UNIT 1 quiz questions Flashcards
A woman of childbearing age is trying to conceive and asks the nurse about the role of vaginal secretions in the conception and how long sperm can live int he female reproductive tract. Which of the following statements by the nurse is accurate?
A) Sperm can only live for a few minutes in vaginal secretions, making conception unlikely after intercourse.
B) Vaginal secretions become more acidic during ovulation, which helps prolong the life of sperm.
C) Sperm can survive up to 5 days in the female reproductive tract, making conception possible even if intercourse occurs several days before ovulation.
D) Vaginal secretions are not important for conception, as sperm can survive for several days in a warm dry environment.
C) Sperm can survive up to 5 days in the female reproductive tract, making conception possible even if intercourse occurs several days before ovulation.
A woman visits the clinic to inquire about her chances of conceiving. She asks the nurse when the best time is to have intercourse for conception. Which of the following is the nurse’s best response?
A) Ovulation typically occurs 10 to 14 days after the start of menstruation, and this is the best time for conception.
B) Conception is most likely to occur during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.
C) The best time to conceive is immediately before the onset of menstruation, when estrogen levels peak.
D) The best time for conception is 1-2 days after the start of menstruation when the uterus is most fertile.
A) Ovulation typically occurs 10 to 14 days after the start of menstruation, and this is the best time for conception.
A nurse is educating a pregnant woman about the stages of embryo development. Which of the following statements accurately describes the embryonic period of development?
A) The embryonic period occurs during the first 2 weeks after conception and is when the majority of the organ systems develop.
B) The embryonic period occurs between 2 and 8 weeks after conception, and it is when the foundation of all major organ systems is established.
C) The embryonic period occurs after 8 weeks of pregnancy and is characterized by the development of the placenta and the umbilical cord.
D) The embryonic period spans from the 9th week to the 12th week of pregnancy and is when fetal movement begins.
B) The embryonic period occurs between 2 and 8 weeks after conception, and it is when the foundation of all major organ systems is established.
A nurse is explaining the role of amniotic fluid during pregnancy to a pregnant woman. Which of the following is the primary function of amniotic fluid?
A) It helps the fetus develop its lungs and assists in the formation of the placenta.
B) It provides nutrients to the developing fetus and helps the fetus maintain normal body temperature.
C) It acts as a cushion to protect the fetus from trauma and helps facilitate fetal movement.
D) It prevents the fetus from receiving any infections by creating a sterile environment.
C) It acts as a cushion to protect the fetus from trauma and helps facilitate fetal movement.
A nurse is educating a pregnant woman about the structure and function of the umbilical cord. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the umbilical cord?
A) The umbilical cord provides a direct route for waste products to be eliminated from the fetus.
B) The umbilical cord is composed of three arteries, which carry both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to and from the fetus.
C) The umbilical cord contains two arteries and one vein, with the arteries carrying oxygenated blood to the fetus.
D) The umbilical cord contains two veins and one artery, with the veins carrying deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta.
C) The umbilical cord contains two arteries and one vein, with the arteries carrying oxygenated blood to the fetus.
A nurse is explaining the functions of the placenta to a nursing student. Which of the following statements accurately describes the function of the placenta?
A) The placenta provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus but does not allow the exchange of waste products.
B) A placenta acts as a barrier to prevent any harmful substances from reaching the fetus.
C) The placenta produces and secretes maternal and fetal blood, which is exchanged between the mother and fetus.
D) The placenta is responsible for the production of the fetal hormones, including estrogen and progesterone.
D) The placenta is responsible for the production of the fetal hormones, including estrogen and progesterone.
When the client describes to the nurse that she is having nausea, breast tenderness and back pain, the nurse knows that these are what type of symptoms?
A) Possible Symptoms of Pregnancy
B) Presumptive Symptoms of Pregnancy
C) Positive Symptoms of Pregnancy
D) Probable Symptoms of Pregnancy
B) Presumptive Symptoms of Pregnancy
A pregnant client is coming to the clinic with concerns for dark areas on her face. The nurse knows that hyperpigmentation of the face is normal in pregnancy and is due to a change in hormones. It will resolve after the baby is born. What condition is the nurse describing?
