Unit 1: Pre-Trial Principles Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three classes of offence?

A

indictable, summary, and triable either way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

where can you find the definitions of the three classes of offences?

A

Interpretation Act 1978, sch. 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what should be noted about the phrase ‘indictable offence’ within Acts?

A

indictable offence should be understood to include those triable either way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the function of s. 40 CJA 1988?

A

s. 40 CJA 1988 enables some summary offences to appear on indictment where linked to an indictable offence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What offences fall under s. 40 CJA 1988?

A

common assault, taking a motor vehicle without consent, disqualified driving, criminal damage less than £5k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the two roots of offences triable either way?

A

Offences triable either way must either be listed in MCA 1980 sch 1 OR where there are two penalties for the offence given on enactment for either summary or indictable convictions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Are attempts, aiding and abetting etc triable either way?

A

Per CAA 1981 s. 4(1)(c), these offences are triable either way only if the substantive offence is too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Summarise the characteristics of the crown court.

A

Crown Court created by Courts Act 1971 and is a single court - you can be tried in any branch of it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In what ways are the crown court and high court similar?

A

both are senior courts and superior courts of record and have contempt and enforcement powers (Senior Courts Act 1981, s. 45)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is a crown court different from a high court?

A

crown court decisions not related to trials on indictment may be challenged in the high court (ss. 28(2) and 29(3) 1981 Act)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two stratifications of crown courts?

A

geographical location and status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain the function of geographical location regarding crown courts

A

1st tier - high court judges sit, 3rd tier - high court judges rarely sit. The more severe the crime the more likely to be sent to 1st tier.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does a senior judge in a crown court do?

A

The senior judge / resident judge, is responsible for distribution of work and court administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Senior Courts Act 1981 s. 8

A

high court, district, circuit judges, recorders and qualifying judge advocates may all exercise jurisdiction of the crown court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the exceptions to crown court proceedings being heard by a single judge?

A

s. 73(1) SCA 1981 where justices may sit with a judge ; where magistrates courts deal with pre-trial matters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do crown court decisions work when a judge sits with justices?

A

decisions must be by majority. The judge can be outvoted, but where opinion is split retains the deciding vote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are interlocutory decisions?

A

Interlocutory decisions are decisions about the admissibility of evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What should a crown court judge sat with justices ensure?

A

That he consults and announces that he has consulted his fellow justices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

SCA 1981, s. 46(1)

A

Crown Court has exclusive jurisdiction over trials on indictment WHEREVER (s.46(2)) they are committed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MCA 1980, s. 108

A

Someone who pleaded not guilty and was convicted by a magistrates court may appeal to the crown court against conviction and or sentence. Someone who pleaded guilty may only appeal against sentence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are 4 circumstances where Crown Court may grant bail before or during trial on indictment?

A

Where someone is in custody for trial or sentencing, where someone is appealing bail from magistrates, where someone is appealing to court of appeal, where someone has been remanded by magistrates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What summary offences does the crown court have jurisdiction over per CJA 1988, s.40?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What provision confers district judge powers upon crown court judges?

A

Courts Act 2003, s.66. So if a summary offence is linked to an indictable offence it needn’t be returned to mags to be dealt with.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Who sits in a magistrates court?

A

Justices of the Peace (magistrates); district judges.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What statutes contain the law on justices and magistrates courts?

A

Courts Act 2003 (appointments, removal, organisation); MCA 1980 (jurisdiction and powers). also CrimPR procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

MCA 1980, s. 148(1)

A

the expression “magistrates’ court” means any justice or justices of the peace acting under any enactment or by virtue of his or their commission or under the common law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

MCA 1980, s. 148(2)

A

where proceedings in magistrates courts have distinct stages, each stage need not constitute the same justices - must only be in the same local justice area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

MCA 1980, s. 2(1)

A

magistrates courts have jurisdiction to try any summary and some either way offences irrespective of where it is committed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When can a magistrates try either way offences by adults?

A

if the offence is not so serious that their powers of punishment upon conviction would be inadequate, and if the accused agrees. (MCA 1980, ss. 18-21).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the maximum punishment a magistrates court can give? (MCA 1980, s. 32(1)).

A

the court may impose anything up to 12 months imprisonment and/or an unlimited fine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What can a magistrates court do with either way convictions?

A

SA 2020, s.14: offender may be committed to the crown court if magistrates consider their punishment powers after conviction to be inadequate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are a magistrates powers regarding indictable offences?

A

magistrates may send the accused of an either way or indictable offence to the crown court regardless of where the offence was committed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

MCA 1980, s.24

A

defines a youth court as a ‘form of magistrates’ that can try children and young people of any offence except homicide and some firearms. though the court may choose to send the accused to a crown court.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What manages most appeals against conviction and sentence?

A

The Court of Appeal (Criminal Division) using statutory powers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What provision enables the exercise of statutory powers of appeal by the court of appeal?

A

Senior Courts Act 1981, s. 15(2).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What power does ss. 1-2 Criminal Appeal Act 1968 confer on the court of appeal?

A

ss.1-2 CAA 1968 grants jurisdiction to determine appeals against conviction on indictment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What power does ss 9 and 11 Criminal Appeal Act 1968 confer on the court of appeal?

A

ss 9 and 11 CAA 1968 grants jurisdiction to determine appeals against sentence passed following conviction on indictment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What power does ss 10-11 Criminal Appeal Act 1968 confer on the court of appeal?

A

ss 10-11 CAA 1968 grants jurisdiction to determine appeals against sentence passed on a committal for sentence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What power does s. 36 Criminal Justice Act 1972 confer on the court of appeal?

