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Intro To Lab Practices > Unit 1 Review > Flashcards

Unit 1 Review Flashcards

1
Q 
The correct designation for a general list laboratory professional with a bachelors degree certified by the American Society for clinical path all a G is:
A. Medical laboratory technician
B. Medical laboratory scientist
C. Medical technician
D. Medical technologist
A

B. Medical laboratory scientist

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2
Q

The role of the laboratory supervisor or manager is to:
A. Supervise technical aspects of testing
B. Supervise business functions of testing
C. Examine surgically removed organs
D. Screen cytology for Pap smears

A

A. Supervise technical aspects of testing

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3
Q

Which of the following acts, agencies, or organizations was created to make certain the quality of work done in the laboratory is reliable?
A. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid services (CMS)
B. Occupational safety and health administration (OSHA)
C. Clinical laboratory improvement amendments of 1988 (CLIA ‘88)
D. Centers for disease control and prevention (CDC)

A

C. Clinical laboratory improvements amendments of 1988 (CLIA ‘88)

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4
Q 
Laboratories performing which of the following types of tests need to be enrolled in a CLIA – approved proficiency testing program?
A. Waived
B. Moderately complex
C. Highly complex
D. Both B and C
A

D. Both B and C

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5
Q

The role of provider – performed microscopy (PPM) is the:
A. Continuation of the process of evaluating and monitoring all aspects of the laboratory to ensure accuracy of test results
B. Specific microscopic tests (wet mounts) performed by a physician for his or her own patients
C. Means by which quality control between laboratories is maintained
D. Process of performing laboratory testing at the bedside of the patient and a means of decentralizing some of the laboratory testing

A

B. Specific microscopic tests (wet mounts) performed by a physician for his or her own patients

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6
Q

The newest direction for laboratory testing procedures is:
A. Larger automated instruments
B. Network systems for point of care testing
C. Molecular diagnostic techniques in various laboratory departments
D. Robotic specimen handling

A

C. Molecular diagnostic techniques in various laboratory departments

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7
Q

A hospital chief operating officer is responsible for:
A. Implementing policies and oversight of daily activities
B. Finances
C. Setting policy and guiding the organization
D. Overseeing the hospital information system

A

A. Implementing policies and oversight of daily activities

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8
Q

What is the best description of the purpose of the college of American pathologists (CAP) pertaining to the clinical laboratory?
A. Sets accreditation requirements for physician office laboratories (POL’s)
B. Administers both CLIA ‘88 and Medicare programs
C. CMS has given CAP deemed status to act on the governments behalf to certify clinical laboratories
D. Nonprofit educational group that establishes consensus standards for maintaining a high – quality laboratory organization

A

C. CMS has given CAP deemed status to act on the governments behalf to certify clinical laboratories

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9
Q

What is the best description of the purpose of the commission on office laboratory accreditation (COLA)pertaining to the clinical laboratory?
A. Sets accreditation requirements for physician office laboratories (POL’s)
B. Administers both CLIA ‘88 and Medicare programs
C. CMS has given COLA deemed status to act on the government’s behalf to certify clinical laboratories
D. Nonprofit educational group that establishes consensus standards for maintaining a high – quality laboratory organization

A

A. Sets accreditation requirements for physician office laboratories (POL’s)

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10
Q

What is the best description of the purpose of the centers for Medicare and Medicaid services (CMS) pertaining to the clinical laboratory?
A. Sets accreditation requirements for physician office laboratories (POL’s)
B. Administers both CLIA ‘88 and Medicare programs
C. CMS has given itself deemed status to act on the government’s behalf to certify clinical laboratories
D. Nonprofit educational group that establishes consensus standards for maintaining a high – quality laboratory organization

A

B. Administers both CLIA ‘88 and Medicare programs

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11
Q

The role of point of care testing (POCT) compared with in laboratory testing is the:
A. Continuation of the process of evaluating and monitoring all aspects of the laboratory to ensure accuracy of test results
B. Specific microscopic tests (wet mounts) performed by a position for his or her own patients
C. Means by which quality control between laboratories is maintained
D. Process of performing laboratory testing at the bedside of the patient and a means of decentralizing some of the laboratory testing

A

D. Process of performing laboratory testing at the bedside of the patient and a means of decentralizing some of the laboratory testing

