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Biology > Unit 1A - Human Biology > Flashcards

Unit 1A - Human Biology Flashcards

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0
Q

What five things make up a balanced diet?

A

Carbohydrates, fats, protein, fibre and vitamins/mineral ions

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1
Q

Where do humans get their energy from?

A

Food

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2
Q

Why do we need to eat carbohydrates?

A

To release energy

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3
Q

Why do we need to eat fats?

A

To keep warm and release energy

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4
Q

Why do we need eat protein?

A

Growth, cell repair and cell replacement

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5
Q

Why do we need to eat fibre?

A

To keep everything moved smoothly through your digestive system

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6
Q

Why do we need to eat vitamins and mineral ions?

A

To keep your skin, bones, blood and everything else healthly, to prevent deficiency diseases

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7
Q

What is your metabolic rate?

A

The rate at which the chemical reactions in your body take place

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8
Q

Which three people are likely to have a faster metabolic rate and why?

A
  1. ) People with a higher proportion of muscle to fat in their bodies, because muscles need more energy than fatty tissue
  2. ) Bigger people because you have more cells which require more energy
  3. ) Men over women because they are larger and have more muscle
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9
Q

How can regular exercise boost your metabolic rate?

A

It builds muscle and muscles require more energy than fatty tissue and therefore increasing your metabolic rate

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10
Q

How does activity level affect your diet?

A

If you do little exercise you need less energy, so less fat and carbohydrate in your diet

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11
Q

You health is affected by what three things?

A

Unbalanced diet, not getting enough exercise and inherit tied factors

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12
Q

What does it mean to be malnourished?

A

It is people whose diet is badly out of balance

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13
Q

Are malnourished people thin?

A

No they can be fat or thin

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14
Q

What’s the difference between malnourishment and starvation?

A

Starvation is not getting enough food of any sort and malnourished is just a really unbalanced diet

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15
Q

Eating too much of which food group can lead to obesity?

A

Excess carbohydrate or fat

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16
Q

What is obesity defined as?

A

20% or more over the maximum recommended body mass

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17
Q

What four things can cause obesity?

A

Hormonal problems, bad diet, over eating and a lack of exercise

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18
Q

What five health problems can being obese cause?

A

Arthritis, type 2 diabetes, high blood pressure, heart disease and it is a risk factor of some kinds of cancer

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19
Q

Eating too much of what can cause an increase in your blood cholesterol level?

A

Saturated fats

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20
Q

Eating too much salt can cause what?

A

High blood pressure and heart problems

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21
Q

Malnutrition causes by a lack of food can cause?

A

Slow growth in children, fatigue, poor resistance to infection and irregular periods in women

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22
Q

What are deficiency diseases caused by?

A

A lack of vitamins or minerals

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23
Q

What is scurvy and how is it caused?

A

Lack of vitamin c, a deficiency disease that causes problems with skin, joints and gums

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24
Q

How can people be fit but not healthy?

A

You can be physically fit and slim but be malnourished because your diet isn’t balanced

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25
Q

Why does exercising mean you are less likely to suffer from health problems such as obesity?

A

Exercise increases the amount of energy used by the body and decreases the amount of stored fat, it also builds muscle boosting your metabolic rate

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26
Q

What inherited factor can affect your metabolic rate?

A

An under active thyroid gland is inherited and can lire the metabolic rate

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27
Q

What four things would tell you claims about slimming products are true?

A
  1. ) if the report is a scientific study
  2. ) if it was written by a qualified person not contacted to the people selling it
  3. ) if the sample of people asked or tested on is large enough to give reliable results
  4. ) if there has been other studies which found similar results
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28
Q

How do you lose weight?

A

Take in less energy than you use, eat less carbohydrate and fats (so you take in less energy) and do more exercise (so that you use more energy)

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29
Q

What is a pathogen?

A

It is microorganisms that enter the body and cause disease

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30
Q

Are bacteria or viruses living cells?

A

Bacteria are very small living cells

Viruses are not cells

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31
Q

What’s the difference in size of a virus compared to bacteria?

A

Virus is 1/100th the size of a bacterium, and so a lot smaller

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32
Q

How does a virus reproduce?

A

They replicate themselves by entering your cells and using the cell to make copies of themselves until the cell bursts releasing the new virus

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33
Q

How does bacteria make you feel ill?