A

s. 36 CJA 1972 grants jurisdiction to give an opinion on a point of law referred to the court by the A-G following an acquittal on on indictment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What power does s. 9(11)-(14) Criminal Justice Act 1987 confer on the court of appeal?

A

s.9(11)-(14) CJA 1987 grants jurisdiction to determine appeals against rulings made at preparatory hearings in serious fraud cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What power does ss 35-36 Criminal Justice Act 1988 confer on the court of appeal?

A

ss 35-36 CJA 1988 grants jurisdiction to increase sentence on a reference by the A-G following an unduly lenient sentence for an offence triable only on indictment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What power does s. 9 Criminal Appeal Act 1995 confer on the court of appeal?

A

s. 9 CAA 1995 grants jurisdiction to determine appeals on a reference by the CCRC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does the court of appeal not have jurisdiction to hear?

A

The court of appeal does not have jurisdiction to hear an appeal against refusal to make a football banning order (Boggild [2011]).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the function of ss. 33-34 Criminal Appeal Act 1968?

A

ss. 33-34 CAA 1968 allows prosecution or defence to appeal CoA decisions to Supreme Court ONLY if CoA or UKSC consider the case to involve a point of law of general public importance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What must an appeal to UKSC from CoA contain in order to be accepted?

A

Must be considered to concern a point of law of general public importance by UKSC or CoA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the time limit for appealing a CoA decision?

A

leave to appeal to UKSC must be made no more than 28 days after the CoA decision or on the date CoA gives reasons for its decisions, whichever is later. Time begins on the day OF decision. Not day after.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Where can you find the procedural rules for making an application to CoA for leave to appeal to UKSC?

A

CrimPR Part 43.W

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the procedure for making application for leave to appeal to UKSC?

A

Form SC must be served on the registrar and all the parties. UKSC has no representation order powers and so these applications should be made to CoA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the rules on CoA deciding if an appeal to UKSC concerns a point of law of general public importance.

A

CoA may decide so on papers alone (Daines [1961]); refusal to hear oral submissions doesn’t violate HR (Steele [2006]; Dunn [2010]).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the impact of the judgment in Garwood [2017]?

A

CoA decided that under CAA 1968 provides for UKSC appeals from appellants only, not applicants. If an application for leave is refused by CoA, they never become appellants and CoA does not need to consider whether there’s an important point of law considered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is meant by CoA certifying a question?

A

CoA certifying a question means that the court considers there to be a point of law of general public importance, but not yet whether there should be an appeal granted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What can be done if CoA certifies a question but refuses leave to UKSC?

A

the party may apply for leave to UKSC within 28 days of the day on which CoA gives reasons for its refusal of leave.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What can UKSC do if CoA decides only some grounds of appeal?

A

If UKSC hears appeal of the CoA decision on one ground, they may rule on the other grounds themselves or remit them back to CoA for a decision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What did Mandair [1995] establish about undecided grounds of appeal going to UKSC?

A

undecided grounds of appeal should be identified and written submissions should be made as to whether and how they should be disposed of.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the primary source of public funding?

A

LASPO 2012 and the standard crime contract 2022 issued by the Legal Aid Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What do the LASPO 2012 provisions apply to?

A

LASPO provides for any advice and assistance; advocacy assistance or representation orders dated on or after 1 April 2013.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the general rule with legal aid for criminal cases?

A

Granting legal aid is almost always authorised by LAA and applications should be made electronically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

s. 17 LASPO 2012?

A

s 17 LASPO 2012 provides for the determination of applications for a representation order in a magistrates or crown court.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Who determines representation order applications at crown court?

A

save for exceptional circumstances, at the crown court the LAA makes decisions on representation orders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are magistrates powers regarding representation orders?

A

Magistrates have no power to grant representation unless considering an appeal against the refusal of representation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the procedure for applying for a representation order?

A

Apply for a RO on the LAA portal using form CRM14 which incorporates the means questions of CRM15 along with any evidence required.This must be sent along with a signed declaration form from the client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What governs Crown Court powers to grant representation orders?

A

Criminal Legal Aid (Determinations by a Court and Choice of Representative) Regulations 2013

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

When may a Crown Court grant RO?

A

On oral application under Criminal Legal Aid Regulation 6.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the three circumstances where an RO at crown court may be granted under Regulation 6?

A

ROs can be granted in proceedings described in LASPO 2012, s.14 (g), proceedings which arise out of failure to comply with a Crown Court order, proceedings under SCA 1981, s. 81

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

LASPO 2012, s.14(g)

A

proceedings regarding contempt in the face of court that the court may grant a RO at.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Senior Courts Act 1981, s. 81?

A

proceedings in pursuance of a Crown Court warrant where the court may grant a RO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the rules for Crown Court granting ROs?

A

There are no means tests for the granting permitted under regulation 6. All ROs outside of Reg.6 are invalid (Criminal Legal Aid (General) Regulations 2013, reg. 3).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Criminal Legal Aid (General) Regulations 2013, reg. 3?

A

All ROs granted by the Crown Court that do not meet the requirements listed in regulation 6 are invalid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are a Crown Court’s powers regarding RO appeals?

A

The Crown Court may consider appeals against refusal of ROs in situations where the interest of justice merits test is not automatically met.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the two stage test for determining whether to grant a RO?

A

a merits test ‘according to the interests of justice’ and a means test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What does LASPO 2012 stand for?

A

Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Where is the merits ‘according to the interests of justice’ test for ROs explained?