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12
Q 
Sally is seeing her new primary care provider for the first time. When she signed in, she is asked to sign papers for the release of medical records, including her laboratory results. According to the health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPAA), she must authorize release of records before \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ would be permitted to receive and review her records.
A. Her insurance company
B. Her attorney
C. Her husband
D. Any of the above
A

D. Any of the above

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13
Q

In which of the following laboratory situations is a verbal report permissible?
A. When the patient is going directly to the physicians office and wants to have the report available
B. When the reports cannot be found at the nurses station
C. When preoperative test results are needed by the anesthesiologist
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

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14
Q

All of the following characteristics are accurate for the influence of health insurance portability and accountability act HIPAA except:
A. Replaces federal, state, or other laws that grants individuals even greater privacy protection than HIPAA
B. Covers entities that are free to retain or adopt more protective policies or practices
C. Establishes a minimum standard for security of electronic health information and the electronic interchange of information
D. Directly affects the laboratory information system (LIS)

A

A. Replaces federal, state, or other laws that grants individuals even greater privacy protection than HIPAA

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15
Q

In order to perform a venipuncture on a newly admitted hospital patient, a phlebotomist needs to:
A. Ask for the patient’s written permission to perform the procedure
B. Verify that the patient has specifically named the drawing of blood in the admissions papers
C. Realize that an admitted hospital patient has given implied consent to routine procedures such as phlebotomy
D. Verify with the patient’s primary care provider that phlebotomy is covered as a routine procedure

A

C. Realize that an admitted hospital patient has given implied consent to routine procedures such as phlebotomy

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16
Q

Chain of custody procedures must be followed for:
A. Blood specimens for alcohol level determination
B. Routine urinalysis for glucose and ketones
C. Therapeutic drug threshold determinations
D. Throat swabs of group A beta streptococcus screening

A

A. Blood specimens for alcohol level determination

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17
Q 
Medical ethics:
A. Has strict guidelines
B. Applies to laboratory professionals
C. Includes situational ethics
D. Both B and C
A

D. Both B and C

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18
Q

The abbreviation TJC stands for an organization that:
A. Accredits hospitals and inspects clinical laboratories
B. Accredits physician laboratories
C. Determines waived and non-waived categories of assays
D. Accredits only hospital laboratories

A

A. Accredits hospitals and inspects clinical laboratories

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19
Q

The abbreviation CAP stands for an organization that:
A. Accredits hospitals and inspects clinical laboratories
B. Accredits physician laboratories
C. Determines waived and non-waived categories of assays
D. Accredits only hospital laboratories

A

D. Accredits only hospital laboratories

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20
Q

The abbreviation COLA stands for an organization that:
A. Accredits hospitals and inspects clinical laboratories
B. Accredits physician laboratories
C. Determines waived and non-waived categories of assays
D. Accredits only hospital laboratories

A

B. Accredits physician laboratories

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21
Q

The abbreviation CLIA stands for an organization that:
A. Accredits hospitals and inspects clinical laboratories
B. Accredits physician laboratories
C. Determines waived and non-waived categories of assays
D. Accredits only hospital laboratories

A

C. Determines waived and non-waived categories of assays

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22
Q

An example of a pre-analytical (pre-examination) error is:
A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing
B. Incorrect identification of a patient
C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report
D. Verbally reporting a laboratory results over the telephone

A

B. Incorrect identification of a patient

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23
Q

An example of an analytical (examination) error is:
A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing
B. Incorrect patient identification
C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report
D. Use of the wrong anticoagulant in the patient sample tube

A

A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing

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24
Q

An example of a post analytical (post examination) error is:
A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing
B. Incorrect patient identification
C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report
D. Use of the wrong anticoagulants in the patient sample tube

A

C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report

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25
Q 
Blood from the wrong patient is an example of:
A. Pre-analytical error
B. Analytical error
C. Post analytical error
D. Either A or B
A

A. Pre-analytical error

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26
Q 
Specimen collected in the wrong tube is an example of:
A. Pre-analytical error
B. Analytical error
C. Post analytical error
D. Either A or B
A

A. Pre-analytical error

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27
Q 
Quality control outside of acceptable limits is an example of:
A. Pre-analytical error
B. Analytical error
C. Post analytical error
D. Either B or C
A

B. Analytical error

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28
Q

Accuracy is defined as:
A. How close results are to one another
B. How close a test result is to the true value
C. Specimen that is similar to patients blood; known concentration of constituent
D. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical content

