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Unit Questions > Unit 2: Debt Securities > Flashcards

Unit 2: Debt Securities Flashcards

1
Q

Have neither ownership interest in the issuing corporation nor voice in management; as creditors, ___________ receive preferential treatment over common and preferred stockholders if a corporation files for bankruptcy.

A

Bondholders

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2
Q

_______ are considered senior securities

A

Bonds

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3
Q

Corporate bonds with maturities of five years or more are known as ______ debt

A

Funded debt

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4
Q

Who is the nation’s largest borrower and the most secure credit risk?

A

The federal government

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5
Q

Debt securities with less than one year maturity

A

Treasury Bills

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6
Q

Debt securities with 2-10 years of maturity

A

Notes

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7
Q

Debt Securities with more than 10 years maturity

A

Bonds

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8
Q

The debt obligations of state and local governments and their agencies.

A

Municipal Securities

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9
Q

Par Value, also known as _____ value, is normally $______ per bond, meaning each bond will be redeemed for $_______ when it matures

A

face value
$1,000 per bond
$1,000

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10
Q

When the loan principal is repaid to the investor

A

Maturity Date

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11
Q

Three basic types on bond maturity structires

A

Term, serial and balloon

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12
Q

Structured so that the principal of the whole issue matures at once

A

Term bond

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13
Q

Schedules proportions of the principal to mature at intervals over a period of years until the entire balance has been repaid

A

Serial bond

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14
Q

Physical evidence that designates the bond’s ownership and characteristics (in essence an IOU)

A

Certificates

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15
Q

A common form of bond issued today; the issuer’s transfer agent records the bondholder’s name. The buyer’s name appears on the bond certificate’s face

A

Registered bond

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16
Q

Most corporate bonds are issued in _____ ______ form

A

Fully Registered Form

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17
Q

Owners do not receive certificates. The transfer agent maintains the security’s ownership records. Must U.S. Govt bonds are available only in this form.

A

Book-entry form

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18
Q

A rating of BBB/Baa or higher to be suitable for purchase by banks.

A

Investment grade

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19
Q

Investment grade bonds are also known as _______ bonds

A

Bank-grade bonds

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20
Q

The ease with which a bond or any other security can be sold. The term ______ and marketability are synonymous. Ether term refers to how quickly a security can be converted into cash.

A

Liquidity

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21
Q

The schedule of interest and principal payments due on a bond issue

A

Debt Service

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22
Q

When a bond’s principal is repaid

A

Redeemed

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23
Q

Allows the issuer to redeem a bond issue before its maturity date; either in whole or in part

A

Call feature

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24
Q

An issuer pays bondholders a premium, a price higher than par

A

Call premium

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25
Q

If a bond issue’s trust indenture does not include a call provision, the issuer normally can buy bonds in the open market known as _______

A

Tendering

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26
Q

An advantage to bondholders in periods of declining interest rates.

A

Call protection feature

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27
Q

An investor purchases 5M ABD J&J 15 8s of ‘21

What will the investor receive at maturity of the bond?

A

$5,200

Bond Principal = $5,000 (Annual interest is $80 per thousand with semiannual interest of $200 for 5 bonds)

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28
Q

which form a bond must be in for an investor to receive interest and principal payments by mail?

A

Bonds must be fully registered or in book-entry form

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29
Q

New bonds are issued only in _______ and _______ form.

A

Fully registered and book-entry form

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30
Q 
How much is 80 basis points?
I. $8
II. $80
III. .8%
IV. 8%
A

We know that 100 basis points = $10 = 1% of a bond’s face value.
Therefore, 80 basis points = .8% and is worth $8.00 (80 x .10)

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31
Q

As a general rule, highly rated issuers do not establish _______ _______. Lower-rated issuers do so to make their issues more marketable

A

Sinking funds

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32
Q

______ is the difference between the cal price and par

A

Call premium

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33
Q

The two primary factors affecting a bond’s market price are the:

A

Issuer’s financial stability and the overall trends in interest rates.

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34
Q

Generally, the higher a bond’s rating, the ______ its yield.

A

lower

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35
Q

The highest degree of safety

A

U.S. Government

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36
Q

Types of U.S. Government Securities:

A

U.S. Treasury Bills, notes, bonds and savings bonds like Series EE and HH bonds

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37
Q

The second highest degree of safety is in securities issued by __________.

A

Government agencies

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38
Q

Under what economic circumstances do issuers call bonds?

A

calls occur when interest rates are declining. Put yourself in the issuer’s shoes. Would you want to pay more interest for the use of money that is necessary?

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39
Q

Investors who purchase callable bonds face what types of investment risk?