A

LASPO 2012, s. 17(2)(a-e).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

LASPO 2012 s. 17(2)(a)

A

interests of justice must take into account whether the individual would be likely to lose liberty, livelihood or suffer serious damage to reputation upon conviction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

LASPO 2012, s. 17(2)(b)

A

interests of justice test for ROs should consider whether a substantial question of law is involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

LASPO 2012, s. 17(2)(c)

A

interests of justice test for ROs should consider whether the individual may be unable to understand proceedings or state their own case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

LASPO 2012, s. 17(2)(d)

A

interests of justice test for ROs should consider whether proceedings will involve tracing, interviewing or expert cross-examination of witnesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

LASPO 2012, s. 17(2)(e)

A

interests of justice tests for ROs should consider whether it is in the interests of another person that the individual be represented.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When is the interests of justice limb of the RO allocation test automatically met?

A

interests of justice are satisfied on indictment or following committal for sentence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What can be said about the possible loss of liberty in influencing RO decisions?

A

it is not enough that the offence carries a custodial sentence. The question is whether on the facts, a custodial sentence is likely to be imposed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What was established regarding ROs in ex parte McGhee [1993]?

A

unpaid work requirements do not deprive liberty. However, the list of considerations for the interests of justice in s.17 LASPO is non exhaustive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What was established in ARE (Punatar) v Horesferry Road Mags Court [2002]?

A

It is wrong to apply applications for ROs in hindsight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What circumstances outside s. 17 can mean it is in the interests of justice to grant an RO?

A

Where a witness requires special measures that would be outside D’s competence and resources (GKR Law Solicitors v Liverpool Mags [2008])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the overriding objective?

A

per CPR 1.1(1) the overriding objective of this procedural code is that criminal cases be dealt with justly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Where can you find an expansion on what dealing with a case justly entails?

A

The overriding objective is explained further in CrimPR 1.1(2)(a-h).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

CrimPR 1.2?

A

each participant in each case must prepare and conduct the case in accordance with the overriding objective and notify the court of any failure to do so.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

CrimPR 1.3?

A

The court must further the overriding objective when applying or interpreting any power, practice direction or rule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What does CrimPR Part 3 concern?

A

Rules 3.1 to 3.15 apply to the management of all cases up to Crown Court in appellate capacity. Within better case management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

CrimPR 3.2(1) (3)?

A

The court must further the overriding objective by ‘actively managing the case’ and do so by giving any direction appropriate as early as possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What can be said about active case management?

A

Per Jisl [2004], active case management pre- and during trial is an essential part of the judge’s duty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Where can you find a list of elements of active case management?

A

Rule 3.2(2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What does Rule 3.2(2) list as active case management?

A

monitoring the rogresss of the case and compliance with directions, discouraging delay, promoting co-operation, avoiding unnecessary hearings, ensuring evidence is presented in the shortest and clearest way.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What sets out the court’s case management powers?

A

CrimPR 3.5,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What does CrimPR 3.13 identify?

A

CrimPR 3.13 identifies powers to manage the trial or appeal itself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What was held in B [2005] about case management?

A

a judge can exercise case management powers ti limit cross-examination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What was held in Heppenstall [2007]?

A

entitlement to a fair trial is not inconsistent with proper judicial control over the use of court time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What was held in Bryant [2005]?

A

the court will support efforts by the trial judge to move a case forward at reasonable speed maintaining a fair trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What was held in K [2006]?

A

case management powers in CrimPR enable a judge to deal with issues pre-trial by written submission with power to restrict their length.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What was held in Boardman [2015]?

A

The judge’s case management powers can justify exclusion of late-served prosecution evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What must temper active case management?

A

active case management must always be secondary to the imperatives of justice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the extent of a court’s power to actively case manage?

A

courts may give any direction and take any step to active management unless inconsistent with legislation including the CrimPR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

CrimPR 3.8?

A

The court is obligated to give directions for the early conclusion of a case and failitate attendance of witnesses and the participation of all parties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what is an increasingly important aspect of case management?

A

the court should further the overriding objective by making use of technology by way of live links.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What does CrimPR 3.3 impose?

A

CrimPR 3.3 imposes a duty upon the parties to assist the court in active management which includes early identification of the real issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What does CrimPR 3.4 require?

A

CrimPR 3.4 requires each of the parties and the court to appoint a case progression officer at the commencement of proceedings and ensure all participants know how to contact them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the responsibilities of a case progression officer?

A

A case progression officer ensures parties’ compliance with court directions and alerts other parties to anything that may interfere with the progress of the case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What does CrimPD I, para 3A.24 state?

A

case progression should be managed without a hearing in the courtroom using electronic communication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Where are the forms for case management laid out?

A

CrimPD annex D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is form PET?

A

PET is the Preparation for Effective Trial form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

When is PET form used?

A

For cases that are contested and are to proceed to the magistrates court.Wha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the BCM form?

A

Better case management form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

When is the BCM form used?

A

BCM forms are completed upon the sending of a case to the crown court.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the PTPH form?

A

The PTPH is the Pre Trial Preparation Hearing form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

When is a PTPH used?

A

PTPH is completed at the first hearing at the crown court.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is the purpose of the PET, BCM, and PTPH?

A

These forms are intended to plan further stages of the case, standardise case preparation, and minimise the need for further hearings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Musone [2007]?

A

It is rare for a judge to exclude evidence simply due to non-compliance with time limits, but it is proper to do so where the exclusion is the only means of ensuring fairness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

CrimPR 1.2(1)(c)

A

participants are expected tp notify the court and all parties at once of any significant failure of compliance by themselves or others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

THEN YOU’VE GOT NO FLASHCARDS ON THE SEPARATE ACTUAL WORDING OF CRIM PRs.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is the purpose of PACE 1984 and PACE codes of practice?

