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Companion Animal Diseases > Unit 2 > Flashcards

Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

In 2nd and 3rd degree AV block, what part of the ECG wave is dropped?

A

QRS complex

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2
Q

what are the 5 main leukocytes?

A

neutrophils
monocytes/macrophages
lymphocytes
eosinophils
basophils

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3
Q

neutrophils

A

“marine”
makes up ~60-70% of total WBC count
granulocytic segmented cells that are first to response to an immune signal, especially bacterial infections

  1. phagocytosis
  2. degranulation
  3. release of neutrophil extracellular traps (NETS)
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4
Q

monocytes/macrophages

A

“general”/”clean up crew”
phagocytic process of using acidic ph to kill microbes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

monocytes = blood; macrophages = tissues

boost immune response by presenting antigens on surface to other cells of immune system

3-8% of leukocyte count but largest one

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5
Q

lymphocytes

A

originates in bone marrow and moves to lymphoid tissue, develops into T and B cells

  1. cell mediated immunity (t cells)
  2. humoral immunity (b cells)
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6
Q

T cells

A

cell mediated immunity
form many lymphocytes to destroy foreign antigens and infected cells

cytotoxic, memory, or helper

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7
Q

B cells

A

humoral immunity
make antibodies to signal other cells to attack
agglutination, precipitation, neutralization, or lysis

plasma or memory

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8
Q

cytotoxic T cells

A

receptors bind to specific receptors that activate cells to release toxic substances into foreign cells

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9
Q

helper T cells

A

most numerous, helps activate cytotoxic T cells and B cells, amplifying response

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10
Q

memory T cells

A

long lived and respond to antigens later

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11
Q

plasma B cells

A

produce antibodies to attach to antigens and signal for destruction

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12
Q

memory B cells

A

similar to memory T cells
long lived, respond to antigens later

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13
Q

immune mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA)

A

immune system attacks its own RBCs and signals for their destruction

too many RBCs are tagged with antibodies for destruction

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14
Q

what causes IMHA?

A

usually is idiopathic, can be trauma, infection, toxins, or neoplasia

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15
Q

extravascular IMHA

A

antibody coated RBCs are recognized and phagocytosed by macrophages

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16
Q

intravascular IMHA

A

antibody/complement on RBC surface directly leads to cell lysis in circulation

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17
Q

clinical signs of IMHA

A

pale/icteric gums
lethargy
collapse and exercise intolerance
anorexia
dark orange/brown urine
tachypnea
vomiting
fever
necrosis of distal extremities

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18
Q

risk factors of IMHA

A

basenjis, beagles, westies, cairn terries, abyssinian and somali cats

dogs 2-8 years old

4x more likely in females

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19
Q

PE for IMHA

A

depressed/obtunded
weak
tachycardia/tachypnea
bounding pulses +/- grade II left systolic murmur
jaundice
hemoglobinemia/hemoglobinuria

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20
Q

diagnostics for IMHA

A

CBC/chem: severe anemia (<15% HCT/PCV)
RET elevated
Leukocytosis + neutrophilia
Thrombocytopenia
TBIL, ALT elevated

UA: r/o hematuria and other kidney damage

smear to look at RBC structure and r/o infectious causes such as mycoplasma or bartonella

autoagglutination test: add small sample of blood on slide and add sterile saline, then move sample around on slide looking for clumping

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21
Q

other tests for IMHA

A

coomb’s test looks for antibodies and complement that sticks to RBCs

imaging

bone marrow biopsy to r/o neoplasia

PCR test for infectious disease

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22
Q

treatment for IMHA

A

hospitalize with IVF and blood transfusion if PCV < 15%
Dexamethasone IV BID

chronic care on oral steroids (predniso (lo) ne

other immunosuppressive medications such as azathioprine, mycophenolate, or cyclosporine