A) Linea Negra
B) Striae Gravidarum
C) PUPPS (Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy
D) Chloasma
D) Chloasma
The nurse knows the student understands the hormonal changes of pregnancy when she says which statement?
A) Prolactin allows the pelvis to open to assist in delivery.
B) Oxytocin inhibits ovulation.
C) Oxytocin allows the ejection of milk from the breasts.
D) Estrogen causes a progressive increase in basal metabolic rate.
C) Oxytocin allows the ejection of milk from the breasts.
The nurse knows the class of expectant mothers need more education when they make what statement regarding nutrition during pregnancy?
A) The mother should gain about 1 pound a week.
B) The mother will need to consume an extra 300 to 500 calories per day after the first trimester.
C) A healthy woman should gain a total of 25 to 35 lbs during her pregnancy.
D) A mother should gain 2 to 5 pounds in first trimester.
A) The mother should gain about 1 pound a week.
The staff nurse knows the student requires additional teaching when they say which statement regarding prenatal testing?
A) Group Beta Strep test should be done between 20 and 25 weeks gestation
B) A married client who is monogamous should have STD testing during the first trimester.
C) CBC, Rh, and ABO testing should be done at the initial visit.
D) A pelvic exam with PAP can be done at the initial visit if concerns for infection
A) Group Beta Strep test should be done between 20 and 25 weeks gestation
A nurse assess a pregnant client. She palpates the uterine fundus two finger breaths above the umbilicus. The nurse knows the client is likely about how many weeks pregnant?
A) 24 weeks
B) 17 weeks
C) 20 weeks
D) 27 weeks
A) 24 weeks
A nurse gets back the clients alpha fetal protein testing. The test is low. The nurse interprets this to mean the baby is at risk for which disorder?
A) Down’s Syndrome
B) Neural Tube Defect
C) Prader Willie Syndrome
D) Cerebral Palsy
A) Down’s Syndrome
The nurse knows that her client has a blood type A-. Due to this finding the mother will require a RhoGAM IM injection during what time frame?
A) 34 - 38 weeks gestation
B) 28 - 32 weeks gestation
C) 24 - 28 weeks gestation
D) 20 - 24 weeks gestation
C) 24 - 28 weeks gestation
A nurse is preparing a pregnant woman for a biophysical profile (BPP) to assess fetal well-being. Which of the following is not a component measured during the biophysical profile?
A) Fetal breathing movement
B) Amniotic fluid volume
C) Fetal heart rate reactivity
D) Fetal blood pressure
D) Fetal blood pressure
A nurse is educating a pregnant woman about the procedure of amniocentesis. Which of the following statements by the nurse is accurate regarding this procedure?
A) Amniocentesis involves the removal of a small amount of amniotic fluid to test for genetic disorders and fetal lung maturity.
B) Amniocentesis is a non-invasive procedure with no associated risks to the fetus or mother.
C) Amniocentesis is generally performed after 20 weeks of pregnancy and carries a high risk of miscarriage.
D) Amniocentesis is typically performed during the first trimester to diagnose fetal abnormalities.
A) Amniocentesis involves the removal of a small amount of amniotic fluid to test for genetic disorders and fetal lung maturity.
A nurse is performing a physical assessment on a pregnant woman and detects a sound that is synchronous with the maternal pulse. Which of the following findings is described by the nurse as a “uterine souffle”?
A) A high-pitched sound heard during fetal movement, suggesting fetal abnormalities.
B) Fetal blood pulsing through the umbilical cord, synchronous with fetal heartbeat.
C) A low-pitched sound heard during fetal heart auscultation, indicative of fetal distress.t!
D) A whooshing sound synchronized with the maternal heartbeat, caused by blood flow through the uterine arteries.
D) A whooshing sound synchronized with the maternal heartbeat, caused by blood flow through the uterine arteries.
A nurse is explaining the contraction stress test (CST) to a pregnant woman. Which of the following statements by the nurse is correct regarding the purpose and procedure of the CST?
A) The CST is performed to monitor the maternal blood pressure during labor.