A

B. How close a test result is to the true value

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29
Q

Calibration is defined as:
A. How close results are to one another
B. How close a test result is to the true value
C. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent
D. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant

A

D. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant

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30
Q

A control is defined as:
A. How close a test result is to the true value
B. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent
C. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant
D. Measurement of a highly purified substance of known composition

A

B. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent

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31
Q

Precision is defined as:
A. How close results are to one another
B. How close a test result is to the true value
C. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant
D. Measurement of a highly purified substance of known composition

A

A. How close results are to one another

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32
Q

Standards are defined as:
A. How close a test result is to the true value
B. Specimens that are similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent
C. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant
D. Highly purified substances of known composition

A

D. Highly purified substances of known composition

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33
Q

Sensitivity is:
A. Cases with a specific disease or condition that produce a positive result
B. Cases without a specific disease or condition that produce a negative result
C. Cases with a specific disease or condition that produce a negative result
D. Cases without a specific disease or condition that produce a positive result

A

A. Cases with a specific disease or condition that produce a positive result

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34
Q

Specificity is:
A. Cases with a specific disease or condition that produce a positive result
B. Cases without a specific disease or condition that produce a negative result
C. Cases with a specific disease or condition that produce a negative result
D. Cases without a specific disease or condition that produce a positive result

A

D. Cases without a specific disease or condition that produce a positive result

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35
Q

The mean is:
A. Another term for the average
B. Most frequently occurring number in a group of values
C. Number that is midway between the highest and lowest values
D. A representation of a true analyte value

A

A. Another term for the average

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36
Q

The median is:
A. Another term for the average
B. Most frequently occurring number in a group of values
C. Number that is midway between the highest and lowest values
D. A representation of a true analyte value

A

C. Number that is midway between the highest and lowest values

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37
Q

The mode is:
A. Another term for the average
B. Most frequently occurring number in a group of values
C. Number that is midway between the highest and lowest values
D. A representation of a true analyte value

A

B. Most frequently occurring number in a group of values

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38
Q 
The standard deviation is:
A. Equal to SD divided by the mean
B. Measure of variability
C. The same as the mean value
D. An exact measurement of an analytic value
A

B. Measure of variability

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39
Q 
The coefficient of variation is:
A. Equal to SD divided by the mean
B. Measure of variability
C. The same as the mean value
D. An exact measurement of an analytic value
A

A. Equal to SD divided by the mean

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40
Q 
Levey-Jennings plots:
A. Show values on a chart
B. Have three warning rules
C. Have three mandatory rules
D. All of the above
A

A. Show values on a chart

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41
Q

Differences between Medicare and Medicaid.

A

Medicare: seniors age 65 and older or disabilities – run by federal government;

Medicaid: Low income families – run by the state

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42
Q

Be familiar with the hierarchy of lab personnel.

A

Hospital administration (Health administration degree);
Laboratory medical director (medical doctors or pathologists);
Administrative scientist (PhD in certain discipline);
Laboratory department manager (handles finances);
Laboratory supervisor (handles technical and competencies);
Lead techs (MLS – BS degree – day-to-day supervision – benchwork);
Bench techs (MLT/MLS);
CLA/specimen processors (high school, on the job training);
Phlebotomists (certification, draw blood);
Technical support

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43
Q

What’s the difference between malpractice and negligence?

A

Malpractice is intentional.
Negligence is the lack of action.
The major difference between the two is intent.

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44
Q

Which departments are found in the lab? What general tests are run in each?

A

Chemistry – glucose, cholesterol;
Microbiology – cultures;
Hematology/coagulation- CBC, PT/INR, PTT;
Immunohematology (blood bank) – Crossmatch, type;
Cytology/histology – cells and tissues, biopsies;
Molecular diagnostics – genetics;
Urinalysis/microscopy;
Toxicology – drug testing (therapeutic and illegal);
Immunology – antigen, antibody

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45
Q

What is HIPAA?