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23
Q

prognosis for IMHA

A

guarded; 30-40% if in crisis, with tx
relapse rate is 11%

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24
Q

immune mediated thrombocytopenia

A

destruction of platelets on liver, spleen, or bone marrow

usually idiopathic, but may be due to drugs, neoplasia, or infection

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25
Q

clinical signs of IMTP

A

lethargy
weak
petechia and ecchymotis hemorrhage (bruising)
melena (upper GI blood in stool)
epistaxis (nose bleed)
pale MM

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26
Q

PE for IMTP

A

QAR-obtunded
petechiation
epistaxis
splenomegaly
fever
hemorrhage in eyes
heart murmurs edema or erythema
lymph node enlargement

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27
Q

diagnostics for IMTP

A

cbc/chem: thrombocytopenia (<40,000), anemia
PROT, ALB low
BUN elevated
clotting factor tests usually normal

rads can r/o other issues (splenic mass)

AUS looks for lesions on liver/spleen and can allow aspirates

PCR/ELISA test for infectious disease

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28
Q

tx for IMTP

A

hospitalization with IVF to improve volume and plasma transfusion

chronic care on immunosuppressive drugs (prednisone, azatioprine, cyclosporine)

monitor PLT count q 2 weeks until stable

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29
Q

prognosis for IMTP

A

fair, better than IMHA
16% mortality rate + 10% relapse rate
increased BUN, melena, CNS bleeds indicate - prognosis

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30
Q

immune mediated polyarthritis (IMPA)

A

diseases that cause joint pathology and systemic illness, affecting at least 2 joints with no infectious component, responsive to immunosuppressive tx

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31
Q

erosive IMPA

A

radiographic evidence of cartilage and subchrondal bone destruction in 1+ joints; rare = 1%

frequent in smaller breeds, age 2-6 yrs, stiff, intermittent lameness, swelling of joints, fever, lethargy, inappetence, lymphadenopathy

genetic form in greyhounds

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32
Q

nonerosive IMPA

A

no radiographic evidence of destruction

most common

types:
1. not associated w distant disease, most common
2. associated w infectious or chronic inflammatory disease
3. associated w chronic GI disease
4. associated w distant neoplasia

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33
Q

clinical signs of IMPA

A

difficulty walking/lameness
joint swelling and pain
vomiting
decreased appetite
fever
pitting edema

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34
Q

diagnostics for IMPA

A

synovial fluid analysis

CBC/chem: neutrophilic leukocytosis mild thrombocytopenia and anemia, elevated ALP and UPC ratio, low hypoalbuminemia

antinuclear antibodies test: helps identify autoimmune conditions

rads to r/o other causes of lameness, determine if erosive

PCR/ELISA to r/o vector borne or infectious causes

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35
Q

tx for IMPA erosive

A

prednisone, azatioprine, cyclophosphamide

disease modifying agents such as gold salts, hydroxychloroquine, penicillamine, methotrexate, leflunomide

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36
Q

tx for IMPA nonerosive

A

prednisone, azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, levamisole

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37
Q

how can you monitor the progression of IMPA?

A

recheck CBC q 3-6 mo to ensure not oversuppressing immune system

CHEM to monitor liver/kidney values

repeat synovial fluid analysis PRN

prognosis good is caught before permanent damage

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38
Q

what two breeds have specific IMPA?

A

akita and shar peis

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39
Q

nasal cavity

A

mucus lined airway with bony turbinates to help humidify inhaled air

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40
Q

pharynx

A

area containing structures at back of throat

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41
Q

larynx

A

opening to the trachea, with epiglottis, glottis, and arytenoid cartilage

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42
Q

epiglottis

A

triangle shaped fold that cover the opening to the trachea

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43
Q

what are the 4 layers of the trachea?