B) The CST involves administering a non-invasive blood test to check for fetal genetic abnormalities.
C) The CST is used to assess the fetal heart rate response to contractions and determine fetal well-being under stress
D) The CST is only performed after the onset of labor to assess the need for a cesarean section.
C) The CST is used to assess the fetal heart rate response to contractions and determine fetal well-being under stress
A nurse is educating a pregnant woman about TORCH infections and their potential side effects on pregnancy. Which of the following infections is NOT part of the TORCH complex?
A) Cytomegalovirus
B) Toxoplasmosis
C) Rubella
D) Hepatitis B
D) Hepatitis B
A nurse is educating a pregnant woman about the potential risks of syphilis exposure during pregnancy. Which of the following statements accurately describes the potential effects of syphilis on a fetus when exposed in utero?
A) The risk of congenital syphilis is significantly reduced if the mother receives a syphilis screening in the second trimester.
B) Syphilis exposure in utero is usually not harmful unless the mother has active lesions during delivery.
C) Syphilis can cause congenital syphilis in the fetus, potentially leading to stillbirth, preterm labor, or developmental delays.
D) Syphilis exposure during pregnancy has no effect on the fetus if the mother is treated during the first trimester.
C) Syphilis can cause congenital syphilis in the fetus, potentially leading to stillbirth, preterm labor, or developmental delays.
A pregnant woman is diagnosed with chronic hypertension. She is in her second trimester and is being monitored closely for any complications. The nurse explains the differences between chronic hypertension and gestational hypertension. Which of the following statements made by the client indicates a need for further teaching about the conditions?
A) “Gestational hypertension may lead to preeclampsia, but chronic hypertension is less likely to cause this complication.”
B) “Chronic hypertension is present before pregnancy and may be managed with medications throughout the pregnancy.”
C) “Gestational hypertension typically occurs after 20 weeks of pregnancy and resolves after delivery.”
D) “Chronic hypertension is characterized by elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks of pregnancy, while gestational hypertension develops after 20 weeks.”
A) “Gestational hypertension may lead to preeclampsia, but chronic hypertension is less likely to cause this complication.”
A pregnant client who is 32 weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. The nurse knows that preeclampsia and eclampsia share some similar features. Which of the following is a key difference between preeclampsia and eclampsia?
A) Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, while eclampsia is diagnosed only after the onset of generalized seizures.
B) Eclampsia can be managed with antihypertensive medications, while preeclampsia does not require treatment.
C) Preeclampsia includes severe hypertension and proteinuria, whereas eclampsia is only associated with proteinuria and liver damage.
D) Both preeclampsia and eclampsia are marked by the onset of generalized seizures, but preeclampsia does not cause maternal mortality.
A) Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, while eclampsia is diagnosed only after the onset of generalized seizures.
A 25-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation is diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. She reports feeling fatigued, dizzy, and has difficulty performing daily activities. The healthcare provider prescribes iron supplementation and dietary changes. Which of the following client statements indicates the need for further teaching regarding the management of her anemia.
A) “I should avoid taking my iron supplement with dairy products or calcium-rich foods.”
B) “I will take my iron supplement with a glass of orange juice to help my body absorb the iron better.”
C) “I will take my iron supplement until my symptoms resolve.
D) “I plan to increase my intake of foods like spinach, beans, and lean meat to help with my anemia.”
C) “I will take my iron supplement until my symptoms resolve.
A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department at 8 weeks gestation with complaints of unilateral pelvic pain, light vaginal spotting, and dizziness. Her vital signs show a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, pulse of 110 beats per minute, and a temperature of 98.9°F (37.2°C). The healthcare provider suspects an ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?
A) Administer intravenous (IV) fluids to stabilize blood pressure and prevent shock.
B) Encourage the client to rest and wait for spontaneous resolution of the pregnancy.
C) Prepare the client for immediate dilation and curettage (D&C) to remove the ectopic pregnancy.
D) Perform a transvaginal ultrasound to confirm the location of the pregnancy.
A) Administer intravenous (IV) fluids to stabilize blood pressure and prevent shock.