A

Damaging your cell and by producing toxins

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34
Q

How does a virus make you feel ill?

A

Through cell damage

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35
Q

What is in the respiratory tract to help the bodies defence system?

A

Hairs and mucus to stop things getting into the body

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36
Q

How does your body try to prevent microorganism getting in through cut?

A

Small fragments of cells called platelets help the blood to clot quickly to seal the wound not allowing microorganisms to enter

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37
Q

What is the cell called that helps to clot blood?

A

Platelets

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38
Q

What are the three ways that white blood cells can kill pathogens?

A

Consuming them, producing antibodies, or producing antitoxins

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39
Q

How to white blood cells consume pathogens?

A

They simply engulf and foreign cells and digest them

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40
Q

How do antitoxins help the defence system?

A

They counteract toxins produced by the invading bacteria

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41
Q

Why can’t antitoxins work against virus’s?

A

Because viruses don’t produce toxins like bacteria does

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42
Q

How to antibodies help kill invading cells?

A

Every invading cell has unique antigens on its surface, when a white blood cell comes across a foreign antigen they will start go produce proteins called antibodies to lock onto and kill the invading cells

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43
Q

Why can’t antibodies kill any invading cell?

A

They are specifically to lock onto one type of antigen and so they would not able to kill any invading cell

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44
Q

What happens is a person is infected with the same pathogen again?

A

The white blood cells will recognise the antigen and rapidly produce antibodies to kill it

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45
Q

What does a vaccination prevent?

A

Any future injections

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46
Q

What do vaccinations involve?

A

Injecting small amounts of dead or inactive mircrooanisms, these carry a hyphens which cause your body to produce antibodies to attack them, even though the microorganism is harmless. This means is the live microorganism ever was to appear again then your white blood cells can rapidly mass produce antibodies to kill off the pathogen.

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47
Q

What does the MMR vaccine contain?

A

Weakened versions of the viruses that cause measles, mumps and rubella

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48
Q

Why do you need booster injections?

A

As some vaccinations wear off and so a booster may be given to increase the levels of antibodies again

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49
Q

What are two pros of vaccinations?

A

They have helped to control lots of infectious diseases that were once common in the UK and they prevent big outbreaks of the disease

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50
Q

What diseases were once common in the UK before vaccinations?

A

Polio, measles, whooping cough, rubella, mumps, tetanus and small pox

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51
Q

How do vaccinations help to prevent epidemics?

A

If a large percentage of the population is vaccinated, that means even people who aren’t vaccinated are less likely to catch the disease because there are fewer people able to pass it on

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52
Q

What are two cons of vaccinations?

A

They don’t always work and give you immunity, you can sometimes have a bad reaction to a vaccine

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53
Q

What type of drug relieves symptoms?

A

Pain killers just relieve pain they don’t tackle the cause of the disease

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54
Q

What type of drugs reduced symptoms?

A

Cold remedies reduced symptoms but don’t cure the cold

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55
Q

How are antibiotics different to pain killers?

A

Pain killers just relieve pain where as antibiotics kill or prevent yeh growth of the bacteria causing the problem

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56
Q

Why is it important to use the right antibiotics when treating an illness?

A

Different antibiotics kill different types of bacteria

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57
Q

Why can’t you use antibiotics to cure the flu or a cold?

A

They are both viruses, viruses reproduce using your own body cells which means you can’t destroy them us using antibiotics whiteout killing the body’s cells

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58
Q

How do you get bacteria that is resistant to antibiotics?

A

Bacteria can mutate, sometimes the mutations cause them to be resistant to antibiotics, so when you get an infection some of the after is may be resistant to antibiotics, this means when you treat the infection only the non resistant strains of bacteria will be killed, so the individual resistant bacteria will survive and reproduce creating more bacteria that is resistant to antibiotics

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59
Q

What is an example of an antibiotic resistant bacteria?

A

MRSA

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60
Q

How are doctors tying to slow down the rate of development of resistant strains of bacteria?

A

By not over prescribing antibiotics

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61
Q

What can microorganisms be grown in?

A

In a culture medium

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62
Q

What is in a culture medium?

A

An agar jelly plate containing the carbohydrates, minerals, proteins and vitamins bacteria needs to grow

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63
Q

How do you grow bacteria in a petri dish?

