Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q
A

Bumblefoot

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2
Q
A

choana

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3
Q
A

blood or pin feathers

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4
Q
A

Aspergillosis

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5
Q
A

cloaca

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6
Q
A

cere

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7
Q
A

female

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8
Q
A

switching to a solid bottom cage instead of a wire bottom cage

diet to reduce obesity

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9
Q
A

yes - good occlusion

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10
Q
A

Pododermatitis

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11
Q
A

precocious

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12
Q
A

pasteurella multocida

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13
Q
A

No it is not curable. Rabbits can be given antibodies to help with secondary bacterial infection but most breeders will cull the herd.

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14
Q
A

English

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15
Q

Bucks are able to pull their testicles into their abdomens because:

A

They have open inguinal canals

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16
Q

This anatomical structure is unique to rabbits.

A

sacculus rotundus

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17
Q

What is the genus and species of rabbits?

A

Oryctolagus cuniculus

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18
Q

Gestation period in a rabbit is:

A

29-35 days

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19
Q

What is the name of the breed of rabbit most commonly used in research?

A

New Zealand White

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20
Q

What is the layman’s term for the condition seen with Snuffles pertaining to a head tilt in rabbits?

A

Wry Neck

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21
Q

This disease can cause obstruction of the gastrointestinal tract in rabbits.

A

Trichbezoars

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22
Q

How can owners alleviate or prevent trichbezoars

A

soak timothy hay in papaya or pineapple juice

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23
Q

What distinguishes a Lagomorpha from Rodentia?

A

second set of upper incisors

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24
Q

What is the term used for restraining bunnies with a towel?

A

Bunny burrito

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25
Q

Which of the following foods should be fed free choice for rabbits?

A

Timothy Hay

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26
Q

Which of the following is the causative agent for ear canker in rabbits?

A

Psoroptes cuniculi

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27
Q

A rabbit presents for Slobbers. Which of the following anatomy is associated with Slobbers?

A

Teeth

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28
Q

tricheozeboars is associated with what

A

hairballs

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29
Q

torticollis is associated with what

A

wry neck

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30
Q

pasteurellosis is associated with what

A

culling the herd

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31
Q

Psoroptes is associated with what

A

ear mites

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32
Q

Cheyletiella is associated with what

A

Walking Dandruff

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33
Q

What do rats and rabbits have in common?

A

they can’t vomit

34
Q

What instrument is used to visualize rabbit’s premolars?

35
Q

25-50% of rabbits have an enzyme that can render which of the following drugs ineffective?

36
Q

Rabbits are typically bred to be:

A

SPF (specific pathogen free)

37
Q

parturition in rabbits

38
Q

baby rabbits are called what

39
Q

What is another term or the layman’s term for cecotrophes?

A

night feces

40
Q

Why are cecotrophes vital to rabbits- especially when they are 2-3 weeks old?

A

they maintain balance of normal gut flora

41
Q

List one thing cetetrophes are made of or composed of.

A

electrolytes, nitrogen, water, vitamins

42
Q

The term for the bald patch on a bird’s neck is:

43
Q

Birds are lacking which of the following anatomical structures? (three things)

A

bladder
diaphragm
teeth

44
Q

A bird comes into your clinic for blood work-up. Which jugular should the technician or DVM attempt the venipuncture on ?

45
Q

An IM injection should be given in the _______________ of a bird.

46
Q

A bird presents to your clinic for a PE. The keel score is 5. Which of the following choices best describes what that means?

A

overweight/obesity

47
Q

Which of the following condition/disease presents with these symptoms: straining, fluffed up feathers, constipation, and unwillingness to perch and lameness that is associated with neuropathy?

A

egg binding

48
Q

Our 3 Budgies at school are ________________, not parakeets.

49
Q

Chickens belong to which of the following Orders?

A

Galliformes

50
Q

An African Grey presents to your clinic with poor-quality feathers, poor skin condition and possible erosion on the plantar surface of their feet. This is first bird this owner has owned and cared for. He brings in the bird’s bag of food and you see it is an all seed diet. Which of the following diseases is most likely causing these signs?

A

hypovitaminosis A

51
Q

A bird presents to your clinic with loss of appetite, weight loss and dyspnea. On the physical exam, the DVM notice a white colored plague in the mouth, near the esophagus and trachea. What should the DVM be suspicious of?

A

trichomoniasis

52
Q

Birds can be prone to metal poisonings. The 2 most common are

53
Q

A bird presents for a fracture of the coracoid bone. You are asked to place an IO catheter in this bird and start fluids. Which of the following choices is the best place to place an IO catheter?

A

distal ulna

54
Q

Give one reason why a bird would feather pick themselves bald. The answer can be either medical or behavioral.

A

boredom, sexual frustration, overcrowding

55
Q

Birds cannot be strangled to death because they have _________________ tracheal rings.

56
Q

List two examples of a nutrient that seed-based diets lack.______________ and ______________.

A

vitamins A and D

Calcium

Protein

Magnesium

57
Q

A DVM hands you 2 unlabeled blood smears slides for you to look at under the microscope. One slide is from a cockatiel and one is from a feline patient. How will you be able to distinguish between the 2 species?

A

birds have nucleated red blood cells

58
Q

A figure 8 wrap is typically used for stabilizing _____________ fractures.

59
Q

The gizzard is the common name for:

A

ventricules

60
Q

Which of the following types of feathers are commonly trimmed/cut to keep bird’s from flying?

61
Q

When birds get constipation, it is referred to as :

62
Q

List one function of feathers.

A

thermoregulation

flight

camouflage

63
Q

[ ] is the term for giving birth in guinea pigs.

64
Q

Which of the following is the genus/species for guinea pigs?

A

Cavia porcellus

65
Q

Where would you expect to see Kurloff cells in guinea pigs?

66
Q

blood/stone in the bladder

A

urolithiasis

67
Q

mycotic disease

68
Q

cervical lymphadentis

69
Q

trixacarus caviae

A

sarcoptic mange

70
Q

most common bacterial infections

71
Q

vitamin c deficiency

72
Q

I have a 1 ½ year old intact female guinea pig. She has never had babies before. My friend just got a male. Is it a good idea to let them breed as soon as the male is old enough? Explain your answer IN DETAIL

A

No, the female should not be bred after 6 months because her pelvic symphysis has fused and she will not have a wide enough birth canal to safely deliver her pups. This could lead to dystocia or death for her or the pups.

73
Q

When do baby guinea pigs start to nurse?

A

12-24 hours

74
Q

Lordosis is typically seen in sows when they are experiencing:

A

sexual maturity

75
Q

Always support the ________ and the ________ when restraining/holding a guinea pig to protect organs, especially liver and lungs.

A

abdomen
bottom/legs

76
Q

Guinea pigs are susceptible to antibiotic toxicity. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be performed before prescribing antibiotics?

A

Culture and Sensitivity

77
Q

Which of the following is a common injury to guinea pigs when they live with small children?

A

Tibial fracture

78
Q

Which of the following is the name for the hole found in the soft palate in guinea pigs? This structure can make intubation of guinea pigs difficult.

A

palatal ostium

79
Q

Guinea pigs are used in research to study which of the following?

A

audiology studies

80
Q

Rabbits , especially if their hutch is kept outside in the summer, and guinea pigs are both susceptible to what potentially fatal condition.

A

heat stroke

81
Q

How many times does generational/in-breeding have to occur to be considered a strain?

82
Q

When determining sexes in guinea pigs, one should look for the “Y” shape in the: