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H Bio > Unit 2 > Flashcards

Unit 2 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What are metabolic pathways? Give def.

A

Metabolic pathways are integrated and controlled enzyme-catalysed reactions within a cell.

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2
Q

What is metabolism? Give def.

A

Metabolism is all the chemical reactions taking place in a living cell.

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3
Q

What can metabolic pathways produce in animal cells?

A

vitamins and haemoglobin.

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4
Q

What can metabolic pathways produce in plant cells?

A

Glucose and chlorophyll.

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5
Q

In what cells does metabolism occur?

A

Metabolism occurs in all 3 domains of life.

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6
Q

What controls metabolic pathways?

A

Enzymes.

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7
Q

What are the two types of metabolic pathways?

A

Anabolic and catabolic.

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8
Q

What’s an anabolic reaction?

A

Anabolic reaction is the build up of small molecules to larger ones. This requires energy. (Synthesis)

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9
Q

What’s an catabolic reaction?

A

Catabolic reaction is the breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones. This releases energy. (Degradation)

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10
Q

Example of anabolic and catabolic reaction?

A

Anabolic: photosynthesis, the process of making glucose from raw materials.

Catabolic: food digestion, breaking food down into energy.

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11
Q

Are metabolic pathways reversible or irreversible?

A

They can be both; but most are reversible.

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12
Q

What happens if a substrate/specific enzyme isn’t available in the metabolic pathway? Can the process still occur? Does it stop?

A

An alternative route is carried out; which may result in a longer process, but still produces required protein to be made.

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13
Q

What are the 3 main types of proteins in a cell membrane?

A
  • Carrier proteins (pump)
  • Channel-forming proteins (pores)
  • Enzymes
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14
Q

What’s an enzyme inhibitor?

A

A molecule which prevents the substrate and active site binding.

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15
Q

Types of inhibitation?

A
  • competitive
  • non-competitive
  • negative feedback
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16
Q

What do carrier proteins do?

A

Recognise specific ions and transfer across cell membrane.

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17
Q

What do channel-forming proteins do?

A

They provide channels for specific substances to diffuse.

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18
Q

What is affinity?

A

The attraction between the substrate and active site.

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19
Q

What is cellular respiration?

A

The process in which glucose is broken down to release energy.

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20
Q

What’s phosphorylation?

A

An enzyme-controlled process, which a phosphate group is added to molecule.

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21
Q

What can interrupt a metabolic pathway(s)?

A

Venoms and toxins.

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22
Q

What does the binding of the active site and substrate do to the activation energy levels?

A

It lowers down the activation energy needed for reaction.

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23
Q

What’s an induced fit? Give def.

A

Induced fit is when the active site shape changes slightly to fit the substrate better.

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24
Q

What happens to the rate of reaction as the substrate concentration increases?

A

The rate of reaction will increase, until all active sites are occupied, then the rate of reaction no longer increases.

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25
Q

What does it mean when a enzyme is saturated?

A

It means when all active sites are occupied, adding substrates will make no difference to the reaction rate.

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26
Q

What is competitive inhibition? How could you reverse this?

A

When the inhibitor molecule binds to the active site of the molecule, preventing the substrate from doing so. They do this because they have a similar structure.

Increased substrate concentration can reverse this.

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27
Q

What is non-competitive inhibition? How could you reverse this?

A

When the inhibitor molecule binds to a different part of the enzyme than the active site. This changes the shape of the active site, and prevents the substrate from binding.

This cannot be reversed by increasing concentration level.

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28
Q

What is feedback inhibition? How could you prevent this?

A

When the end product binds to the enzyme at the start of the pathway. This prevents the synthesis occurring.

The end product can further develop when the concentration decreases.

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29
Q

What is glycolysis? Give def.

A

The breakdown of glucose molecules into two pyruvate molecules.

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30
Q

Does glycolysis require oxygen?

A

Nope.

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31
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

In the cytoplasm.

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32
Q

What are the two steps of glycolysis?

