Unit 1 Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

Prior to undergoing diagnostic testing with contrast, it is recommended that older adult clients have their creatinine level checked. The rationale for this is to ensure the client:

a) dose not have a kidney stone obstructing the urethra

b) will not undergo an acute kidney injury by decreasing renal blood flow

c) is in good enough health to withstand walking on a treadmill

d) is not allergic to shellfish or iodine

A

b) will not undergo an acute kidney injury by decreasing renal blood flow

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2
Q

If a client with a kidney stone has the “classic” ureteral colic, the client will describe his pain as: Select all that apply.

a) excruciating

b) in the flank and upper outer quadrant of the abdomen

c) acute, intermittent

d) diffuse over the entire lower back and legs

A

A, B, C

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3
Q

Following the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome, the nurse knows the clinical manifestations occur as a result of a decreased plasma colloidal osmotic pressure. Therefore, the nurse should assess the client for: Select all that apply.

a) kidneys palpable to deep palpation

b) liver enlargement

c) increased circumference in the abdomen related to fluid excess

d) moist crackles in both lung fields

e) areas of diminished breath sounds due to pleural effusions

A

C, D, E

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4
Q

When acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is suspected, the nurse will likely see which of the following laboratory findings on the urinalysis report? Select all that apply.

a) glucose

b) cast cells

c) protein

d) red blood cells

e) sodium excess

A

B, C, D

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5
Q

The primary care provider for a newly admitted hospital client has added the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) to the blood work scheduled for this morning. The client’s GFR results return as 50 mL/minute/1.73 m2. The nurse explains to the client that this result represents:
Question options:

a) The kidneys are functioning normally

b) A need to increase water intake

c) A loss of over half the client’s normal kidney function

d) Concentrated urine

A

C

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6
Q

Which of the following individuals likely faces the greatest risk for the development of chronic kidney disease?

a) a client whose diagnosis of thyroid cancer necessitated a thyroidectomy

b) a client who experiences a hemorrhagic stroke and now has sensory and motor deficits

c) a first-time mother who recently lost 1.5 L of blood during postpartum hemorrhage

d) a client with a recent diagnosis of type 2 diabetes who does not monitor his blood sugars or control his diet

A

D

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7
Q

If a CKD client is developing uremic encephalopathy, the earliest manifestations may include: Select all that apply.

a) diminished awareness

b) decreased alertness

c) delirium and hallucinations

d) new-onset seizures

A

A, B

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8
Q

The body compensates for obstructed urine outflow up to a certain point. Which of the following signs/symptoms lead the nurse to suspect decompensatory changes are occurring? Select all that apply.

a) must strain to initiate the stream of urine

b) urinary frequency noted

c) high residual volume up to 1000 ml

d) post void residual volume less than 50 ml

e) reports of renal colic

A

A, B, C

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9
Q

A bladder cancer client asks the nurse, “What did the doctor mean by intravesicular chemotherapy? Am I going to lose all my hair and have to do for treatments over months and months?” The best response would be:

a) “they will take you to radiology and inject some chemotherapy through your abdomen into
your bladder”

b) this is when they put the chemotherapy directly into the bladder to kill any cancer cells”

c) this when they use a CyberKnife to cut off any lesions and then inject chemotherapy into the remaining portion of the bladder”

d) “the doctor will place a scope up your urethra, into your bladder, and burn the lining of the bladder with a laser and then inject some tuberculosis bacillus into the lining”

A

B

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10
Q

The nurse is scheduled to teach a client experiencing urinary incontinence about Kegel exercises. Which of the following descriptors should the nurse include in this education?

a) “drink at least two glasses of water and then try to hold it for at least 3 hours before going to the bathroom”

b) “after you have emptied your bladder, continue sitting on the commode and try to forcefully expel more urine”

c) “try to start and stop urination while sitting in a bathtub full of warm soapy water”

d) “contract and relax the pelvic floor muscles at least 10 times every hours while awake”

A

D

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11
Q

A patient has been prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and the nurse is preparing to give the patient discharge instructions. Which adverse effects may this patient experience while taking this medication? (Select all that apply.)

a) constipation

b) muscle cramps

c) nocturia

d) dizziness

e) polyphagia

A

B, C, D

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12
Q

A patient who was recently prescribed spironolactone calls the clinic and complains that he is not urinating as much as he did when he first started taking this medication. What would be an appropriate question for the nurse to ask this patient?

a) “are you taking acetaminophen?”

b) “are you taking a salicylate?”

c) are you taking ibuprofen?”

d) are you using a lot of salt?”