A

Health insurance portability and accountability act;
Handles patient confidentiality;
Criminal and/or civil prosecution may result for non-compliance or breach of confidentiality

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46
Q 
The magnification of 40x matches the:
A. Oil immersion objective
B. High-power objective
C. Low-power objective
D. Scanning objective
A

B. High-power objective

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47
Q 
The magnification of 10x matches the:
A. Oil immersion objective
B. High-power objective
C. Low-power objective
D. Scanning objective
A

C. Low-power objective

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48
Q 
The magnification of 100x matches the:
A. Oil immersion objective
B. High-power objective
C. Low-power objective
D. Scanning objective
A

A. Oil immersion objective

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49
Q 
The common numerical aperture for the oil immersion objective is:
A. 0.25 NA
B. 0.65 NA
C. 1.25 NA
D. 1.80 NA
A

C. 1.25 NA

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50
Q 
The common numerical aperture for the high-power objective is:
A. 0.25 NA
B. 0.65 NA
C. 1.25 NA
D. 1.80 NA
A

B. 0.65 NA

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51
Q 
The common numerical aperture for the low-power objective is:
A. 0.25 NA
B. 0.65 NA
C. 1.25 NA
D. 1.80 NA
A

A. 0.25 NA

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52
Q 
The ocular of the microscope can also be called the:
A. Iris field diaphragm
B. Eyepiece
C. Objectives
D. Condenser
A

B. Eyepiece

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53
Q

How should the condenser be positioned assuming that the NA of the condenser is 0.85 with the oil immersion objective?
A. Highest position possible or very slightly decreased (lowered)
B. Highest (uppermost) position possible
C. Decrease to 1 or 2mm below the slide (lowering condenser slightly)
D. Lowest possible position

A

B. Highest (uppermost) position possible

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54
Q

How should the condenser be positioned assuming that the NA of the condenser is 0.85 with the low-power objective?
A. Highest position possible or very slightly decreased (lowered)
B. Highest (uppermost) position possible
C. Decrease to 1 or 2mm below the slide (lowering condenser slightly)
D. Lowest possible position

A

C. Decrease to 1 or 2mm below the slide (lowering condenser slightly)

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55
Q 
Cleaning the objective lens should be done with: 
A. Camel's hair brush
B. Tissue paper
C. Facial tissue
D. Lens paper
A

D. Lens paper

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56
Q

If you are unable to focus the microscope to achieve a sharp view of a specimen, the correct sequence of steps to be taken is:
A. Replace the objective with one from another microscope, clean the oculars, clean the stage, and clean the objectives.
B. Clean the oculars, clean the stage, clean the objectives, and replace the objective with one from another microscope.
C. Clean the objectives, clean the oculars, and replace the objectives with a new set of objectives.
D. Clean the objectives, replace the objective with one from another microscope, clean the oculars, and clean the stage.

A

C. Clean the objectives, clean the oculars, and replace the objectives with a new set of objectives.

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57
Q 
What objective must you always use when you first start looking at a slide?
A. High-power
B. 100x
C. 40x
D. 10x
A

D. 10x

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58
Q 
Which focusing adjustment do you use first when you begin looking at a slide?
A. Small focusing knob
B. Coarse focus
C. Fine focus
D. 4x Objective
A

B. Coarse focus

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59
Q 
Which objective allows you to see the largest area of the object you are viewing?
A. 4x
B. 10x 
C. 100x 
D. 40x
A

A. 4x

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60
Q

Describe how to decrease light intensity.
A. Lower the condenser
B. Close the aperture iris diaphragm
C. Adjust the dimmer switch
D. All of the above are possible ways to decrease light intensity

A

D. All the above are possible ways to decrease light intensity

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61
Q 
What do you adjust if you can see through one ocular and not the other?
A. The fine focus
B. The coarse focus
C. Change to a different objective
D. The other ocular
A

D. The other ocular

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62
Q 
What do you adjust if you can see two overlapping circles, with part of the object in each circle?
A. The focus
B. The iris diaphragm
C. The width of the oculars
D. Change to a different objective
A

C. The width of the oculars

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63
Q

How do you increase depth of field?
A. Close the aperture of the iris diaphragm
B. Open the aperture of the iris diaphragm
C. Use fine focusing
D. Both a and c

A

D. Both a and c

64
Q

Which focusing knob do you use with the 10x and 40x objectives?
A. Fine focusing knob
B. Coarse and fine focusing knobs, respectively
C. Both fine focusing knob and the iris diaphragm
D. Coarse focusing knob

A

D. Coarse focusing knob

65
Q

How much are you magnifying something when you are using 10x ocular and the 40x Objective?
A. 40x
B. 400x
C. 4000x
D. Cannot calculate without additional information