A

Inoculating loops are used to transfer microorganisms to the culture medium and the microorganisms then multiply. Paper disks are soaked in different types of antibiotics and placed on top of the culture medium. All non resistant strains of bacteria will die around the disks. The more effective an antibiotic is the bigger the circle will be

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64
Q

How and why do the culture medium and inoculating loops need to be sterilised before use?

A

They are passed through a flame so that unwanted microorganism don’t grow and affect the results

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65
Q

Why does the petri dish need to have a lid?

A

To stop any microorganism in the air contaminating the culture

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66
Q

Why and at what temperatures are microorganism grown in schools?

A

At about 25c because harmful pathogens aren’t likely to grow at this temperature

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67
Q

Who cut deaths by using antiseptics?

A

Ignaz Semmelweis

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68
Q

While Semmelweis was working in Vienna General Hospital in the 1840s what did he notice?

A

Women were dying in huge numbers after childbirth from a disease called puerperal fever

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69
Q

How did Semmelweis believe doctors where spreading the disease and how did he solve it?

A

They were spreading the disease through their unwashed hands and the bacteria and their hands, he told doctors entering to wash their hands in an antiseptic solution

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70
Q

How much did Semmelweis cut the death rate of the women on his ward?

A

From 12% to 2%

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71
Q

Why was Semmelweis’s idea of washing hands in an antiseptic solution stop when he left the hospital?

A

They didn’t know about bacteria being a part in causing disease until 20 years later so he couldn’t prove his idea and so his methods were dropped when he left

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72
Q

Why is it it more easy to pass on an antibiotic resistant bug?

A

People who have become infected can’t get rid of it easily and so there is more chance of passing the infection on

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73
Q

What is the biggest worry about bacteria at the moment?

A

It can mutate to produce new strains, which could be anti biotic resistance and so current treatments wouldn’t work, or the new strain could be completely new and so no one old be immune to it, this means the new strains can spread rapidly in the population and even cause an epidemic

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74
Q

What is the biggest worry about viruses at the moment?

A

Viruses mutate often and so it is hard to develop vaccines against the, because the change in their DNA can lead to them having different antigens and so old vaccinations wouldn’t work. The virus could spread easily and be ever more deadly and infectious after mutating

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75
Q

What does the nervous system allow you to do?

A

React to what goes on around you

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76
Q

What do sense organs detect?

A

Stimuli

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77
Q

What is a stimulus?

A

Change in your environment which you may need to react to

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78
Q

How many sense organs do you have?

A

Five

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79
Q

What are the five sense organs?

A

Eyes, ears, nose, tongue and skin

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80
Q

What do sense organ contain?

A

Receptors

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81
Q

What is a receptor?

A

A receptor is a group of cells which are sensitive to a stimulus, they change stimulus energy into electrical impulses

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82
Q

Name eight stimulus.

A

Iight, sound, touch, pressure, pain, chemical or a change in position or temperature

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83
Q

What receptors are in eyes?

A

Light receptors

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84
Q

What receptors are in ears?

A

Sound and balance receptors

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85
Q

What receptor is in the nose?

A

Smell receptors

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86
Q

What receptor is in the tongue?

A

Taste receptor

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87
Q

What are the receptors in the skin sensitive to?

A

Touch, pressure, pain and temperature change

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88
Q

What stimuli are smell and taste receptors sensitive to?

A

Chemical stimuli

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89
Q

What is a sensory neurone?

A

Nerve cells that carry signals as electrical impulses from the receptor in the sense organs to the central nervous system

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90
Q

What is a relay neurone?

A

The nerve cells that carry signals from sensory neurones to motor neurones

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91
Q

What is a motor neurone?

A

The nerve cells that carry signals from the central nervous system to the effector muscles or glands

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92
Q

What is an effector in the nervous system?

A

Muscles or glands are known as effectors and they respond in different ways, muscles contract in response to a nervous impulse whereas glands secrete hormones

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93
Q

What does CNS stand for?

A

The central nervous system

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94
Q

What is the central nervous system?

A

Where all the information from the sense organs is sent, and where reflexes and actions are co ordinates

95
Q

What does the central nervous system consist of?

A

The brain and spinal cord

96
Q

What do neurones do?