A

B

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13
Q

A patient has just begun to take a prescribed diuretic. Why would the nurse tell the patient to drink 8 to 10 glasses of water daily (unless it is contraindicated)?

a) to decrease the action of the renin-angiotensin cycle

b) to avoid rebound edema

c) to make more concentrated plasma

d) to dilute the urine

A

B

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14
Q

A nursing instructor is teaching a group of students about loop diuretics. Which would be included in this classification? (Select all that apply.)

a) torsemide

b) ethacrynic acid

c) mannitol

d) acetazolamide

e) bumetanide

A

A, B, E

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15
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just been diagnosed with essential hypertension. The nurse is aware that the health care provider will begin therapy with which classification of diuretics?

a) carbonic anhydrous inhibitors

b) loop diuretics

c) potassium-sparing diuretics

d) thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics

A

D

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16
Q

A small group of nursing students are giving an oral presentation to their classmates about urinary tract infections (UTIs). What is a measure that can be used to encourage patients to use to reduce the risk of recurrent urinary tract infections?

a) use sterile gauze pads to cleanse after urinating

b) increase alkaline foods in your diet

c) drink 2,000 to 3,000 ml of fluid daily

d) take tub baths, soaking 15 minutes daily

A

C

17
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a urinary anti-infective. What would the nurse need to assess this patient for?

a) flank pain

b) signs and symptoms of continuing urinary tract infection (UTI)

c) jaundice

d) discolored urine

A

B

18
Q

Urinary anti-infectives are used only to treat urinary tract infections (UTIs). What causes urinary anti-infectives to be so effective in treating UTIs?

a) they sterilize feces

b) they reach high plasma levels in short period of time

c) they act specifically within the urinary tract

d) they are excreted through the liver

A

C

19
Q

A 72-year-old man is being treated with doxazosin (Cardura) for his BPH. What nursing diagnosis would be important to include in this patient’s plan of care?

a) sexual dysfunction

b) risk of impaired urinary elimination

c) chronic pain

d) disturbed sensory perception

A

A

20
Q

What is the drug of choice in a patient with renal impairment who is being treated for a urinary tract infection (UTI)?

a) declomycin

b) fosfomycin

c) salazopyrin

d) silver sulfadiazine

A

B

21
Q

A client is on a 1500-mL fluid restriction for 24 hours. At 3 PM, the client consumed 2/3 of the fluid allowance for 24 hours. What are the maximum milliliters of fluid remaining that the client can consume during the evening shift?

a) 500

b) 550

c) 400

d) 450

A

A

22
Q

A client was prescribed 240 mL of Ensure by mouth as a supplement but consumed only 100 mL. What portion of the Ensure remained?

a) 5/12

b) 240/240

c) 100/240

d) 7/12

A

D

23
Q

A client is on a 1200-mL fluid restriction for 24 hours. At breakfast and lunch, the client consumed 3/5 of the fluid allowance. How many milliliters were consumed?

a) 720

b) 280

c) 360

d) 540

A

A

24
Q

A client consumed 2 1/4 oz of coffee, 2/3 oz of ice cream, and 1 1/2 oz of beef broth. What is the total number of ounces consumed that should be documented for the client?

a) 3 3/4

b) 4 5/12

c) 4 4/9

d) 4 2/3

A

B

25
Q

A client was instructed to drink 25 oz of water within 2 hours but was able to drink only 15 oz. What portion of the water remained?

a) 3/5

b) 2/5

c) 25/25

d) 2/25

A

B