A

B. 400x

66
Q 
An adaptation of the brightfield microscope is the:
A. Polarizing microscope
B. Electron microscope
C. Fluorescent microscope
D. Darkfield microscope
A

A. Polarizing microscope

67
Q 
A scanning electron microscope focuses on the surface of the specimen and produces a:
A. One dimensional image
B. Two dimensional image
C. Three dimensional image
D. Four dimensional image
A

C. Three dimensional image

68
Q

A critical design characteristic of the microscope’s objective set is:
A. Wavelength of light used to illuminate the specimen
B. Angular aperture of the light cone captured by the objective
C. Reflective index in the object space between the objective front lens and the specimen
D. All the above are critical design characteristics

A

D. All the above are critical design characteristics

69
Q 
When changing objectives by rotating the nose piece requires only minimal use of the fine adjustment knob to reestablish sharp focus, the set of objectives is described as being:
A. Parfocal
B. Achromatic
C. Planachromatic
D. Either B or C
A

A. Parfocal

70
Q

Which of the following describes a characteristic representative of digital microscopy?
A. Digital microscopy is driven by an artificial neural network that stimulates the way the human brain processes information.
B. Digital microscopy allows for pre-classifying leukocytes and erythrocytes.
C. Digital microscopy produces platelet estimates.
D. All the above are representative characteristics of digital microscopy.

A

D. All the above are representative characteristics of digital microscopy.

71
Q

You are reviewing a hematology slide under the low-power (10x) objective. Which step should be completed first in order to scan the slide?
A. Use the coarse focus adjustment, followed by the fine focus adjustment
B. Use the fine focus adjustment, followed by the coarse focus adjustment
C. Add oil to the slide
D. Adjust the light intensity until the background light is bright but comfortable to view

A

A. Use the coarse focus adjustment, followed by the fine focus adjustment

72
Q

You are reviewing a hematology slide under the 100x Oil immersion objective, but the specimen is not in focus. What should you do to resolve the issue?
A. Use the coarse focus adjustment, followed by the fine focus adjustment
B. Use the fine focus adjustment, followed by the coarse focus adjustment
C. Add oil to the slide
D. Adjust the light intensity until the background light is bright but comfortable to view

A

C. Add oil to the slide

73
Q

You have completed a review of a hematology slide using the 100x Oil immersion objective. What should you do before leaving the workstation?
A. Turn off the light and put the slide away.
B. Wipe the oil from the objective using a tissue, turn off the light, and put the slide away.
C. Remove the oil from the objective with lens paper, turn off the light, and put the slide away.
D. Wipe the oil from the objective with a clean, dry piece of gauze or (kimwipe).

A

C. Remove the oil from the objective with lens paper, turn off the light, and put the slide away.

74
Q

What is a hazard?

A

Anything that causes injury

75
Q

In the laboratory, hazards can be categorized as __________, _________, or _________.

A

Physical;
Chemical;
Biological

76
Q

What is a physical hazard?

A

Anything capable of causing immediate physical damage

77
Q

What is a chemical hazard?

A

Substances that have a chemical make up that is hazardous

78
Q

What are examples and injuries of physical hazards?

A

Tripping; backpacks

Scrape; broken bone

79
Q

What are examples and injuries of chemical hazards?

A

HCL; boric acid

Burns; skin irritations

80
Q

How does transmission occur of biological hazards?

A

Inhalation (breathe it in);
Ingested (eat it);
Inoculation (injection – through the skin)

81
Q

What are examples of biological hazards?

A

Hepatitis; HIV

82
Q

The numbers represent the severity of a hazard. Describe the severity for the numbers 0, 1, 2, 3, 4.

A 
0 - no hazard
1 – mild
2 - moderate
3 – severe
4 – extreme
83
Q

The color indicates the type of hazard. Describe the type of Hazard indicated with blue, red, yellow, and white.

A

Blue – health
Red – fire
Yellow – reactivity
White – other

84
Q

OSHA tightly monitors what?

A

Safety in the workplace

85
Q

OSHA requires what?

A

Chemical hygiene

86
Q

In brightfield microscopy, the specimen appears:

A

Dark against a white background

87
Q

Bright field microscopy uses __________ illumination.

A

Kholer

88
Q

In brightfield microscopy, light is directed:

A

Up and through the specimen

89
Q

What are the common uses for brightfield microscope’s?

