): The uterine vessels, nerves, and lymphatics to and from the uterus and lateral pelvic wall will be at risk. This ligament can be sutured.

Suspensory ligament of the ovary: Ovarian artery and ovarian veins are at risk of being cut.

68
Q

Relate the uterine artery to the blood supply of the ovaries, uterine cervix, and vagina; specify the significance of anastomoses between the uterine and ovarian arteries.

A

The ovarian artery (from abdominal aorta) will branch into the ovarian branches and tubal branches to supply blood to the ovaries and fallopian tubes respectively.

The uterine artery (from the internal iliac artery) will branch into the vaginal artery supplying the vagina and the vaginal branch of the uterine to supply the uterine cervix.

The ascending uterine artery will anastomose with the ovarian artery (and its branches) to supply blood to the uterus and ovaries should one be compromised.

69
Q

Explain the surgical significance of the relationship of the uterine artery to the ureter.

A

The ureter is close to the uterine artery, so it is at risk of being tied off, clamped, or severed during hysterectomies.

70
Q

Utilizing the concept of the pelvic pain line, specify the dermatomes and regions of the body to which visceral pain from female urogenital viscera, or parts thereof, will be referred.

A

Those in contact with the parietal peritoneum (fundus and most of the body of the uterus, bladder) travel to the T10-L2/L3 regions of the spinal cord and referred pain to lower back, thigh, umbilical and lower abdominal regions.

Below the pelvic pain line, The remainder of the body of the uterus, the uterine cervix, and the superior aspect of the vagina, will be referred to the S2-S4 regions and its referred pain to the buttock, groin, perineal area, back legs.

71
Q

Describe where along its course the pudendal nerve is targeted when performing a pudendal nerve block and specify the anatomical region of anesthesia this procedure provides.

A

In a pudendal nerve block (Numbs SOMATIC PAIN), anesthetic is targeted to the pudendal nerve through needle injection from within the vagina. In this type of anesthesia there is a temporary loss of motor and sensory functions of perineal structures and tissues, including the terminal end of the vagina. In a pudendal nerve block the individual is aware of both cervical dilation and uterine contractions.

72
Q

Details of Epidural nerve blocks

A

Epidural blocks: Injected into the epidural space of the L3/L4 disc space, thus initially restricting its effect to the T10-L1 dermatomes, but with eventual spread to the S2-S4 levels. In an epidural block the entire birth canal, pelvic floor and most of the perineum are anesthetized. As in the spinal block the individual is largely unable to sense uterine contractions and there is a temporary loss of motor and sensory functions of the lower limbs

OST 510 (2 decks)

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