A

Transmit information as electrical impulse to and from the CNS

97
Q

What is the connection between two neurones called?

A

A synapse

98
Q

How is the nerve signal transferred across a synapse?

A

By chemicals which diffuse across the gap

99
Q

What do reflexes prevent?

A

Injury

100
Q

What is a reflex?

A

An automatic response to certain stimuli

101
Q

What reflex happens if someone shines a bright light in your eyes?

A

Pupils get smaller to allow less light into the eye to stop them getting damaged

102
Q

The passage of information in a reflex from the receptor to the effector is called?

A

A reflex arc

103
Q

Does the reflex arc go through the central nervous system?

A

Yes

104
Q

What happens during a reflex arc?

A

A stimulus is detected by a receptor, the impulses are sent along a sensory neurone to the CNS, impulses are passes to a relay neurone through diffusion over a synapse, these impulses then travel through the really neurone and to a motor neurone via a synapse, the impulses them travel along the motor neurone and to the effector where a response then happens

105
Q

What do reflexes bypass and why?

A

Your conscious brain to make it faster and reduce injury

106
Q

What is a hormone?

A

Chemical messengers which travel in the blood to activate target cells

107
Q

Hormones are produced in and secreted by?

A

Glands

108
Q

How to hormones have effect for?

A

They have relatively long lasting effects

109
Q

What are two glands that release hormones during the menstrual cycle?

A

The pituitary gland and the ovaries

110
Q

What two hormones are produced in the pituitary gland and are involved in the menstrual cycle?

A

FSH and LH

111
Q

What hormone is produced in the ovaries and is involved in the menstrual cycle?

A

Oestrogen

112
Q

What the four main differences between nerves and hormones?

A

Nerves - fast action, act for a very short time, act on a precise area
Hormones - slower action, act for a long time, act in a more general way

113
Q

Are hormones fast or slow?

A

Slow action

114
Q

Do nerves act for a short time or a long time?

A

Short time

115
Q

Do hormones act on a very precise area or in a more general way?

A

In a more general way

116
Q

What is the menstrual cycle?

A

The monthly release of an egg from a woman ovaries and the build up and breakdown of the protective lining of the uterus

117
Q

How many stages are in the menstrual cycle?

A

Four

118
Q

What happens in stage 1 of the menstrual cycle?

A

The lining of the uterus breaks down and the bleeding starts

119
Q

What happens during stage 2 of the menstrual cycle?

A

The lining of the uterus builds up again into a thick spongy layer full of blood vessels ready to receive a fertilised egg

120
Q

What happens during stage 3 of the menstrual cycle?

A

An egg is released from the ovary

121
Q

What happens during stage 4 of the menstrual cycle?

A

The wall is then maintained, if no fertilised egg has landed in the uterus the lining will start to break down again

122
Q

How long does each stage of the menstrual cycle last?

A

Stage 1 - 4 days
Stage 2 - from day 4 to day 14
Stage 3 - at day 14
Stage 4 - for about 14 days, so from day 14 to day 28

123
Q

At which stage does the lining of the uterus break down in the menstrual cycle ?

A

Stage 1

124
Q

At which stage is an egg released in the menstrual cycle?

A

Stage 3

125
Q

At which stage is the lining of the wall maintained in the menstrual cycle?

A

Stage 4

126
Q

At which stage does the lining of the uterus build up again in the menstrual cycle?

A

Stage 2

127
Q

What are the three main hormones involved in the menstrual cycle?

A

FSH, LH and Oestrogen

128
Q

What does FSH stand for?

A

Follicle - Stimulating Hormone

129
Q

What does LH stand for?

A

Luteinising Hormone

130
Q

Where is FSH produced?

A

In the pituitary gland

131
Q

Where is Oestrogen produced?

A

In the ovaries

132
Q

Where is LH produced?

A

In the pituitary gland

133
Q

What does FSH do?

A

Causes an egg to mature in one of the ovaries and stimulates the ovaries to produce oestrogen

134
Q

What does oestrogen do?

A

Causes pituitary gland to produce LH and inhibits further release of FSH

135
Q

What does LH do?

A

Stimulates the release of an egg in stage 3 of the menstrual cycle

136
Q

Other than FSH, LH and oestrogen what is another hormone involved in the menstrual cycle?