A

Call risk is the risk that the bonds will be called and the investor will lose the stream of income from the bond. Remember that bonds do not pay interest after they have been called. The call feature also causes reinvestment risk. If interest rates are down when the call takes place, what likelihood does the investor have of investing the principal received at a comparable rate?

Both call risk and reinvestment risk also apply to callable preferred stock.

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40
Q

Which of the following would an issuer most likely call?
A. high-interest bond, callable at a premium
B. high-interest bond, callable at par
C. Low-interest bond, callable at a premium
D. Low-interest bond, callable at par

A

Answer: B. Issuers want to call bonds that are costly to them at as low a price as possible. A high-interest bond with no call premium is the best combination. The issuer would be least likely to call a low-interest bond with a high call premium.

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41
Q

The practice of raising money to call a bond. Specifically, the issuer sells a new bond issue to generate funds to retire an existing issue.

A

Refunding

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42
Q

Refunding, like a call, can occur in full or in part. Refunding is common for bonds approaching ____________.

A

maturity

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43
Q

A new issue is sold at a lower coupon before the original bond issue can be called.

A

Pre-refunded (also known as advance refunding)

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44
Q

The proceeds from the new issue are placed in an escrow account and invested in U.S. government securities. ____________ bonds are generally rated AAA or Aaa, the highest rating available.

A

Pre-refunded

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45
Q

Advance refunding is a form of ____________, or termination, of the issuer’s obligation; pre-refunded bonds are considered __________ and no longer count as part of the issuer’s debt.

A

Defeasance; defeased

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46
Q

A bond’s ____________ reflects the annualized return of the bond if held to maturity

A

Yield to Maturity

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47
Q

A bond with a call feature may be redeemed before maturity at the issuer’s option. __________ calculations reflect the early redemption date and consequent acceleration of the discount gain or premium loss from the purchase price.

A

Yield to Call

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48
Q

Another term for yield to maturity is ______

A

basis

Example: A 4% bond trading on a 5% basis is trading at a price to yield 5% to maturity.

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49
Q

The YTC for a premium bond called at par is always ______ than the nominal yield, current yield and YTM

A

lower

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50
Q

For a bond bought at a discount, YTC is always _______ than the nominal yield, current yield and YTM.

A

higher

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51
Q

If the bond has a YTC lower than its CY, it is trading at _______

A

premium

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52
Q

If the bond has a YTM and CY that are equal, the bond is trading at ________

A

par

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53
Q

If the bond has a YTM less that its YTC, the bond is trading at __________

A

discount

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54
Q

If a bond has a YTM greater than its coupon, the bond is trading at

A

discount

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55
Q

Bond prices and yields have a _______ relationship

A

inverse: as interest rates rise, prices decline

56
Q

Under normal circumstances, the longer a bond’s maturity, the ______ its yeild

A

greater

57
Q

What two risks are associated with an increased yield?

A

the potential for credit quality and inflation risk

58
Q

The difference in yields between short-term and long-term bonds of the same quality is known as the _____ ______.

A

yield curve

59
Q

In a _______ yield curve, the difference between short-term and long-term rates is about three percentage points (300 basis poits), but may be much larger or smaller at any given time.

A

normal (positive)

60
Q

When long-term interest rates are lower than short-term rates, the yield curve is considered _______

A

inverted.

61
Q

When short-term and long-term rates are the same, the yield curve is ______

A

flat

62
Q

a _______, or ascending, yield curve occurs during periods of economic expansion - it generally predicts that interest rates will rise in the future.

A

normal

63
Q

A _______ yield curve occurs when the economy is peaking, and no change in interest rates is expected.

A

flat

64
Q

an _______, or descending, yield curve occurs when the Federal Reserve Board has tightened credit in an overheating economy; it predicts that rates will fall in the future.

A

inverted

65
Q

If the yield curve spread between corporate bonds and government bonds is widening, a ______ is expected. Meaning, investors have chosen the safety of government bonds over higher corporate yields, which occurs when the economy slows down.

A

recession

66
Q

If the yield curve between corporate bonds and government bonds is narrowing, an economic _____ is expected and investors are willing to take risks. They will sell government bonds to buy higher-yielding corporates.

A

expansion

67
Q

As interest rates change, ______-term bond prices move more in price than ______-term bonds

A

long-term bond prices move more in price than short-term bonds.

68
Q

if you are given two callable bonds and asked which will appreciate the most if rates fall, choose the bond with the _______________ call date.

