Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Who is responsible for the safety of their facilities and personnel, including the correction of all hazards and deficiencies in their workplaces?

A

Commanders

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2
Q

Who has the authority to grant exemptions to OSHA standards?

A

Department of Labor

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3
Q

What three factors determine the severity of electric shock?

A

Amount of Current flowing through the body
Time of Exposure
Body’s Physical condition

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4
Q

What amount of current flow (or more) through the body can cause a shock that may result in cardiac arrest?

A

50 milliamperes or more

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5
Q

What are the two primary hazards associated with climbing?

A

Falling

Contact with electrical systems

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6
Q

Name the two types of radiation that you may encounter in your duties as a RAWS radio guide technician.

A

non-ionizing

ionizing

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7
Q

While working on energized equipment, personnel should never wear what items as they may increase the shock risk or be the source of potentially severe burns when energized?

A

watches, rings, dangly things

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8
Q

Unless the nature of the work requires the circuits to remain energized, what should you do before attempting any work?

A

de-energize circuits

lock out tag out

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9
Q

Define the term “high voltage.”

A

Any RMS voltage of 600 volts, nominal, or greater.

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10
Q

How often should EMF emitters be inventoried to identify new emitters and evaluations conducted if operations change or new systems are added to the inventory?

A

Biennially.

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11
Q

How should hazardous EMF exposure areas be marked when English is not the primary language?

A

Signs will be multilingual and compliant with the requirements of the host nation.

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12
Q

What type of liquids are categorized as Class I liquids, Type II, and III liquids?

A

Flammable

Combistible

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13
Q

What should you wear whenever charging, maintaining, removing and/or replacing batteries?

A

Approved protective equipment

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14
Q

Why should you never rely on the color-coding of a compressed gas cylinder?

A

Different manufacturers use different color codes.

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15
Q

Why should pregnant personnel immediately notify their primary care managers and public health?

A

To initiate a workplace evaluation for exposures that may be hazardous to the fetus and determination of work restrictions.

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16
Q

Who designates personnel required to maintain climbing proficiency?

A

Unit Commander

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17
Q

After initial climbing training, when should recurring training be conducted?

A

Annually

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18
Q

When climbing, what three points of contact should you have at all times?

A

one hand and two feet

one foot and two hands

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19
Q

Other than a harness and lanyard, what two PPE items are required by OSHA while climbing?

A

Steel-toed boots

Hard Hat

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20
Q

What must a rescue plan ensure in order to prevent or minimize permanent injury or death?

A

quick execution

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21
Q

In a rescue situation, on what three things should all tower workers be qualified?

A

First Aid
Buddy care
CPR

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22
Q

What are the three types of climbing hazards?

A

Environmental
Live
Structural

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23
Q

At what wind speed are you required to get off the tower?

A

25 MPH

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24
Q

What are two of the biggest effects the sun can have on you when climbing?

A

Sunburns and Dehydration

25
Q

If you see corrosion on a steel tower, how would you treat it?

A

Wire Brush and spray with rust prevention paint

26
Q

What two things indicate cracks in a tower section is causing stress on the structure?

A

High Winds

Improper installation

27
Q

Per AFMAN 91–203, how often shall supervisors ensure all PFAS components receive a thorough inspection?

A

Quarterly

28
Q

By how much can a knot reduce the strength of a lanyard?

A

50 percent

29
Q

Name the two most commonly used types of rope RAWS technicians will use while climbing?

A

Kernmantle and Fiber

30
Q

How often should you inspect a kernmantle rope?

A

after each use

31
Q

When used for climbing, carabiners should be inspected for what three things?

A

spring loaded gate
self-locking
carabiner is rated for 5000 lbs

32
Q

The DOD sets policies and publishes them through what means?

A

publications and directives

33
Q

JPs provide the doctrinal basis for what?

A

Interagency coordination and for US military involvement in multinational operations.

34
Q

What do ACPs provide?

A

Standardized communication procedures for allied forces.

35
Q

What are developed, distributed, and used by Air Force personnel to provide official policy and guidance?

A

Air Force publications and forms

36
Q

Directive publications that provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Air Force policies are called what?

A

AFIs

37
Q

Which type of Air Force publications assign directive actions, responsibilities, and prescribe procedures but are written at a much lower organizational level such as a squadron or flight level?

A

OIs

38
Q

Where will an identifying technical publication sheet be posted in a COTS manual and what information does it provide?

A

A cover page is posted on top of the COTS manual

It provides Air Force related info

39
Q

What are FAA manuals used for?

A

Regulates air transportation procedures

40
Q

In what system can you view eTOs with or without Internet access?

A

ETIMS

41
Q

How are TOs systematically grouped together?

A

Numerically by equipment type and category

42
Q

What are the five major elements of information considered most essential in assigning TO numbers?

A
  • Federal Supply class
  • Descriptive nomenclature
  • Functional System
  • Part number
  • JETDS nomenclature
43
Q

Using the equipment nomenclature tables, what does TRN–48 stand for?

A

Transportable Radio Navigational aid

48 is its unique designator

44
Q

In what type of dedicated TO number would an illustrated parts breakdown be listed?

A

dash 4

45
Q

Which TOs provide detailed instructions for the modification of military equipment?

A

TCTO

46
Q

If your work center was ensuring that the grounding system of a facility was installed within Air Force tolerances, what type of TO would you use to find guidance?

A

SIPTO

47
Q

Which organization is accredited by the ANSI and develops industry standards for a variety of ICT segments?

A

TIA

48
Q

Which association is responsible for developing standards for IP&E electronic components under the ANSI-designation of EIA standards?

A

ECIA

49
Q

Defines the functional requirements for the item, the environment in which it must operate, and interface and interchangeability.

A

MIL–PRF

50
Q

Establishes uniform engineering and technical requirements for military-unique or substantially modified commercial processes, procedures, practices, and methods.

A

MIL-STD

51
Q

Specifies design requirements, such as materials to be used, how a requirement is to be achieved, or how an item is to be fabricated or constructed.

A

MIL-DTL

52
Q

Describes the essential technical requirements for purchased material that is military unique or substantially modified commercial items.

A

MIL-SPEC

53
Q

A guidance document containing standard procedural, technical, engineering, or design information about the material, processes, practices, and methods covered by the Defense Standardization Program.

A

MIL-HDBK

54
Q

What is the objective of the Air Force physical security program?

A

Security of resources based on value and importance

55
Q

What PL designation would the president’s plane, Air Force One, be considered?

A

PL1

56
Q

What PL designation would be given to a facility that holds ammunition and explosives?

A

PL4

57
Q

What are the two basic criteria you must meet in order to enter a controlled area?

A

Qualification

Authorization

58
Q

Name the three types of secured areas.

A

Controlled
Restricted
Limited Access

59
Q

When entering a secured area, personnel not identified by name on the access control list, who have the proper security clearance and valid need to know, must do what two things?

A

Must be signed in/out of secure area on AF Form 1109

Must be escorted