A 24-year-old woman at 10 weeks gestation is diagnosed with gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD), specifically a molar pregnancy. She is experiencing vaginal bleeding, a larger-than-expected uterus for gestational age, and elevated hCG levels. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention for this client?
A) Prepare the client for dilation and curettage (D&C) to evacuate the molar tissue.
B) Provide emotional support and education on the possibility of future infertility.
C) Educate the client about the need for long-term monitoring of hCG levels after treatment.
D) Administer intravenous (IV) fluids to prevent dehydration due to excessive bleeding.
A) Prepare the client for dilation and curettage (D&C) to evacuate the molar tissue.
A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation is Rh-negative and her partner is Rh-positive. The nurse is reviewing the client’s lab results and history, and notes that her indirect Coombs test is negative. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
A) Educate the client about the need for serial ultrasounds to monitor for fetal hemolysis.
B) Administer Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM) to prevent Rh sensitization.
C) Document that the client requires no further interventions related to Rh incompatibility at this time.
D) Schedule the client for an amniocentesis to assess for fetal Rh incompatibility.
B) Administer Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM) to prevent Rh sensitization.
A 37-week-old infant is born to an O-positive mother and an A-positive father. The newborn is noted to have jaundice within 12 hours after birth, and laboratory results show a total bilirubin level of 14 mg/dL with indirect (unconjugated) bilirubin elevated. The healthcare provider suspects ABO incompatibility. Which of the following nursing actions is the priority for this infant?
A) Start phototherapy to help decrease the bilirubin level and prevent kernicterus.
B) Administer intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) to reduce bilirubin levels.
C) Prepare for an exchange transfusion to treat the severe hyperbilirubinemia.
D) Monitor the infant’s blood glucose levels closely to detect hypoglycemia
A) Start phototherapy to help decrease the bilirubin level and prevent kernicterus.
A 29-year-old woman at 34 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department with complaints of sudden-onset abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, and dark red vaginal bleeding. The nurse suspects placental abruption based on the clinical presentation. Which of the following interventions is the priority in the immediate care of this patient?
A) Prepare the patient for a cesarean section delivery to minimize the risk of fetal and maternal complications.
B) Administer an IV bolus of fluids to restore circulating volume and improve perfusion.
C) Administer magnesium sulfate to prevent seizures and reduce uterine contractions.
D) Perform a digital vaginal exam to assess for cervical dilation and the presence of the placenta.
A) Prepare the patient for a cesarean section delivery to minimize the risk of fetal and maternal complications.
A 26-year-old pregnant woman at 18 weeks gestation presents to the clinic with complaints of pelvic pressure and mild lower back pain. She reports no vaginal bleeding but is concerned because she previously experienced a second-trimester miscarriage. The healthcare provider suspects cervical insufficiency. Which of the following interventions is the most appropriate for this patient at this time?
A) Recommend strict bed rest and frequent monitoring of uterine contractions.
B) Schedule the patient for immediate induction of labor to prevent further complications.
C) Prepare the patient for cervical cerclage placement to prevent premature cervical dilation.
D) Administer progesterone injections to prevent preterm labor.
C) Prepare the patient for cervical cerclage placement to prevent premature cervical dilation.
A 30-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery unit with complaints of regular contractions every 10 minutes, low back pain, and increased pelvic pressure. She is diagnosed with preterm labor. The healthcare provider orders intravenous (IV) fluids, tocolytics, and corticosteroids. Which of the following nursing interventions should be prioritized in the management of this patient?
A) Educate the patient about the potential need for a cesarean delivery due to preterm labor.
B) Encourage the patient to walk around the room to facilitate labor progress and reduce back pain.
C) Administer antibiotics to prevent intrauterine infection in case of premature rupture of membranes.
D) Monitor the fetal heart rate and contractions continuously to assess for fetal well-being and uterine activity.
D) Monitor the fetal heart rate and contractions continuously to assess for fetal well-being and uterine activity.
A 32-year-old woman at 30 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery unit with symptoms of preterm labor, including regular contractions every 5 minutes and cervical dilation of 2 cm. The healthcare provider orders nifedipine, a tocolytic medication, to suppress contractions. Which of the following should the nurse prioritize when administering nifedipine to this patient?