A

most distant

69
Q

Because of the fixed interest payments that an investor receives, debt securities are also known as _____-income securities

A

Fixed-income securities

70
Q

________, ________ and the U.S. Government are issuers of debt securities

A

Corporations, Municipalities and U.S. Government

71
Q

Bonds are often called _____ securities

A

Senior securities

72
Q

In the secondary market, bonds can sell for any price - ____ par, _____par or _____ par

A

at par;
below par;
above par

73
Q

Corporate bond quotes are commonly stated as percentages of par in increments of _____

A

1/8

74
Q

Bond ratings are based on an issuer’s ______ stability

A

financial stability

75
Q

A bond’s _____ expresses the cash interest payments in relation to the bond’s value

A

bond’s yield

76
Q

A bond is _______ when the issuer has identified specific assets as collateral for interest and principal payments

A

secured

77
Q

A type of secured bond, _______ bonds have the highest priority amount all claims on assets pledged as collateral

A

Mortgage bonds

78
Q

______-end indenture permits the corporation to issue more bonds of the same class later.

A

open-end indentures

79
Q

_______-end indentures does not permit the corporation to issue more bonds of the same class in the future.

A

closed-end indentures

80
Q

_______ trust bonds are issued by corporations that own securities of other companies as investments

A

Collateral trust bonds

81
Q

______ trust certificates (ETC) are railroads, airlines, trucking companies, and oil companies used to finance the purchase of capital equipment

A

Equipment trust certificates (ETC)

82
Q

_______ bonds have no specific collateral backing and are classified as either debentures or subordinated debentures

A

Unsecured bonds

83
Q

Types of unsecured bond, _______ are backed by the general credit of the issuing corporation

A

Debentures

84
Q

Type of unsecured bond, _______ debentures riskier status, often have conversion features, are paid last of all debt obligations including general creditors

A

Subordinated Debentures

85
Q

______ bonds are backed by a company other than the issuer, such as a parent company

A

Guaranteed bonds

86
Q

_______ bonds (also known as adjustment bonds) are used when a company is reorganizing and coming out of bankruptcy. Not suitable for investors seeking income

A

Income bonds

87
Q

______-_______ bonds are an issuer’s debt obligation that does not make regular interest payments

A

Zero-coupon bonds

88
Q

_______-______ bonds are sold at a deep discount to their face value and mature at par.

A

Zero-coupon bonds

89
Q

Investors in ______-______ bonds owe income tax each year on the amount by which the bonds have accreted.

A

Zero-coupon bonds

90
Q

A legal contract between the bond issuer and a trustee representing the bondholders. (a contract between the issuer and the trustee for the benefit of the bondholders)

A

Trust Indenture

91
Q

The ________ provides a central marketplace for trading corporate bonds.

A

New York Stock Exchange (NYSE)

92
Q

______ bonds are corporate bonds that may be exchanged for a fixed number of shares of the issuing company’s common stock

A

Corporate bonds

93
Q

Most government securities are issued in _____-______ form, meaning that no physical certificate exist.

A

book-entry

94
Q

Treasury securities are classified as either ______ , _____ and ______ to distinguish an issue’s term to maturity.

A

bills, notes and bonds

95
Q

______ are a type of asset-backed security.

A

CMOs

96
Q

5 types of CMOs

A
  • Principal Only – principal only CMOs
  • Interest Only – interest only CMOs
  • Planned Amortization Class – have targeted maturity dates; they are retired first and offer protection from prepayment risk and extension risk
  • Targeted Amortization Class – transfers prepayment risk only to a companion tranche and does not offer protection from extension risk
  • Zero-Tranche CMO (Z-Tranche) – receive no payment until all preceding CMO tranches are retired (the most volatile CMO tranche)
97
Q

Because mortgages back CMOs, they are considered relatively safe. However, their susceptibility to interest rate movements and the resulting changes in the mortgage repayment rate means CMOs carry several risks:
1)
2)
3)

A

1) Rate of principal repayment varies
2) If interest rates fall and homeowner refinancing increases, principal is received sooner than anticipated
3) If interest rates rise and refinancing declines, the CMO investor may have to hold his investment longer than anticipated (extended maturity risk)

98
Q

_________ – typically complex asset-backed securities. ______ do not specialize in any single type of debt

A

Collateralized Debt Obligations (CDOs)

99
Q

Type of nonmarketable U.S. Government Security (savings bond) in which they return a fixed rate of return

A

Series EE bonds

100
Q

Type of nonmarketable U.S. Government Security (savings bond) designed to protect against inflation with interest linked to an inflation index

A

Series I bonds

101
Q

_________ is the FINRA-approved trade reporting system for corporate and government agency bonds trading in the OTC secondary market. (Trade-reporting system only, not an execution system); both sides of the transaction must report.