A

governs police powers of investigation, arrest, detention, interrogation, entry and search of premises and people, taking of samples and various identification procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

PACE 1984, s. 67(10)

A

Failure by a police officer (or similarly bound person) to comply with PACE codes does not automatically render them liable to criminal or civil proceedings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

PACE 1984, s. 67(11)

A

PACE codes are admissible in evidence in criminal or civil proceedings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Where can you find the definition of ‘interview’

A

PACE Code C, para. 11.1A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

PACE Code C, para. 11.1A?

A

An interview is defined as the ‘questioning of a person regarding their involvement or suspected involvement in a criminal offence or offences which, under para. 10.1, must be carried out under caution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

PACE Code C para 10.1?

A

A person whom there are grounds to suspect of an offence ‘must be cautioned before any questions about an offence, or further questions if the answers provide the grounds for suspicion, are put to them if either the suspect’s answers or their silence may be given in evidence to a court in a prosecution’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are the four circumstances in which a caution is not necessary before questioning a suspect?

A

No caution is needed to identify of a vehicle, to obtain information in accordance with a statutory requirement, in furtherance of a proper and effective conduct of a search, or to seek verification of a written record.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What cannot amount to an interview?

A

Questioning of a person in circumstances where a caution does not have to be administered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is important to note about police cautions?

A

A caution must be given if the person is being questioned about an offence other than what they have been arrested for if there are grounds to suspect them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Where can you find the general rules for the conduct of interviews?

A

Code C section 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Code C para. 11.1?

A

Following decision to arrest, a suspect must normally be interviewed only at a police station or other authorised place of detention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is meant by decision to arrest?

A

If an officer has decided to arrest someone, the arrest should not be delayed to question the suspect first.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What are the three exceptions to the requirement of interviews being conducted at the station?

A

Where it would lead to interference or harm of evidence, people or damage to property; where it could alert other suspects; where it could hinder recovery of property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

In exceptional circumstances, for how long may interviews last?

A

For the Code C para. 11.1 circumstances, the interview must cease as soon as the relevant risk has been averted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

PACE 1984, s. 39 as amended PCA 2017, s. 75?

A

Those in police detention may be interviewed by an officer not at the police station using live link. Such an officer is still bound by PACE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

When must a caution be issued?

A

A caution must be given upon arrest, at the commencement of any interview or recommencement, and where there is any doubt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Code C, para. 10.7?

A

Minor deviation from the words of the caution in para. 10.5 is okay so long as the sense of the caution is preserved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

How is a person whom there are grounds to suspect of an offence defined?

A

Note for Guidance 10A defines this as ‘some reasonable objective grounds for the suspicion based on known facts or information’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Williams (Michael) [2012]?

A

Whether there are sufficient grounds for a caution to be administered is an objective question, not based on the police officer’s opinion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What must a suspect be provided with at interview?

A

A suspect and their solicitor must be given information to sufficiently understand the nature of the suspected offence. (Code C para. 11.1A).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What are the two circumstances in which a suspect must be given a special warning following arrest?

A

A suspect should get a special warning if asked to account for any object, mark or substance on them or at the scene, and when asked to account for their presence at the scene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What must the interviewing officer always remind the suspect?

A

Upon commencement and recommencement the IO must remind the suspect that they are entitled to free legal advice and that the interview may be delayed to obtain some.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Code C, para. 11.4?

A

At the beginning of an interview the IO must, after caution, put any significant statement or silence heard by police staff to the suspect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Define ‘significant statement’

A

A significant statement is one which appears to be capable of being used in evidence, and in particular a direct admission of guilt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is NOT a significant statement that police must immediately raise in interview?

A

Anything a suspect is alleged to have said as part of the conduct constituting the offence is not a significant statement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Define ‘significant silence’

A

A significant silence is a failure or refusal to answer a question or answer satisfactorily when under caution which may give rise to inferences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Code C para. 11.5?

A

No officer may use oppression nor indicate how the police will act unless directly responding to a question from the suspect about what would happen next.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Imran and Hussain [1997]?

A

There is a positive duty on the police not to actively mislead a suspect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Emmerson (1991)?

A

Rude and loud questioning by police is not oppressive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Stringer [2008]?

A

Asking hypothetical questions in police interview is not oppressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Paris (1993)?

A

Police questioning continuing after repeated denials or refusals may become oppressive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Beales [1991]?

A

Hectoring and bullying during an interview is oppressive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

When must a police interview cease?

A

When all questions the officer considers relevant to obtaining accurate and reliable information about the offence have been put to the suspect, other evidence has been accounted for, and there is a reasonable prospect of conviction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Code C, para. 11.6?

A

Gives police latitude in determining when interviewing should cease. They may continue after sufficient evidence has been adduced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

PACE 1984, s. 37(7)?

A

Once the custody officer determines that there is sufficient evidence to charge a person they must do so, which usually precludes further interviewing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Code C, para. 11.7?

A

Interviews of suspects wherever taken must be contemporaneously recorded. As must any unsolicited comment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Code C, para. 11.13?

A

Suspects must, where appropriate, be given an opportunity to verify the record of their interview + comments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What are the consequences of not recording interviews?

A

Not recording interviews can (Canale [1990]) but not always (Waters [1989]) lead to the exclusion of evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Code E, para. 2.1?

A

Interviews must normally be recorded using an authorised recording device.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Code C, para. 11.18?