A) Administer the medication with food to minimize gastrointestinal upset.
B) Monitor the patient for signs of tachycardia and hyperglycemia.
D) Instruct the patient to remain on strict bed rest for 48 hours following the administration.
C) Assess the blood pressure regularly due to the risk of hypotension.
C) Assess the blood pressure regularly due to the risk of hypotension.
A 29-year-old pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital with symptoms of preterm labor. The healthcare provider orders magnesium sulfate to suppress contractions. The nurse is preparing to administer the medication intravenously. Which of the following is the most important nursing intervention while the patient is receiving magnesium sulfate?
A) Administer oxygen if the patient experiences sudden chest pain or shortness of breath.
B) Monitor the patient’s respiratory rate closely, and be prepared to administer calcium gluconate if respiratory depression occurs.
C) Monitor the fetal heart rate for signs of decelerations, as magnesium sulfate can cause fetal bradycardia.
D) Encourage the patient to ambulate to promote circulation and reduce the risk of blood clots.
B) Monitor the patient’s respiratory rate closely, and be prepared to administer calcium gluconate if respiratory depression occurs.
A 34-year-old woman is receiving magnesium sulfateintravenously to manage preterm labor at 30 weeks gestation. The nurse notes the following signs and symptoms: absent deep tendon reflexes, a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute, and the patient reports feeling increasingly drowsy. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?
A) Administer intravenous fluids rapidly to dilute the magnesium sulfate and improve the patient’s symptoms.
B) Increase the magnesium sulfate infusion rate to prevent the medication from wearing off and reducing uterine contractions.
C) Discontinue the magnesium sulfate infusion and prepare to administer calcium gluconate as an antidote.
D) Continue magnesium sulfate infusion at the current rate, as these are expected side effects of the medication.
C) Discontinue the magnesium sulfate infusion and prepare to administer calcium gluconate as an antidote.
A 28-year-old woman at 32 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit with preterm labor. The healthcare provider orders terbutaline (Brethine), a beta-agonist, to manage uterine contractions. The nurse administers the first dose of terbutaline subcutaneously. Which of the following assessments is the highest priority during the administration of this medication?
A) Obtain a urine sample to assess for proteinuria as a sign of preeclampsia.
B) Encourage the patient to rest and remain in a left lateral position to improve uterine blood flow.
C) Monitor the fetal heart rate for signs of fetal distress or tachycardia.
D) Assess the maternal heart rate and blood pressure for signs of tachycardia or hypotension.
D) Assess the maternal heart rate and blood pressure for signs of tachycardia or hypotension.
A 26-year-old pregnant woman at 34 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery unit with reports of a sudden gush of fluid from her vagina. The nurse suspects premature rupture of membranes (PROM). Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention for this patient at this time?
A) Perform a sterile vaginal exam to assess for cervical dilation and check for fetal presentation.
B) Encourage the patient to ambulate to help stimulate labor and prevent infection.
C) Prepare the patient for an immediate cesarean section due to the risk of infection and fetal distress.
D) Administer betamethasone to promote fetal lung maturity, as preterm delivery is anticipated.
D) Administer betamethasone to promote fetal lung maturity, as preterm delivery is anticipated.
A 28-year-old woman at 37 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for induction of labor. Her prenatal records show that she is Group B Streptococcus (GBS) positive and allergic to penicillin drugs. The nurse is preparing to administer IV antibiotics to prevent neonatal GBS infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize when administering antibiotics to this patient?
A) Administer penicillin G intravenously once the patient’s labor is well established and contractions are 5 minutes apart.
B) Provide intramuscular ceftriaxone if the patient presents with a history of an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin and does not have an allergy to cephalosporins.
C) Ensure that vancomycin is used in a mother who reports a penicillin allergy and clindamycin susceptibility is unknown.
D) Delay antibiotic administration until rupture of membranes occurs, as this increases the effectiveness of the medication.
C) Ensure that vancomycin is used in a mother who reports a penicillin allergy and clindamycin susceptibility is unknown.