A

Urinalysis and hematology

90
Q

In dark field microscopy light is directed:

A

At angles

91
Q

Polarization means:

A

Blocking light in a certain direction

92
Q

In polarizing microscopy, The way the specimen bends light will determine the image that is seen. This bending of light is referred to as ___________.

A

Birefringence

93
Q

__________ are the most common subject for viewing with a polarizing microscope.

A

Crystals

94
Q

Fluorescence is based on the principle that certain substances have the ability to:

A

Absorb and emit light at different wavelengths

95
Q

_________ absorb light at a certain wavelength and then transmit light at a lower energy (longer wavelength).

A

Fluorophores

96
Q

Fluorescent microscopy is often used to detect:

A

Sexually transmitted infections

97
Q

These microscopes alter the way light is bent through a substance, increasing the amount of contrast of that substance.

A

Phase contrast microscopes

98
Q

What are the five essential components of a quality assessment program?

A
  1. Personnel orientation
  2. Quality control
  3. Laboratory documentation
  4. Instrument knowledge/training
  5. Proficiency testing
99
Q

What is the purpose of preventative maintenance?

A

To keep instrumentation in working condition

100
Q

What is a control?

A

A sample or specimen that has a known range of values and the validity of a test is determined by the result

101
Q

What are the two types of lab errors?

A

Random error and systematic error

102
Q

What is another term for MEAN?

A

Average

103
Q

What does standard deviation mean?

A

How far from the MEAN I can be

104
Q

Control ranges are usually set at ___________ from the MEAN.

A

+/- 2 SD

105
Q

What is proficiency testing?

A

Quarterly testing for each department in the lab. You are guaranteeing to an outside agency that your lab sends out quality results.

106
Q

What is competency testing?

A

Assessed yearly (at least) by your lab supervisor.

107
Q

A generic term that describes the intervention of government in healthcare service to control or change the behavior of the participants by invoking and enforcing certain rules.

A

Regulation

108
Q

____________ May include certification, accreditation, and/or licensure.

A

Regulatory rules

109
Q

_________ May control costs, standards, personnel, and a host of other parameters.

A

Regulatory measures

110
Q

Examples of regulations.

A

Medicare;

State health department

111
Q

The process by which a non-government agency or association grants recognition to an individual or organization that has met predetermined standards specified by the certifying organization. It is voluntary and carries no legal sanctions.

A

Certification

112
Q

Examples of certification.

A

ASCP;

NCA

113
Q

The process by which an agency or organization evaluates and recognizes a program of study or activity in an institution as meeting certain predetermined standards. It does not imply lawful practice, but is in assurance of high-quality practices.

A

Accreditation

114
Q

Examples of accreditation.

A

NAACLS

115
Q

Permission granted to an individual or organization by competent authority, usually governmental, to engage in a practice, occupation, or activity defined legally to be otherwise unlawful. These are granted on proof of education and/or examination rather than on measures of performance.

A

Licensure

116
Q

Administers regulatory, financing (reimbursement) and enforcement requirements of Medicare and Medicaid. It continues to gain power as a federal regulatory agency.

A

Healthcare financing administration (HCFA).

117
Q

Defines budgetary constraints imposed on healthcare costs in all federally supported programs.

A

Office of management and budget (OMB)

118
Q

Maintains stringent standards in several areas: personnel standards including physician directorship, quality control and quality assurance, uniform standards of measurement and workload recording, proficiency testing, and continuing education for all personnel.

A

College of American pathologists (CAP)

119
Q

Accredits healthcare facilities, an average of over 4000 per year.

A

The joint commission

120
Q

________ are usually pathologists in hospital-based laboratories.

A

Laboratory directors

121
Q

A _________ is a physician who is board certified in anatomic and clinical pathology. They serve other physicians by consulting on matters of cytologic as well as clinical correlation of laboratory information relevant to their medical practices.

A

Pathologist

122
Q

________ are laboratory scientists with the required training or experience to govern the day-to-day operations of the laboratory as well as make decisions in matters of finance, personnel, and other key functions.

A

Administrative technologists

123
Q

__________ are personnel assigned to the laboratory for the purposes of obtaining either venous or capillary blood for analysis.

A

Phlebotomists

124
Q

__________ are personnel that are primarily concerned with screening tissue sections and material for abnormal cytologic (cell) changes.