A

A special category person may not be interviewed or asked to sign in absence of an appropriate adult unless one of two exceptions are met.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What are the two exceptions to the interview of special category persons without appropriate adults?

A

Special category persons may be interviewed alone where the rules for emergency on-site interviews applies or where a Superintendent or above authorises it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What is a Special Category Person?

A

A child or young person, or mentally disordered or vulnerable person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Code C, para. 11.17?

A

An appropriate adult for a special category person must be reminded of their functions as an adviser and observer as well as that of facilitating communication with the interviewee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Re A Ward of Court [2017]?

A

Judicial consent is not required before the police interview a ward of court.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Code C para. 11.18?

A

A person whom the custody officer has deemed requires an interpreter mustn’t be interviewed without one unless delay will lead to consequences and there is no risk of mental or physical harm from the interview.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Code C, paras. 13.1ZA and 13.12?

A

While interpreters must normally be present, they can attend via live link where it will not undermine or limit the suspects ability to communicate confidently and effectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Code C, para. 11.18. [intoxicated persons]?

A

A person who is unable to appreciate the significance of questions and their answers or to understand what is happening cannot be interviewed unless authorised by a superintendent or above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

How is ECHR Article 5(1)(c) incorporated into police powers?

A

Police must almost always have reasonable grounds for suspicion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What is ECHR Art. 5(1)(c)?

A

A person may be deprived of liberty on reasonable suspicion of having committed an offence or when it is reasonable considered necessary to prevent his committing an offence or fleeing after having done so.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What is the difference between the ECHR reasonability test for police powers vs the domestic law test?

A

The ECHR test is one of reasonable suspicion, the UK PACE test is one of reasonable grounds of believing which is a more stringent test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Where can you find an explanation of reasonable suspicion?

A

There is no blanket description. But it is explained in relation to stop and search powers - Code A paras. 2.2-2.6B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Code A, para 2.2?

A

Reasonable suspicion [stop and search] requires both a genuine suspicion by the officer concerned and an objective basis for the suspicion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Code G, para. 2.3A?

A

Reasonable suspicion [arrest] requires reasonable, objective grounds based on known facts and information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What is the court’s interpretation of reasonable suspicion?

A

Case law has held that the constable carrying out the arrest actually suspects (subjective) and that a reasonable person in possession of the same facts would also suspect (objective).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Roberts v Chief Constable of Kent [2008]?

A

The fact that force has been used does not necessarily make it unreasonable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Simpson v Chief Constable of South Yorkshire Police (1991)?

A

The use of excessive force does not render an arrest unlawful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Lockley (1864)?

A

Handcuffs should only be used where they are reasonably necessary to prevent an escape or to prevent a violent breach of the peace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Taylor (1895)?

A

Where handcuffs are unjustifiably used it is a trespass against the person even if the arrest itself is lawful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What is the definition of arrest?

A

there is no statutory definition of ‘arrest’. It is an ordinary english word meaning simply to be deprived of liberty to go where you please.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What should be noted about the legal notion of arrest?

A

While arrest is an ordinary english word, the courts have held that contextual factors should be taken into account.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Iqbal [2011]?

A

A person who has been handcuffed and told they would be arrested later by others is not under arrest.

179
Q

What condition must the reason for arrest meet?

A

An officer must at the very least perceive a possibility of a charge being made. Though a charge following an arrest is not necessary.

180
Q

Who has the burden of proof for proving un/lawful arrest?

A

The police must prove that an arrest is lawful

181
Q

Who has the burden of proof for dis/proving excessive force?

A

The complainant must prove that a lawful arrest used excessive force.

182
Q

PACE 1984, s.117 and CLA 1967, s.3?

A

Reasonable force may be used to effect an arrest.

183
Q

PACE 1984, s.28(1)

A

When a person is arrested without knowledge, the arrest is unlawful unless informed of being under arrest as soon as practicable after arrest.

184
Q

PACE 1984, s.28(2)

A

PACE 1984, s.28(1) applies even if the fact of arrest is obvious.

185
Q

PACE 1984, s.28(3)

A

An arrest is unlawful unless the arrested person is informed of the grounds of their arrest at the time or as soon as practicable after the fact. Even if obvious (s.28(4)).

186
Q

What legal things must somebody under arrest be informed of alongside other statutory requirements?

A

They must be told why the arrest was deemed to be necessary - as well as that they are under arrest and on what grounds.

187
Q

What factual things must someone under arrest be made aware of?

A

They must be informed of the nature of the suspected offence, when and where it took place.

188
Q

Christie v Leachinsky [1947]?

A

An arresting officer may not lead a person to think that they are being arrested for one offence when in truth the officer wishes to arrest them for another.

189
Q

Miller [2007]?

A

Failure to administer a caution at the point of arrest notification does not render the arrest unlawful but may provide grounds for the exclusion of evidence.

190
Q

Code G, para. 4.1?

A

Nature and circumstances of the offence leading to arrest, why it was necessary, caution and any comments must be recorded by the arresting officer.

191
Q

PACE 1984, s. 30(1), (1A) (1B) (2)?

A

When a person is arrested outside a police station the constable is normally obliged to take the person to a designated police station as soon as practicable.

192
Q

PACE s.30(1) and (10A)?

A

An arrested person may be delayed bail or being taken to a police station when their presence is required to carry out immediate investigations.

193
Q

PACE 1984, s.30(7) and (7A)?

A

A constable who is satisfied that there are no grounds to keep someone arrested must release that person

194
Q

What is an exception to a constable’s obligation to take the person to a station after arrest?