A

The Trade Reporting and Compliance Engine (TRACE)

102
Q

________ bonds - issued with put options. In return for accepting a slightly lower interest rate, the investor receives the right to put, or sell, the bond to the issuer at full face value.

A

Pub Bonds (or putable bonds)

103
Q

_____ yield is a fixed percentage of the bond’s par value.

A

Nominal yield (or coupon yield)

104
Q

______ yield measures a bond’s coupon payment relative to its market price

A

Current yield

Coupon payment / market price = current yield

105
Q

_______ reflects the annualized return of the bond if held to maturity

A

Yield to Maturity

106
Q

_____ (zero-coupon securities) - short-term obligations issued at a discount from par. Rather than making regular cash interest payments, bills trade at a discount from par value; the return on a T-bill is the difference between the price the investor pays and the par value at which the bill matures.

A

T-bills

107
Q

______ (T-notes)pay interest every six months. They are sold at auction every four weeks.

A

Treasury Notes

108
Q

______ (T-bonds) long-term securities that pay interest every six months.

A

Treasury Bonds

109
Q

a term used to describe a situation in which a bond trades without accrued interest. Zero-coupon bonds, as well as income bonds, trade flat.
Tranches – a pool or mortgages is structured into maturity classes

A

Trading flat

110
Q

Put features are most commonly found in ________ bonds. Once putable, the investor is protected against market risk (interest rate risk) as the bonds, at that point, will not trade much below the put price, which is par.

A

municipal

111
Q

A coupon of 6% indicates the bondholder is paid 6% of the face amount of $1,000 or $_____ in interest until the bond matures.

A

$60

112
Q

What is the current yield of a 6% bond trading for $800?

A

7.5%

This bond is trading at a discount. When prices fall, yields rise. The current yield is greater than the nominal yield when bonds are trading at a discount.

113
Q

What is the current yield of a 6% bond trading for $1,200.

A

5%

This bond is trading at a premium. The price is up so the yield is down. The current yield is less than the nominal yield when bonds are trading at a premium.

114
Q

An investor who buys a 10% coupon bond at 105 ($1,050 per bond) with 10 years remaining to maturity can expect ______ in interest per year. If he holds the bond to maturity, the bondholder loses $50, the amount of the premium. This loss is

A

100

115
Q

If the exam asks you to choose the security that has no reinvestment risk, the answer to look for is a _______ because, with no interest payments to reinvest, the investor has to reinvestment risk. Furthermore, because there is no reinvestment risk, buying a ______ is the only way to lock in a rate of return.

A

zero

116
Q

_______ are backed in full by the U.S. government. Receipts are not. Treasury receipts are sold under names like Certificates of Accrual on Treasury Securities (CATS) and Treasury Income Growth Receipts (TIGRS). Both are quotes in yield.

A

STRIPs

117
Q

Settlement of agency securities is ______ way (two business days).

A

regular

118
Q

The Series 7 exam expects you to know that mortgage- backed securities (MBS) are susceptible to ________ risk. When interest rates fall, mortgage holders typically refinance at lower rates. This means that they pay off their mortgages early, which causes a prepayment of principal to holders of mortgage-backed securities. The early principal payments cannot be reinvested at a comparable return.

A

reinvestment

119
Q

For agency securities, regular way settlement is _____ business days and accrued interest is based on a 360 day year.

A

two

120
Q 
Liquidation Order:
Unpaid wages
IRS taxes
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ debt
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ liabilities (debentures) and general creditors
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ debt
Preferred stockholders
Common stockholders
A 
Liquidation Order:
Unpaid wages
IRS taxes
Secured debt
Unsecured liabilities (debentures) and general creditors
Subordinated debt
Preferred stockholders
Common stockholders
121
Q

__________ bonds, which are purchased at a discount and mature at face value are a suitable investment for future anticipated expenses such as college tuition.

A

Zero-coupon

122
Q 
A customer wishes to buy a security providing periodic interest payments, safety of principal, and protection from purchasing power risk. The customer should purchase:
A. TIPS
B. TIGRS
C. CMOs
D. STRIPS
A

Answer: A. TIPS – TIPS offer inflation protection and safety of principal because thye are backed by the U.S. Government.

123
Q

Z-tranche _______ would not be suitable for an investor needing funds in a specified amount of time, due to the unpredictable nature of when payments will be received

A

CMOs

124
Q

_______ yield more than Treasury securities and normally pay investors interest and principal monthly.

A

CMOs

125
Q

Some varieties of CMOs, such as PAC companion tranches, may be particularly _______ for small or unsophisticated investors because of their complexity and risks. The customer is required to sign a suitability statement before buying any CMO. Potential investors must understand that the rate of return on CMOs may vary because of early repayment. Also note that the performance of CMOs may not be compared to any other investment vehicle.