A

Progesterone

137
Q

What hormones does the pill contain?

A

Oestrogen and progesterone

138
Q

Why is oestrogen used in the pill?

A

If oestrogen is taken every day to keep the level of it permanently high it inhibits the production of FSH and after a while egg development and production stop

139
Q

Why is progesterone used in the pill?

A

It stimulates the production of thick cervical mucus which prevents any sperm getting to the egg

140
Q

Why does the pill contain less oestrogen that it used to?

A

The oestrogen was thought to be causing bad side effects like blood clots

141
Q

What’s an advantage and disadvantage of the progesterone only pill?

A

It has fewer side effects than the pill but it isn’t as effective

142
Q

What are two pros of using the pill?

A
  1. ) it’s over 99% effective at preventing pregnancy

2. ) it reduces the risk of getting some types of cancers

143
Q

What are three cons if using the pill?

A
  1. ) it isn’t 100% effective so there is still a slight chance of getting pregnant
  2. ) it can cause side effects
  3. ) it doesn’t protect against STDs
144
Q

What are some of the side effects of the pill?

A

Headaches, nausea, irregular menstrual bleeding and fluid retention

145
Q

Hormones can be used to reduce fertility as well as?

A

Increasing it

146
Q

Which hormones can be injected to help increase fertility?

A

FSH and LH

147
Q

What do low levels of FSH cause?

A

No eggs are matures or released so a women can’t get pregnant

148
Q

How does injecting FSH and LH help to increase fertility

A

It stimulates egg release in their ovaries

149
Q

What is a pro of injecting FSH and LH to increase fertility?

A

It helps a lot of women or get pregnant when they otherwise couldn’t

150
Q

What are two cons of injecting FSH and LH to increase fertility?

A
  1. ) It doesn’t always work, some women have to have in done many times which is expensive
  2. ) too many eggs could be stimulated resulting in unexpected multiple births
151
Q

What can IVF help couples to do?

A

Have children

152
Q

What does IVF stand for?

A

In vitro fertilisation

153
Q

What happens during IVF?

A

It involves collecting eggs from the women ovaries and fertilising them in a lab using the mans sperm, these are then grown into embryos, once the embryos are tiny balls of cells, one or two of them are transferred to the women uterus improving the chance of pregnancy

154
Q

What is given before IVF and why?

A

FSH and LH are given before egg collection to stimulate egg production

155
Q

What is a pro of IVF?

A

It can help infertile couples have a child who otherwise couldn’t

156
Q

What are three cons of IVF?

A
  1. ) some women have a strong reaction to the hormone, abdominal pain, vomiting, dehydration
  2. ) some reports saying there is increased risk of cancer due to hormonal treatment
  3. ) multiple births can happen if more than one embryo grows into a baby
157
Q

What is the plant growth hormone called?

A

Auxin

158
Q

What does auxin control?

A

He growth near the roos of shoots and root

159
Q

Auxin controls the growth of the plant in response to what three things?

A

Light, gravity and moisture

160
Q

If a plant grows a certain way in a response to light what is it called?

A

Phototropism

161
Q

If a plant grows a certain way in response to gravity what is it called?

A

Gravitropism

162
Q

What is cell elongation?

A

When a cell grows

163
Q

If the tip of a shoot is removed why may the shoot stop growing?

A

As there is not auxin available

164
Q

What does extra auxin causes in shoots and roots?

A

Promotes growth in shoots

Inhibits growth in roots

165
Q

What happens when a shoot tip is exposed to light?

A

More auxin accumulates on the side that’s in the shade than the side that’s in the light, this makes the cell elongate faster on the shaded side bending the shoot towards the light

166
Q

What happens when a shoot tip is growing sideways?

A

More auxin accumulates at the side closest to gravity and so the lowest side, this causes the lower side to elongate faster, bending the shoot upwards away from gravity

167
Q

What happens if a root tip is growing sideways?

A

More auxin will accumulates on it’s lower side, but in roots the extra Austin inhibits growth and so the cells on top elongate faster, bending the root downwards towards gravity

168
Q

What happens is there is uneven amounts of moisture either side of a root?

A

More auxin will accumulates on the side with more moisture, as in roots auxin inhibits growth it causes the other side to elongate faster, bending the root towards the moisture

169
Q

How can plant hormones be used as a weed killer?