A

An arrested person may be released with or without bail to attend a police station on a future date.

195
Q

PACE 1984, s. 30A(3B)?

A

If someone is released on bail, conditions may be imposed for the purpose of securing surrender, preventing further offences, preventing interference with witnesses or obstruction of the administration of justice or for the person’s own protection.

196
Q

When may a constable release a person on bail after arrest?

A

If the constable is satisfied that releasing the person on bail is necessary and proportionate in all the circumstances.

197
Q

PACE 1984, s. 24?

A

Contains police powers of arrest without warrant (subject to necessity)

198
Q

PACE 1984, s. 24A?

A

Civilian powers of arrest. These are confined to indictable offences and subject to necessity.

199
Q

PACE 1984, s. 24(1)(a)?

A

A constable may arrest without a warrant anyone who is about to commit an offence

200
Q

PACE 1984, s. 24(1)(b)?

A

A constable may arrest without warrant anyone who is in the act of committing an offence

201
Q

PACE 1984, s. 24(1)(c)?

A

A constable may arrest without a warrant anyone whom he has reasonable grounds for suspecting to be about to commit an offence.

202
Q

PACE 1984, s. 24(1)(d)?

A

A constable may arrest without a warrant anyone whom he has reasonable grounds for suspecting to be committing an offence.

203
Q

PACE 1984, s. 24(2)?

A

If a constable has reasonable grounds for suspecting that an offence has been committed he may arrest without a warrant anyone whom he has reasonable grounds to suspect of being guilty of it.

204
Q

PACE 1984, s. 24(3)(a-b)

A

If an offence has been committed a constable may arrest without warrant (a) anyone who is guilty (b) anyone he has reasonable grounds to suspect as guilty.

205
Q

PACE 1984, s. 24(4)?

A

All of the arrest without warrant powers are exercisable only where there are reasonable grounds that a necessity listed in s.24(5) applies.

206
Q

Where can you find a list of the necessities that may trigger an arrest without warrant to prevent or cease an offence?

A

PACE 1984, s.24(5)(a-f).

207
Q

PACE 1984, s.24(5)(a)

A

An arrest without warrant may be necessary to enable the name of the person in question to be ascertained

208
Q

PACE 1984, s.24(5)(b)

A

An arrest without warrant may be necessary to enable the address of the person in question to be ascertained

209
Q

PACE 1984, s.24(5)(c)?

A

An arrest without warrant may be necessary to prevent the person (i) causing or (ii) suffering injury to themselves or others; (iii) causing loss or damage of property; (iv) public indecency; (v) obstruction of highway.

210
Q

PACE 1984, s. 24(5)(d)?

A

An arrest without warrant may be necessary to protect a child or other vulnerable person from the person in question.

211
Q

PACE 1984, s. 24(5)(e)?

A

An arrest without warrant may be necessary to allow prompt and effective investigation of the offence or the conduct of the person in question

212
Q

PACE 1984, s. 24(5)(f)?

A

An arrest without warrant may be necessary to prevent any prosecution from being hindered by the disappearance of the person in question.

213
Q

How many conditions must be met for a common-law arrest by a civilian or otherwise to be lawful?

A

three

214
Q

What are the three conditions in which there may be a common law arrest?

A

where there is a breach of the peace, or one reasonably believed to occur in the immediate future, or where a breach has occurred and there is likely to be a breach again.

215
Q

What is a breach of peace?

A

Whenever harm is actually done or is likely to be done to a person or in his presence to his property, or a person is in fear of being so harmed through an assault, affray, riot, unlawful assembly or other disturbance.

216
Q

What is the threshold for reasonability for civilian arrests?

A

Reasonable belief must be present i.e. reasonable in circumstances to arrest, with reasonable necessary and proportionate preventative action.

217
Q

MCA 1980, s. 1?

A

empowers a justice to issue a warrant on the basis of written information that a person is suspected of committing an offence.

218
Q

What happens if a warrant from the magistrates court is endorsed for bail?

A

If endorsed for bail, a magistrates’ warrant will specify the amount of sureties needed.

219
Q

MCA 1980, s. 117?

A

Once any sureties are paid, a person bailed must appear before a magistrates court at the time and place named in the recognizance.

220
Q

What are the conditions for magistrates issuing a warrant to an under-18?

A

The offence must be indictable; or punishable with imprisonment; or the person’s address mustn’t be sufficiently established for a summons to be served.

221
Q

What is the function of MCA 1980, s. 1(4)

A

s. 1(4) limits a magistrates’ court power to issue a warrant for under-18s.

222
Q

When can a magistrates court issue a warrant for non-appearance?

A

A warrant for non-appearance may only be issued if the offence to which it relates is punishable with imprisonment or where a disqualification may be imposed.

223
Q

MCA 1980, s. 13?

A

Magistrates power to issue a warrant for the arrest of a person who has failed to appear to answer a summons.

224
Q

BA 1976, s. 7?

A

Magistrates power to issue a warrant for someone granted bail who fails to surrender to custody or surrenders but goes absent before the case is heard.

225
Q

SCA 1981, s. 80(2)?

A

Where an indictment has been signed but the chargee has not been sent for trial, Crown Court may issue a summons or an arrest warrant.

226
Q

SCA 1981, s. 81?

A

A crown court warrant may be endorsed for bail, and police have the same powers and duties in such instance as magistrates warrants with bail.

227
Q

Where are the regulations for detention and treatment of suspects found?

A

PACE 1984, Parts IV and V and PACE Code C.

228
Q

Define police detention.