A

unsuitable

126
Q 
All of the following will affect the marketability of a block of corporate bonds EXCEPT:
A) maturity.
B) rating.
C) block size.
D) bond denominations.
A

D) bond denominations.

Block size is a key factor. Maturity is also important-shorter maturities tend to be more marketable than longer maturities. Also, the higher the rating, the more marketable the block. Bond denominations are not relevant.

Reference: 2.1.4.5 in the License Exam Manual

127
Q

The effective federal funds rate is the:
A) weekly average of all commercial banks.
B) daily average of all commercial banks.
C) weekly average of Federal Reserve System member banks.
D) daily average of Federal Reserve System member banks.

A

D) daily average of Federal Reserve System member banks.

The effective federal funds rate is the daily average of money center banks, all of which are Federal Reserve System members. This rate is the rate charged bank to bank for overnight loans.

Reference: 2.10.3.1 in the License Exam Manual

128
Q 
If all of the following bonds mature on September 1, 2020, which would have the highest price?
A) 5-¾% coupon at 5.85
B) 6-¾% coupon at 6.80
C) 5-½% coupon at 5.50
D) 6-1/4% coupon at 6.10
A

D) 6-1/4% coupon at 6.10

A bond that is trading at a premium has a yield to maturity that is lower than its coupon rate. Of the choices given, only the 6-1/4% coupon with a 6.10 yield to maturity is trading at a premium. The other bonds shown are either trading at a discount (their yield to maturity is higher than the coupon rate) or at par (their yield to maturity is equal to the coupon rate).

Reference: 2.2.7.3 in the License Exam Manual

129
Q

Because of the possibility of participating in the growth of the common stock through an increase in the market price of the common, the convertible can be issued with a _______ interest rate.

A

lower

130
Q

A repurchase agreement is usually initiated by which of the following?

I) U.S. Treasury.
II) Federal Home Loan Bank.
III) Commercial bank.
IV) Federal Reserve Board.

A

III) Commercial bank.
IV) Federal Reserve Board.

Repurchase agreements are typically initiated by commercial banks or the Federal Reserve Board. They enable banks to meet reserve requirements through the sale of securities (often overnight) with an agreement to buy them back at an agreed-on price.

Reference: 2.10.2.1 in the License Exam Manual

131
Q 
All of the following would be found in the money market EXCEPT:
A) repurchase agreements.
B) commercial paper.
C) Treasury bills.
D) preferred stock.
A

D) preferred stock.

The money market consists of short-term, high-quality debt instruments. This would not include preferred stock, which is an equity instrument.

Reference: 2.10.1.1 in the License Exam Manual

132
Q 
Which of the following securities is an original issue discount obligation?
A) 13-week U.S. Treasury bills.
B) GNMA certificates.
C) Corporate bonds.
D) FNMA bonds.
A

A) 13-week U.S. Treasury bills.

U.S. Treasury bills are always originally issued at a discount and mature at par, with the investor making the appreciation between the original discounted amount and the par value at maturity. This appreciation is treated as interest, however, as opposed to a capital gain.

Reference: 2.6.1.1 in the License Exam Manual

133
Q

Which of the following statements describes the discount rate?
A) Charge on loans to brokers on stock exchange collateral.

B) Charge on loans to member banks by the New York Federal Reserve Bank.

C) Base rate on corporate loans at large U.S. money center commercial banks.

D) Rate charged on reserves traded among commercial banks for overnight use in amounts of $1 million or more.

A

B) Charge on loans to member banks by the New York Federal Reserve Bank.

The discount rate is the charge on loans to member banks by the New York Federal Reserve Bank. The prime rate is the base rate on corporate loans at large U.S. money center commercial banks. The federal funds rate is the rate charged on reserves traded among commercial banks for overnight use in amounts of $1 million or more. The call rate, or broker call loan rate, is the charge on loans to brokers for margin loans.

Reference: 2.10.3.3 in the License Exam Manual

134
Q

The _____ rate is the base rate on corporate loans at large U.S. money center commercial banks.

A

prime rate

135
Q

The ______ ______ rate is the rate charged on reserves traded among commercial banks for overnight use in amounts of $1 million or more.

A

federal funds rate

136
Q

The ______ rate, or broker call loan rate, is the charge on loans to brokers for margin loans.

A

call rate

137
Q

The ________ rate is the charge on loans to member banks by the New York Federal Reserve Bank.

A

discount

Unit Questions (18 decks)

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