A

Most weeds in crop fields have broad leaves, where as the crops have much narrower leaves, selective weed killers are made of plant hormones that only affect the broad leaved plants, killing the weeds but un harming the crops

170
Q

How can plant hormones be used to make plant cuttings grow in soil and why is it useful?

A

If you add rooting powder which contains the plant hormone auxin they will produce roots rapidly and start growling as new plants, this helps the growers to produce lots of clones of good plants quickly

171
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

All the functions of your body which try to maintain a constant internal environment

172
Q

What are the bodily levels that need to be controlled?

A

Ion content, water content, sugar content and temperature

173
Q

What is ion content regulated by?

A

The kidneys

174
Q

Give an example of a ion that is regulated by the kidneys?

A

Sodium Na+

175
Q

What happens if food contains too much of any kind of ion?

A

Then the excess ions need to be removed either lost in sweat or the kidney will remove the excess from the blood

176
Q

What ways is water lost from the body?

A

Through the skin as sweat, via the lungs in breath and via the kidneys are urine, some water is also lost in faeces

177
Q

What happens to the balance between sweat and urine on a cold day?

A

On a cold day you don’t sweat much so you’ll produce more urine

178
Q

Why is your urine pale on a cold day?

A

More water is lost through urine and so the waste it carries will be more dilute

179
Q

What happens to the balance of sweat and urine on a hot day?

A

You sweat a lot and so you will produce less urine

180
Q

Why is your urine a deeper colour on a hot day?

A

As you produce less urine it will be more concentrated and so a deeper colour

181
Q

Other than how cold or hot a day is what does the balance between sweat and urine depend on?

A

Whether you are exercising or not, as you also lose more water through your breath when you exercise because you breath faster

182
Q

Body temperature is controlled by the?

A

Brain

183
Q

What temperature to enzymes work best in the body?

A

37c, and so this is the temperature your body tries to maintain

184
Q

The part of your brain that controls body temperature is sensitive to?

A

Blood and skin temperature

185
Q

Eating foods that contain what put glucose into the blood?

A

Carbohydrates

186
Q

What hormone helps to maintain the right level of glucose in your blood?

A

Insulin

187
Q

What usually removes glucose from the blood?

A

The normal metabolism of cells

188
Q

What do drugs do to your body?

A

Alter and interfere with the chemical reactions that go on within your body

189
Q

Name four very addictive drugs

A

Heroin, cocaine, nicotine and caffeine

190
Q

If you are addictive to drugs and you stop taking them what can it cause?

A

Physical withdrawal symptoms

191
Q

What the types of drugs are there?

A

Medicinal, recreational or performance enhancing

192
Q

Give an example of a medicinal drug than is used for medicine?

A

Antibiotics

193
Q

What are recreational drugs for?

A

Fun

194
Q

What are perfume enhancing drugs?

A

To improve someone’s performance in a sport, make you better at it

195
Q

Name two performance enhancing drugs and what they do

A

Anabolic steroids - increase muscle size

Stimulants - increase heart rate

196
Q

What is a negative health effect of steroids?

A

High blood pressure

197
Q

What are two reason against using performance enhancing drugs?

A
  1. ) unfair for people to gain an advantage by taking drugs and not training
  2. ) athletes may not be fully informed of the serious health risks of the drugs they take
198
Q

What are two reasons for taking performance enhancing drugs?

A
  1. ) athletes have the right to make their own decision on whether taking drugs is worth the risk or not
  2. )drug free sport isn’t really fair anyway as different athletes have access to different training facilities, coaches and equipment
199
Q

What are statins?

A

Prescribed drugs that lower the risk of heart and circulatory disease

200
Q

Who and what original research was there into statins?

A

It as as done by the government, by scientists who had no connection to the manufactures

201
Q

If a control group is used what does it make the results?

A

Reproducible

202
Q

Scientists have investigates whether the chemicals in canna is smoke cause what problems?

A

Mental health problems

203
Q

What are the main three stages in drug testing?

A
  1. ) drugs are tested on human cells and tissues in lab
  2. ) drugs are then tested on live animals
  3. ) finally it is tested on human volunteers in a clinical trial
204
Q

Why are drugs tested on human cells and tissue in a lab first?