A

A person is in police detention if taken to the station after being arrested for an offence under TA 2000, s. 41, or is arrested after voluntary attendance. Or if in designated civilian detention.

229
Q

Where can you find the definition of police detention?

A

PACE 1984, s. 118(2).

230
Q

PACE 1984, s.30(3-6)?

A

A person may be taken to any police station after arrest unless detention is anticipated to exceed 6 hours then it must be a designated station.

231
Q

What rank must a custody officer be?

A

A custody officer must at least be the rank of sergeant (s. 36(3)).

232
Q

PACE 1984, s.37(1)

A

A person may only be detained at a police station on the authority of the custody officer.

233
Q

PACE 1984, s. 34(2-3)?

A

A detainee at the police station may only be released on the custody officer’s authority.

234
Q

What is the practice with regard to custody records?

A

A custody record must be opened as soon as practicable for someone under arrest. It must follow the detainee with any transfers and show time and reason for it.

235
Q

PACE 1984, s. 39(1)(b)?

A

A custody officer is responsible for recording in the custody record.

236
Q

What is the Right to Notification?

A

A person who has been arrested and is in custody has a right upon request to have someone interested in their welfare told of the arrest and place of detention.

237
Q

PACE Code C, para. 3.1(i)

A

It is the custody officer’s duty to inform the detainee of their right to notification and ask if they wish to exercise it (para. 3.5(a)(iii)).

238
Q

PACE 1984, s. 56(1)?

A

Someone arrested in custody must be told of their right to notify a next of kin of detention as soon as practicable. For every transfer too.

239
Q
A
240
Q

What happens if a detainee’s nominated notification person cannot be informed of their detention?

A

The detainee may choose up to two alternatives. If these cannot be contacted, head of the investigation has discretion on further attempts and on contacting local voluntary bodies (Code C para. 5.1).

241
Q

PACE 1984, s. 58?

A

An arrested person held in custody has a right upon request to consult a solicitor privately at any time.

242
Q

Ambrose v Harris [2011]

A

Any person who suffers a significant curtailment of freedom of action is entitled to legal assistance - even if prior to formal arrest or detainment.

243
Q

ex Parte Merrick [1994]

A

There is a common law right to consult a solicitor as soon as practicable even if outside customary hours

244
Q

Code C, paras. 3.19 and 6.5A?

A

An appropriate adult has an independent right to legal advice even if their charge does not want one, but their charge cannot be forced to see a solicitor.

245
Q

When must a person be informed of their right to free legal advice?

A

Upon arrest, arrival at the police station, before re/commencement of interview, before detention reviews, after being charged, before a search of any kind, before identification proceedings.

246
Q

Children Act 2004, s. 11?

A

Requires the police to safeguard and promote the welfare of children while discharging their functions e.g. searches, tests etc.

247
Q

Code C, para. 1.4?

A

If an officer suspects that someone might be vulnerable they must treat them as such

248
Q

Define ‘appropriate adult’ for young suspects

A

parent, guardian, local authority or voluntary organisation representative, social worker, or someone not related to the police.

249
Q

Who should not act as an appropriate adult for a juvenile?

A

An estranged parent that the child objects to or an illiterate parent with a low iq who cannot understand proceedings.

250
Q

Define ‘appropriate adult’ in relation to vulnerable or disordered people.

A

a relative, guardian or other person responsible for the person’s care or custody or someone with experience of such persons not related to the police.

251
Q

What does Code C, Note for Guidance 1D state regarding representation for the vulnerable?

A

While the appropriate adult should be experienced or trained, the suspects wishes should be respected where practicable.

252
Q

Lewis [1996]

A

A solicitor attending a police station on a suspect’s behalf should not act as an appropriate adult

253
Q

What are the four reasons someone should not be an appropriate adult?

A

if suspected of involvement; if the victim or witness; if involved in the investigation; if they’ve received admissions from the suspect prior to being the AA.

254
Q

What is the role of an appropriate adult?

A

AAs must safeguard the rights, entitlements and welfare of juvenile and vulnerable suspects.

255
Q

What things must the appropriate adult do to fulfil their role?

A

They should support, advise and assist; ensure the police act properly and fairly; assist in communication and; help understand and protect the suspects rights.

256
Q

A Local Authority v B [2008]?

A

Appropriate Adults presence during a consult with a lawyer doesn’t destroy legal privilege

257
Q

PACE 1984, s. 65(1)?

A

For identification and evidential procedures requiring appropriate consent, 14-18s must give their consent + parental; under-14s only parental. An AA cannot give parental consent unless a parent or guardian.

258
Q

PACE 1984, s. 41(1)?

A

The normal maximum period of detention without charge is 24 hours from the relevant time. (normally upon arrival in station or from moment of arrest).

259
Q

PACE s. 41(7)?

A

If not appropriate to extend detention without charge, after 24 hours suspect must be released either with or without bail.

260
Q

What is the maximum period of detention without charge for indictable offences?

A

When under arrest for an indictable offence the period of detention may be extended to 36 hours by superindenteds + and 96 hours by a magistrates court.

261
Q

What happens if re-arrest after the expiry of detention without charge is required?

A

To be re-arrested there must be a warrant for the offence for which they were originally arrested unless new evidence has come to light.

262
Q

PACE 1984, s. 41(2)(a)?

A

The relevant time for detention is the time an arrested person arrives at the first police station or 24 hours after arrest, whichever is the earliest.

263
Q

What governs the office of the Director of Public Prosecutions?

A

The DPP is governed by the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985.

264
Q

Prosecution of Offences Act 1985, s. 2?

A

DPP is a barrister or solicitor of at least 10y standing appointed by the AG.