A

mucosa, submucosa, musculocartilaginous, adventitia

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44
Q

bronchi

A

first branches from the trachea into each lung lobe
contains less cartilage, muscle, and goblet cells
with clara cells to produce surfactant

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45
Q

bronchioles

A

further branching from bronchi
no cartilage or goblet cells, less muscle

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46
Q

alveolar sacs

A

terminal ends of respiratory tract, made of pneumocytes 1/2 and alveolar macrophages/dust cells

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47
Q

pneumocytes type 1

A

perform gas exchange with pulmonary capillaries

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48
Q

pneumocytes type 2

A

produce surfactant to reduce surface tension

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49
Q

alveolar macrophages/dust cells

A

clear out particles not cleared by URT

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50
Q

eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy

A

eosinophil infiltration of lower respiratory tract (especially bronchial mucosa), due to a hypersensitivity, parasites, chronic bacterial/fungal infections, viruses, external antigens, or allergens

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51
Q

eosinophils

A

related to allergies, hypersensitivities, and parasites

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52
Q

what breeds are predisposed to eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?

A

huskies, malamutes, labs, gsd, belgian shepherds, fox/jack russels
rare in mini/giant breeds
avg 4-6 years

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53
Q

clinical signs of eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy

A

cough
gagging/retching
dyspnea
nasal d/c
exercise intolerance
lethargy
anorexia

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54
Q

PE for eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy

A

BAR-QAR, sometimes NSF
tachypnea w/ dyspnea
increased lung sounds, wheezing, crackles
+/- serous/mucous discharge

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55
Q

what diagnostics for eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?

A

cbc: eosinophilia, leukocytosis, neutrophilia, basophilia
chem: nsf

rads: r/o other causes

elisa/pcr tests for VFT, HWT, etc

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56
Q

additional ($$$) diagnostics for eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy

A

bronchoscopy, bronchial lavage, or CT scan

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57
Q

treatment for eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy

A

treat co infections first with antibiotics, anti-fungals, anti-parasitics

pred chronically

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58
Q

what causes feline asthma?

A

scents or other allergens, cats are very sensitive
immune cells trigger inflammatory substances, decreasing the diameter of airways and allowing mucus to accumulate within the passages

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59
Q

what breeds are predisposed to feline asthma?

A

siamese
4-5 yrs

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60
Q

what are the clinical signs for feline asthma?

A

dyspnea
wheezing
tachypnea
coughing/hacking
open mouth breathing
vomiting

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61
Q

PE for feline asthma

A

increased tracheal sensitivity
harsh lung sounds, crackles, wheezes
abdominal breathing
may present w extreme dyspnea, cyanosis, open mouth
hunched with extended neck

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62
Q

diagnostics for feline asthma

A

rads: diffuse bronchial/bronchiointerstitial patterns, hyperinflation, collapse of right middle lung lobe caused by mucus plug obstruction

cbc/chem: neutrophilia, eosinophilia, hyperproteinemia

bronchoscopy: examine mucosa of respiratory tract and definitively diagnose samples

63
Q

treatment for asthma

A

inhalant albuterol (1-3 puffs SID-BID)
Prednisolone periodically to control episodes

64
Q

canine bronchitis

A

most common chronic canine airway disorder, where airways become inflamed and cause a chronic cough and excessive mucus production, leading to difficulty maintaining appropriate o2 levels

65
Q

what causes canine bronchitis?

A

bacterial infections, hypersensitivities, inhalation of airway irritants

66
Q

what are the risk factors of canine bronchitis

A

no breed disposition but common in toy breeds
6yo +

67
Q

what are the clinical signs of canine bronchitis?

A

deep harsh cough
wheezing
dyspnea
gagging, choking, or swallowing after cough
exercise intolerance

68
Q

PE for canine bronchitis

A

BAR-QAR
slightly lethargic
inspiratory/expiratory crackles/harshness
all else NSF

69
Q

diagnostics for canine bronchitis

A

rads: interstitial or bronchointerstitial pattern in dorsal caudal lung lobes

broncheoalveolar lavage: cytology shows lots of neutrophils, +/- lymphocytes, eosinophils, and epithelial cells

tracheobronchial culture: if poss infection

bronchoscopy with biopsy: definitively diagnose, but not required

r/o tests: HWT, VFT, PCR/ELISA

70
Q

tx for canine bronchitis

A

prednisone to decrease inflammation and decrease mucus production, taper to lowest dose for chronic management

antibiotics, antiparasitics, antifungals only if necessary

cough suppressants to relieve discomfort of dry cough

71
Q

what is the prognosis for canine bronchitis?