A
  • Energy investment (use of 2 ATP molecules)

- Energy pay-off (gain of 4 ATP molecules)

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33
Q

What’s the citric acid cycle? What happens? When does this take place?

A

The citric acid cycle is taken place after glycolysis, it is the removal of carbon dioxide.

It occurs only if oxygen is present, and it’s in the matrix of the mitochondria.

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34
Q

Tips: metabolic pathway on respiration

A

Citric acid cycle- also known as Krebs cycle.

3 main stages of metabolic pathways on resp inc;

  • glycolysis
  • citric acid/Krebs cycle
  • electron transport chain
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35
Q

What happens in glycolysis? (Brief explanation of the whole stage)

A

Dehydrogenase enzymes remove hydrogen electrons and ions from the intermediates of the cycle, which is then combined with coenzyme (NAD) to make NADH.

36
Q

What’s the electron transport chain? Where does this occur?

A

The last stage of the respiration pathway. Produces the most ATP molecules.

Occurs in the inner membrane of the mitochondria.

37
Q

What happens in the citric acid/Krebs cycle? (Brief explanation of whole stage)

A

Removal of carbon dioxide. This causes an acetyl group to form, combines with coenzyme A to produce acetyl coenzyme A (creative name).

Then, acetyl coenzyme A fuses with yet another molecule called oxaloacetate (ox-aloe-acetate), which makes citrate; the name of this cycle.

38
Q

What happens in the electron transport chain? (brief summary of whole stage)

A

NADH releases hydrogen ions and electrons into the transport chain; they do this from the energy supplied from the electrons.

Ions synthesis with protein called ATP synthase to form more ATP.

Oxygen is the final electron acceptor; it combines with hydrogen ions and electrons to make water.

39
Q

What is metabolic rate?

A

The metabolic rate of an organism is the quantity of energy (ATP) consumed over time.

40
Q

Metabolic rate is measured by what?

A
  • oxygen consumption
  • carbon dioxide production
  • heat production

+ ‘per unit time’ to each of them

41
Q

What is used to measure the metabolic rate?

A
  • respirometers
  • calorimeters
  • oxygen probes
  • carbon dioxide probes
42
Q

What are the main blood vessels?

A
  • arteries (blood away from heart)
  • capillaries (exchanges nutrients between blood)
  • veins (blood to the heart)
43
Q

What are birds/mammals’ hearts like? Name the chambers, structures, and their circulatory system(s).

A

Mammals have 4 chambers, 2 atria and 2 ventricles.

They have a complete double circulatory system.

44
Q

What are amphibian/reptiles hearts like? Name the chambers, structures, and their circulatory system(s).

A

Amphibians have 3 chambers, 2 atria and 1 ventricle.

They have an incomplete double circulatory system.

45
Q

What are fish’ hearts like? Name the chambers, structures and circulatory system(s).

A

Fish have 2 chambers, 1 atria (an atrium) and 1 ventricle (a ventricle).

They have a single circulatory system.

46
Q

What are the two groups organisms are split into?

A
  • conformers.

- regulators.

47
Q

What are conformers?

A

Their internal environment is reliant on their external environment.

48
Q

What are the metabolic costs of conformers?

A

Low - they don’t require much energy to maintain their internal environment as they rely on their external environment.

49
Q

What are the range of niches for conformers?

A

Small range.

50
Q

What are regulators?

A

They control their internal environment despite changes in their external environment.

51
Q

What are the metabolic costs for regulators?

A

High - energy is consumed through the control of their internal environment and to maintain regulation.

52
Q

What are the niche ranges for regulators?

A

Large range.

53
Q

What is dormancy? Give def.

A

Dormancy is a period of time when an organism’s metabolic rate decreases to conserve energy.

54
Q

During dormancy, what is there a decrease of?

A
  • metabolic rate
  • heart rate
  • breathing rate
  • body temperature
55
Q

What are the two types of dormancy?

A
  • predictive

- consequential

56
Q

What is predictive dormancy?

A

When the organism enters dormancy before adverse conditions.

57
Q

What is consequential dormancy?