A

Cytotechnologists

125
Q

_________ are individuals trained to prepare material for cytologic examination by pathologists and cytotechnologists.

A

Histotechnologists

126
Q

The original laboratory organization group founded by pathologists.

A

American Society of clinical pathologists (ASCP)

127
Q

Within the ASCP is the _________ which administers certification examinations to graduates of accredited programs or equivalencies.

A

Board of registry

128
Q

The _____________ was founded by, and is administered by non-physician laboratory personnel.

A

American society for clinical laboratory science (ASCLS)

129
Q

Medicare ________ provides payment for inpatient services in hospitals and approved nursing facilities or to a home health agency after discharge. It also pays for laboratory tests along with a long list of other peripheral services.

A

Part A

130
Q

Medicare ________ helps pay for bills from physicians, Hospital outpatient visits, and certain other medical services not provided for under part A.

A

Part B

131
Q

_________ is really not a specific discipline, but rather a generic term used to describe any process that employs microscopic methods in the test procedure.

A

Microscopy

132
Q

________ is the study of the cellular components of blood these include the leukocytes, or white blood cells; the erythrocytes, or red blood cells; and platelets. Anemias, leukemias and a wide variety of diseases are detected through here.

A

Hematology

133
Q

________ is the laboratory process of establishing the compatibility of blood and its components given by donor with the blood of recipients for transfusion purposes.

A

Immunohematology (blood banking)

134
Q

__________ utilizes many scientific principles and is generally quantitative in measuring precise amounts of an analyte in a given sample. Substances in human plasma or serum react with specific reagents, which are measurable in the laboratory.

A

Clinical chemistry

135
Q

_________ is a discipline that contains several sub – disciplines including parasitology, mycology, virology, and bacteriology. This department is concerned with the recognition of organisms that produce infectious diseases in humans.

A

Clinical microbiology

136
Q

_________ is a discipline of the laboratory sciences that has made great strides in techniques that allow for the rapid detection of many diseases as well as monitoring and screening processes. It is based on the biological principle of antigen/antibody interactions in the host.

A

Clinical serology (immunology)

137
Q

_________ is actually a sub - discipline in most laboratories. It involves laboratory testing and analysis of the clotting mechanisms of blood.

A

Coagulation

138
Q

Who pays for lab work?

A

Insurance pays 50 to 60%
Medicare/Medicaid
You, the customer

139
Q

Who tightly controls the pay out for lab work by the government?

A

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid service (CMS) formerly known as healthcare financing administration (HCFA)

140
Q

Licensure is required by who?

A

Government

141
Q

Certification is required by who?

A

Organization

142
Q

What is accreditation?

A

Approval of a place or a program

143
Q

What is CLIA 88?

A

Clinical laboratory improvement act of 1988.

Determines which tests are waived, moderate complexity, high complexity.

144
Q

What are the professional societies and organizations associated with the laboratory?

A

American society for clinical pathology (ASCP);

American society for clinical laboratory science (ASCLS)

145
Q

Who governs ASCP?

A

Pathologists

146
Q

Who governs ASCLS?

A

MLS professionals

147
Q

What is protected health information (PHI)?

A

It is patient information that is accessed on a “need to know” basis only

148
Q

What is OSHA?

A

The occupational safety and health act of 1970 or the occupational safety and health administration.

149
Q

What is MSDS?

A

Material safety data sheets

150
Q

In dark field microscopy, specimens appear:

A

Light against a dark background

151
Q

What is polarization?

A

Blocking light in a certain direction

152
Q

What is resolution?

A

The limit of usable magnification; tells how small and how close individual objects can be and still be recognized.

153
Q

What is numerical aperture?

A

Index or measurement of the resolving power of a microscope.

154
Q

What information is required on every specimen?

A

Patient name and unique identifier
Requisition/accession number
Date and time of collection
Initials of collector

155
Q

What are quality control ranges?

A

Allowable limits in which control’s value is acceptable and patient results can be reported

156
Q

What are the dos and don’tsof microscope care?

A

DO:
Always carry a microscope with both hands,
Clean the microscope before and after use,
Only use specified lens tissue or Kim wipes to clean the scope,
Only use microscope cleaner,
Remove plug at the base,
If microscope is not working tell supervisor or manager

DONT:
Use alcohol or disinfectant,
Drag it across the bench,
Unplug with the cord,
Touch the lens with your fingers,
Take apart

Intro To Lab Practices (1 decks)

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