A

treatable, not curable
can life a normal QOL if well managed

72
Q

URI

A

can be viral or bacterial
infect the conjunctiva of the eye and nasal cavity, then organisms are shed in ocular, nasal, and oral secretions to transmit infection by direct contact

73
Q

what are the most common URIs in cats?

A

feline herpesvirus type 1 (FHV)
feline calicivirus (FCV)
Bordetella bronchiseptica
Chlamydophila felis

74
Q

what are the most common URIs in dogs?

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica
Canine adenovirus type 2
Canine parainfluenza virus
canine influenza

75
Q

what are 2 infectious viruses that affect cats?

A

FHV and FCV

76
Q

FHV

A

infects conjunctiva of eyes, will go into latent stage in trigeminal ganglion for long periods of time

sneezing, conjunctivitis, oculonasal d/c, depression, inappetence, dehydration, salivation, ulcerative keratitis

most common cause of URIs in cats

incubation pd is 10-14 days

77
Q

FCV

A

causes moderate, self limiting acute disease, some strains can induce lameness

sneezing nasal congestion, fever, drooling, oculonasal d/c, inflammation and ulcers on tongue and lining of mouth

if virulent systemic disease: swelling of head and legs, crusing sores and hair loss on nose, eyes, ears, footpads, liver damage, spontaneous bleeding, fatal in up to 60%

incubation pd is 14 days and can take 5-6 weeks to resolve

78
Q

what are 3 infectious viruses that infect dogs?

A

adenovirus type 2, parainfluenza, influenza (H3N8 and H3N2)

79
Q

adenovirus type 2

A

transmitted through dogs by close contact w resp secretions

dry hacking cough, retching/gagging, coughing up white foamy d/c, fever, nasal d/c, conjunctivitis

incubation pd 3-10 days

80
Q

parainfluenza

A

spread via aerosolized respiratory secretions

low grade fever, deep dry cough, watery nasal d/c, pharyngitis/tonsilitis

in puppies, may have lethargy, fever, inappetence, pneumonia

incubation pd 2-8 days

81
Q

influenza

A

spread via aerosolized respiratory secretions and fomites

oculonasal d/c (purulent), sneezing, lethargy, anorexia, fever

incubation pd: 1-5 days

82
Q

what are 2 bacteria that infect cats?

A

chlamydia felis and bordetella bronchiseptica

83
Q

chlamydia felis

A

requires direct contact between cats

conjunctivitis, protruding 3rd eyelids, mild fever, purulent ocular d/c, sneezing

incubation pd is 3-10 days

84
Q

bordetella bronchiseptica

A

highly infectious and spread via aerosolized resp secretions and fomites

loud honking cough, oculonasal d/c, swollen tonsils, wheezing, anorexia, lethargy

incubation pd is 2-14 days

85
Q

diagnostics for URIs

A

clinical signs lead to diagnosis usually

viral infections: PCR of swab of conjunctiva, nose, and throat

bacterial infections: PCR or cultures

rads: bronchointerstitial pattern, used to r/o pneumonia as secondary infection

86
Q

tx of viral URI

A

NSAID to reduce fever
- dogs: carprofen, previcox, galliprant, metacam
- cats: onsior and metacam

abx if secondary bacterial infection

l-lysine supports immune system if FHV

87
Q

tx of bacterial URI

A

doxycycline, clavamox, orbax (cats), enrofloxacin (dogs), eye drops/ointment

88
Q

pneumonia

A

bacterial infections in lower resp tract
host defenses fail and lead to bacterial colonization

89
Q

what are host defenses of respiratory tract against bacteria?

A

nasoturbinate filtration
protective airway reflexes
mucociliary clearance
phagocytosis and killing by macrophages

90
Q

what are the bacteria most likely to be found in pneumonia?