A

Organism enters dormancy after adverse conditions.

58
Q

What’s aestivation?

A

Aestivation (Es-ti-vation) a form of dormancy for animals to survive extreme heat and droughts. (Consequential)

59
Q

What’s ‘daily torper’?

A

A physiological state where the organism’s metabolic rate and activity become reduced every 24h cycle.

This occurs in high metabolic rate organisms for them to survive.

60
Q

What is migration?

A

Migration is a regular movement which involves a species to one place to another over a relatively long distance.

61
Q

Name an advantage and disadvantage of migration.

A

Adv: avoid metabolic adversity, move to better food availability.

Disadv: use of energy.

62
Q

What is growth? Give def.

A

Growth is an irreversible increase in biomass.

63
Q

When measuring bacterial growth, why do they only count dry biomass and not their water content?

A

Dry biomass is a more reliable indicator, as wet biomass depends on the water availability of their environment.

64
Q

What’s a viable cell count?

A

Cell count which only count the living cells and those that are capable to reproduce.

65
Q

What’s a total cell count?

A

Cell count which counts all cells, living or dead.

66
Q

What are the four stages a microbe’s growth is split into?

A
  • lag
  • log/exponential
  • stationary
  • death
67
Q

What happens in the lag phase? How does this appear on the graph?

A

Enzymes are induced (switched on) to metabolise the substrates.

Cells adjust to the growth medium, either very little change or no change.

Represented as a beginning flat line.

68
Q

What happens in the log/exponential phase? How does this appear on the graph?

A

Cells grow at maximum rate as the nutrients are plentiful and there is no limiting factor.

Represented as a steep increasing line.

69
Q

What happens in the stationary phase? How does this appear on the graph?

A

When nutrients begin to run out, and toxic metabolites begin to build up, meaning the death rate and production rate are equal.

Represented as a flat line after the increase.

70
Q

What happens in the death phase? How does this appear on the graph?

A

Lack of substrates and further build up of toxic metabolites. Death rate now exceeds the production rate.

Represented by a declining line.

71
Q

What is mutagenesis?

A

(Muta-gen-isis) is the process of changing a microorganism’s genetic material using mutagenic agents.

72
Q

What are mutagenic agents used for?

A

Increasing the rate of mutations.

73
Q

What are the two types of mutagenic agents?

A
  • Radiation (UV light)

- Chemical

74
Q

Why are mutant strains monitored regularly?

A

To prevent them reverting back to the original wild type.

75
Q

What do they do with wild strains from a microorganism?

A

They are selected and cultured, given optimal growing conditions, and pure strains will then be isolated and screened for desired traits.

76
Q

What is recombinant DNA technology?

A

Transfer of gene sequences from one organism to another. (Could even be a species)

77
Q

What are used as vectors?

A

Recombinant plasmids and artificial chromosomes.

78
Q

What are vectors?

A

A DNA molecule used to carry foreign genetic information to another cell.

79
Q

What is ligase? (Think back to unit one..)

A

An enzyme used to join two different DNA fragments together.

80
Q

What are restriction endonucleases?

A

They cut recognise and cut target DNA sequences, into fragments with sticky ends.

81
Q

What is meant by ‘sticky end’?

A

Pieces of DNA with unpaired nucleotides at the end of them.

82
Q

What does origin of replication consist of?

A

Genes that control:

  • self replication of plasmid DNA
  • regulatory sequences that control the expression of existing genes and inserted genes.
83
Q

Give an advantage for recombinant DNA technology.

A
  • improves nutrition in food, increasing quantity and quality.
  • improve the environment by reduction of pesticides or fertilisers.
  • improve health by production of drugs.
84
Q

Give a disadvantage against recombinant DNA technology.

A
  • safety concerns.
  • risks of microorganisms escaping are too high and may not be reversible.
  • gene alterations may bring risks in the future
85
Q

Explain an ethical issue surrounding recombinant DNA.

A

Religious - alternating/changing DNA is seen as unnatural and disrespectful to religions, as well as nature.

H Bio (4 decks)

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