A

To see whether it kills human cells and if it is safe or not

205
Q

Why can’t you test drugs for blood pressure on human cells and tissues?

A

Because the drug affects the whole body and so it wouldn’t be affected on cells

206
Q

Why is the drug tested in live animals secondly?

A

To see whether the drug works, to find out about its toxicity and to find the best dosage

207
Q

What does the law in Britain day about testing drugs on live animals?

A

That any new drug must he tested on two different live mammals

208
Q

What is one reason for both, why are people are for and against animal testing?

A

Against - it is cruel to test on animals and some animals are so different to humans it is pointless
For - safest way to make sure a drug is safe before giving it to humans

209
Q

During clinical trials why is the drug first tested on healthy volunteers?

A

To make sure it doesn’t have any harmful side effects when the body is working normally

210
Q

In clinical trials who do they test on after healthy volunteers?

A

People who suffer from the illness

211
Q

During clinical during why is the drug tested on people who have the illness?

A

To find the optimum dose

212
Q

What is an optimum dose?

A

A dose that is the most effective and has few side effects

213
Q

During clinical trials what two groups are the patients put into?

A

They are put into two different groups one is given the new drug and one is given the placebo

214
Q

What is a placebo?

A

A substance that looks like the drug being tested but doesn’t actually do anything

215
Q

Why do doctors use a placebo when testing new drugs?

A

To see the actual difference the drug makes, it allows for the placebo effect

216
Q

What does it mean if clinical trials are blind?

A

The patient in the study doesn’t know whether thery getting the drug or the placebo, and sometimes even the doctor doesn’t know until the results have been gathered

217
Q

What is an example how drugs have gone wrong in the past because they haven’t been thoroughly tested?

A

Thalidomide

218
Q

When was thalidomide developed?

A

In the 1950s

219
Q

What was thalidomide used for?

A

Intended as a sleeping pill, and was tested for that use. But later is was found to be effective at relieving mourning sickness in pregnant women

220
Q

What happened as a result of thalidomide not being tested as a drug for mournings sickness?

A

As it was tested it wasn’t know that it could pass through the placenta and affect the fetus, causing abnormal limb development

221
Q

How many babies were affected by thalidomide?

A

About 10 000

222
Q

Of the 10 000 babies affected by thalidomide how many survied?

A

About half of them

223
Q

What happened after they realised what thalidomide was causing?

A

It was banned and more rigorous testing procedures were introduced

224
Q

What has thalidomide been used to treat more recently?

A

Leprosy and other diseases

225
Q

What two main classes can illegal drugs be divided into?

A

Hard and soft

226
Q

What are hard drugs thought to be?

A

Seriously addictive and generally more harmful

227
Q

What are six reason some people choose to use recreational drugs?

A

For enjoyment, relaxation, stress relief, to get stoned, for inspiration or because of personal issues that has lead to taking drugs

228
Q

Some studies link cannabis and what together and why?

A

Hard drug use because almost all users of hard drugs have tried cannabis first

229
Q

What are the main three opinion on the drug cannabis and it leading to hard drug use?

A
  1. ) It is a stepping stone
  2. ) Cannabis is a gateway drug
  3. ) It’s all down to genetics whether you are likely to take drugs and get addicted to drugs
230
Q

What is the meant by cannabis being a stepping stone and a gateway drug?

A

Steeping stone - the effects of cannabis create a desire to try harder drugs
Gateway drug - cannabis brings people into contact with drug dealers

231
Q

Name two legal recreational drugs?

A

Tobacco and alcohol

232
Q

What are three negative effects of smoking?

A
  1. ) smoking causes disease of the heart, blood vessels and lungs
  2. ) tobacco smoke also causes cancer
  3. ) nicotine is a drug found in cigarettes and it is very addictive so it is hard to stop smoking
233
Q

What are four negative effects of alcohol?

A
  1. ) alcohol affects the nervous system and slow down the body’s reactions
  2. ) too much alcohol leads to impaired judgement, poor coordination and unconsciousness
  3. ) excessive drinking can cause livid disease and brain damage
  4. ) alcohol is also addictive
234
Q

Do tobacco and alcohol or illegal drugs have a bigger impact on the UK?

A

Tobacco and alcohol as so many people take them

Biology (6 decks)

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