A

bordetella bronchiseptica
streptococcus
staphylococcus
pasteurella
klebsiella
e coli
mycoplasma
chlamydia

91
Q

routes of infection

A

inhallation of hematogenous (seeding of lung from bacteremia with infection of any distant tissue site)

92
Q

clinical signs of pneumonia

A

fever, dyspnea, exercise intolerance, lethargy, coughing, nasal d/c, loud breathing, tachypnea, weight loss, anorexia, dehydration

93
Q

risk factors of pneumonia

A

pre existing respiratory disorder/infection or other diseases such as pulmonary thromboembolism, esophageal dysphagia (megaesophagus), soft palate deformities, sepsis, fb, neoplasia

94
Q

PE for pneumonia

A

BAR-depressed
wheezing, crackles, and inc/dec breathing sounds
lethargic
fever

95
Q

diagnostics for pneumonia

A

rads: alveolar pattern in entire lung lobe or ventral tips, most often affecting cranioventral lung and R middle lung lobe

CBC/chem: leukocytosis with neutrophilia

transtracheal wash: cytology/culture

96
Q

pleural effusion (pneumonia associated)

A

transudate: cellular and proteinaceous fluid due to leaky vessels

septic: spread of infection into pleural space

97
Q

tx for pleural effusion

A

SQF, treat underlying cause with antifungals, antiparasitics, palliative treatment, hosp generally not needed

send out culture to not best abx to use

can take 1-6 weeks to clear

98
Q

what is parvovirus?

A

a non-enveloped DNA virus
the leading cause of enteritis in dogs

99
Q

what are the 2 types of parvovirus?

A

CPV-2a
CPV-2b

100
Q

CPV-2a

A

first mutation from original parvovirus, can be very aggressive

101
Q

CPV-2b

A

most common form of parvovirus, can affect cats
felines vaccinated against distemper usually protected

102
Q

how is parvovirus transmitted?

A

direct dog/dog contact and contact with contaminated feces, environments, and people (easily carried by fomites)

resistant to heat, humidity, drying, cleaners

shed in feces 4-5d post exposure up to 10d in recovery

103
Q

pathogenesis of parvovirus

A
  1. myocardial failure: neonatal pups infected in utero or shortly after birth
  2. enteritis:
    - targets tissue with rapid turnover (intestinal epithelium, lymphoid tissue, bone marrow)
  • causes epithelial necrosis in intestinal tract, atrophy
    and collapse of epithelium, loss of absorptive capacity -> hemorrhagic d and v
  • lymphoblasts (lymphatic tissue) + myeloblasts (bone marrow) are destroyed –> lymphopenia
104
Q

clinical signs of parvovirus

A

lethargy
anorexia
abd pain/bloat
fever or hypothermia
vomiting
severe diarrhea +/- hemorrhagic
rapid dehydration
shock

105
Q

risk factor of parvovirus

A

young (6wk-6mo) unvaccinated or incomplete vx
little-no colostrum as a neonate
rottweilers, dobys, APBT, springer spaniels, gsd

106
Q

how long does it take for clinical signs of parvovirus to show?

A

5-7 days of exposure, can range from 2-14

107
Q

PE for parvovirus

A

depressed
fever or hypothermia
long CRT due to dehydration
intestinal loops dilated/fluid filled on palpation
abd pain
poor pulse quality
tachycardia

108
Q

diagnostics for parvovirus

A

parvo snap test
CBC/Chem: leukopenia with lymphopenia and neutropenia, azotemia, hypoalbuminemia, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypochloremia, hypoglycemia, increased liver enzymes
rads: r/o GIFB and intussusception

109
Q

tx for parvovirus

A

supportive care

IVF (isotonic crystalloids) to add electrolytes and protein

antiemetics: cerenia/metoclopramide

antidiarrheals: probiotics +/- metronidazole

abx: penicillins to prevent sepsis

antacids: calm stomach and balance ph

in severe cases, glucose, tube feeding, and blood transfusion may be needed

110
Q

what is canine distemper?

A

enveloped RNA virus, not species specific
2nd leading cause of virus induced fatality in dogs

111
Q

what is the mortality rate of parvovirus?

A

20%
survivual rate: 9% if untreated, 90% if hospitalized

112
Q

what animals are susceptible to canine distemper?

A

large felids, most canids, raccoons, red pandas, otters, ferrets, bears, elephants, japanese monkeys, seals, dolphins

113
Q

how is canine distemper transmitted?

A

close contact via oronasal aerosol, can be shed in urine
shed from all body secretions

114
Q

pathogenesis of canine distemper

A

macrophages carry to preferred site of infection

can spread to lymphoid organs and cause severe immunosuppression, resulting in risk of secondary infections

lymphocyte loss due to direct viral damage and apoptosis of uninfected lymphocytes, especially CD4+ T cells

can end up in cerebrospinal fluid and infect tissues in CNS

can result in recovery OR usually irreversible neurological form

115
Q

risk factors of canine distemper

A

unvaccinated puppies >12wks old

116
Q

what are the clinical signs of canine distemper in the neurologic phase?

A

localized involuntary muscle twitching
seizures with salivation and chewing movements
circling
head tild
nystagmus (circular eye motion)
paresis - paralysis

117
Q

what are the clinical signs of canine distemper in the cararrhal phase?

A

fever 3-6d post infection
anorexia
serous nasal d/c
mucopurulent ocular d/c
lethargy
diarrhea
pustular dermatitis
hyperkeratosis of food pads/nose
hypoplasia of enamel on unerupted teeth

118
Q

diagnostics for canine distemper

A

often via clinical signs
PCR, ELISA, IFA
cerebrospinal fluid analysis
necropsy for distemper inclusion bodies
r/o for other diseases- parvo, pneumonia, URI, parasites

119
Q

tx for distemper

A

supportive care, treat secondary infections
antidiarrheals, IVF, anti-seizures, pain, anti-inflammatories, etc

120
Q

what is the mortality rate of distemper?

A

50%, can be 80% in puppies

121
Q

what happens after a patient recovers from distemper?

A

will have permanent damage and suffer from same clinical signs presented with

122
Q

prevention for distemper and parvo

A

vx

123
Q

rabies

A

zoonotic disease found in almost every mammal (not rabbits/rodents)
enveloped RNA virus

124
Q

pathogenesis of rabies

A

infected animal’s saliva enters victim’s tissue in bite

virus attached to muscle cells for 2 days, then local nerves, then brain

immune system useless once in nerves

slow progression (3-8wk avg) can take 1 yr

reaches brain, in 2-3 days more in saliva

transmissible, symptoms begin

125
Q

clinical signs of rabies

A

prodromal stage (first 2-3 days of symptoms): personality change, larynx spasms, licking/scratching of wound

excitative stage (next 1-7 days): fearless animal, hallucinations, aggressive

paralytic/dumb stage (next 2-4 days): weakness/paralysis, larynx is paralyzed, inability to swallow, drooling/foaming

126
Q

diagnosis of rabies

A

fluorescent antibody testing of the brain

animal must be euthanized, decap, and brain sent to lab

bw, PCR, etc can r/o other diseases (dangerous to attempt)

127
Q

tx of rabies

A

no treatment, ~100% fatal within 10 days
preventable with vaccine, >99% effective
can have a post-exposure vx booster

128
Q

infectious

A

disease or disease causing agent transmitted to animal/human via environment

129
Q

contagious

A

disease or disease causing agent transmitted between animals and/or humans

130
Q

FIV (feline immunodeficiency virus)

A

enveloped RNA virus that infects 2.5-5% of healthy cats
can have a long latent period (avg 5 years)
lifelong and eventually fatal infection

131
Q

how is FIV transmitted?

A

direct contact via bite wounds
cohabitation transmission rare
queens may transmit vertically to kittens in utero, during birth, or through ingestion of infected milk
IV transmission of contaminated blood

132
Q

pathogenesis of FIV

A

infects/destroys T lymphocytes (CD4+), impairing cell mediated immunity and leading to chronic/recurrent infections

impaired production/dysregulation of cytokines

133
Q

risk factors of FIV

A

most common in cats >6y
adult male cats (aggression -> bites)
living outdoors or in high density habitats

134
Q

clinical signs of FIV

A

can be asymptomatic
progressive phase:
eye d/c
coughing
gingivitis + severe dental disease
weight loss
seizures
behavioral changes
lymphadenopathy

135
Q

diagnostics for FIV

A

idexx FIV/Felv/HW snap test, following by western blot or PCR

cbc/chem: neutrophenia, low ALT/GGT, hyperglobulinemia

136
Q

tx for FIV

A

no tx and no vx

reduce risk by avoiding feral cats and testing new cats prior to introduction, spay/neuter, balances diets, avoid raw foods

treat secondary infections as needed to improve prognosis

137
Q

Felv (feline leukemia)

A

enveloped RNA virus that affects 2-3% of cats in US
can be a lifelong infection with long latency period

138
Q

transmission of Felv

A

direct contact via saliva and nasal secretions

indirectly via contact with feces from shedders

mother to offspring via nursing (latent in mammary glands)

does not survive >few hours outside of cat’s body

139
Q

pathogenesis of Felv

A

oropharynx –> local lymphoid tissues –> bone marrow

infects blood cells precursors –> viremia

infects salivary glands and intestinal lining

viremia can be overcome, leading to high antibody titers and cytotoxic T lymphocytes

140
Q

risk factors of Felv

A

12-16wk old kittens are at highest risk
males (esp intact)
multi cat households or outdoors

141
Q

clinical signs of Felv

A

can be asymptomatic
dec appetite
progressive weight loss
poor coat condition
lymphadenopathy
fever
pale MM
gingivitis, stomatitis (oral mucosa)
infections of skin, UTI, URI
diarrhea
seizures, behavior changes, other neurological signs
eye issues
abortion

142
Q

PE of Felv

A

can be NSF
fever
lethargy
painful along spin due to lymphoma
eye/skin infection
petechia
abscesses
enlarged abd organs (liver/spleen)

143
Q

diagnostics for Felv

A

idexx FIV/Felv/HW snap test, followed by PCR and ELISA

rads if concerned about spine/vertebrae

cbc/chem: neutropenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukocytosis, lymphocytosis, low CREA

bm biopsy: r/o other neoplasia and dysfunction

144
Q

tx for Felv

A

treat secondary infections and neoplasia
median survival time is 2.5y, can live long/normal life
preventable with vx and reducing exposure factors

145
Q

what would a histopathology of an infected Felv show?

A

enlarged lymph nodes
thickened alveolar walls of lung, occasional necrotic cells
white matter tracts in cerebrum and cerebellum

146
Q

FIP (feline infectious peritonitis)

A

mutated form of enteric coronavirus, infectious but not contagious to cats or people
common in catteries

147
Q

how is coronavirus transmitted in cats?

A

fecal oral
virus is killed with disinfectants

148
Q

how does the enteric coronavirus affect cats?

A

attacks intestinal epithelial cells and creates GI upset

149
Q

pathogenesis of FIP

A

macrophage consumed infected material and creates antibody response, resisting tx

infected macrophages produce ineffective macrophages and immunologic proteins and creates a pyogranuloma

150
Q

risk factors of FIP

A

<1y old
genetic factor
early weaning
overcrowding and litter box sharing

151
Q

clinical signs of FIP

A

sneezing
watery eyes
nasal d/c
diarrhea
inappetence
weight loss
lethargy
fever
jaundice

dry: seizures and ataxia
wet: pleural effusion, ascites

152
Q

PE for FIP

A

fever, lethargy, ascites, wheezing on pulmonary auscultation, ataxia

153
Q

diagnostics for FIP

A

no definitive diagnostics, only r/o tests

cbc/chem: non-regenerative anemia, leukocytosis, hypoalbuminemia, hyperglobulinemia

test effusions: ascites thick and yellow, Rivalta’s test requires acetic acid, can do immunofluorescent stain

PCR

154
Q

tx for FIP

A

no tx but antiviral drug in testing at UCD
100% fatal, can take days-months for body to eventually shut down

Companion Animal Diseases (2 decks)

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