265
Q

Prosecution of Offences Act 1985, s. 3(1)?

A

The functions of the DPP are discharged under the superintendence of the AG.

266
Q

Where can you find the DPPs duties listed?

A

Prosecution of Offences Act 1985, s. 3(2).

267
Q

How many core duties does the DPP have?

A

The DPP has 10 core duties.

268
Q

What is the DPP’s first core duty?

A

DPP takes over the conduct of all criminal proceedings instituted by or for the police except for ‘specified proceedings’

269
Q

Where can you find the specified proceedings for which the DPP does not assume conduct of proceedings from the police?

A

Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 (Specified Proceedings) Order 1999 as amended.

270
Q

What are some specified offences that the DPP does not conduct proceedings for?

A

some RTA offences, criminal damage below £5k, some public order offences.

271
Q

What is the DPP’s second core duty?

A

To institute and conduct criminal proceedings in any case where appropriate due to importance or difficulty of a case.

272
Q

What is the DPP’s third core duty?

A

To take over the conduct of all binding-over proceedings instituted on behalf of a police force.

273
Q

What is the DPP’s fourth core duty?

A

To take over the conduct of any criminal proceedings instituted by the NCA.

274
Q

What is the DPP’s fifth core duty?

A

To have the conduct of extradition proceedings.

275
Q

What is the DPP’s sixth core duty?

A

To advise police forces, to the extent the DPP considers appropriate, on all matters relating to criminal offences.

276
Q

What is the DPP’s seventh core duty?

A

To appear for the prosecution when directed by the court on (i) appeals to SC, CoA, and some CC appeals on Mags contempt of court.

277
Q

What is the DPP’s eighth core duty?

A

To have the conduct of applications for orders under the ABCPA 2014 (criminal behaviour orders), and to apply for discharge or variation of such orders.

278
Q

What is the DPP’s ninth core duty?

A

To discharge duties conferred under POCA 2002 parts 5 and 8: civil recovery of the proceeds of unlawful conduct civil recovery investigations and disclosure orders in relation to confiscation investigations).

279
Q

What is the DPPs tenth core duty?

A

To discharge such other functions as may from time to time be assigned to the DPP by the AG.

280
Q

Prosecution of Offences Act 1985, s. 1(1)(a)?

A

Establishes the CPS, of which the DPP is head.

281
Q

What is the relationship between the police and CPS?

A

The CPS is not instructed by the police. On behalf of the DPP they take over prosecutions begun by the police.

282
Q

Prosecution of Offences Act 1985, s.10?

A

Requires the DPP to issue a code for Crown Prosecutors guiding their work which curbs wildly disparate decisions on the same facts.

283
Q

What are the three main things the DPP gives guidance to the CPS for?

A

(1) determining whether proceedings should be instituted or continued (2) determining what charges should be preferred (3) consider what representations should be made about mode of trial.

284
Q

Prosecution of Offences Act 1985, s. 5(1)?

A

DPP may at any point appoint persons who are not CPS to institute or take over the conduct of criminal proceedings, though they must have a general qualification.

285
Q

Prosecution of Offences Act 1985, s. 5(2)?

A

Someone not CPS appointed by the DPP has CPS powers but is subject to any instructions given to them by the CPS.

286
Q

Prosecution of Offences Act 1985, s. 7A?

A

The DPP may appoint staff who are not legally qualified. These are known as associate prosecutors.

287
Q

What can associate prosecutors do?

A

Associate prosecutors may represent the CPS on pre-trial applications like adjournment requests and bail, and in proceedings about preventative civil orders.

288
Q

How many ways might the first appearance of the accused in a magistrates court be secured?

A

five

289
Q

What is the first way to secure an accused’s appearance at a magistrates court?

A

Accused may be arrested + after police consult CPS, charged

290
Q

What is the second way to secure an accused’s appearance at a magistrates court?

A

Arrest + bail while CPS decide if there’s evidence to justify a charge. If there is they trigger the written charge and requisition procedure

291
Q

What is the third way to secure an accused’s appearance at a magistrates court?

A

arrest + bail subject to return on a specified date. In the interim the CPS decide if there’s evidence for a charge.

292
Q

What is the fourth way to secure an accused’s appearance at a magistrates court?

A

Served with a written charge and requisition without first being arrested.

293
Q

What is the fifth way to secure an accused’s appearance at a magistrates court?

A

Can apply to the magistrates court for a summons or arrest warrant requiring the accused to attend

294
Q

CJA 2003, s. 29?

A

Establishes the written charge and requisition procedure which CPS can use to commence prosecution. Only applies to prosecutions brought by a relevant prosecutor.

295
Q

CJA 2003, s. 29(5)?

A

written charge and requisitions can only be brought against six types of proceedings, brought by: police, SFO, DPP/CPS, NCA, AG, SoS.

296
Q

Who are ‘relevant prosecutors’ for CJA s. 29?

A

Secretaries of States, DVLA, TfL, local authorities, railway and tramway operators, TV licensing, environment agency.

297
Q

CJA 2003, s. 29(2)

A

written charge must be accompanied with a requisition (i.e. summons to court)

298
Q

CJA 2003, s. 29(5)?

A

Written charge and requisition is not available for private prosecutions.

299
Q

what is a private prosecution?

A

A private prosecution is any where the prosecutor is not a relevant prosecutor.

300
Q

How are private prosecutions commenced?

A

by making an application to the magistrates court for the issue of a summons.

301
Q

CrimPR 7.2(1)?

A

a prosecutor who wants the court to issue a summons must either serve a written application on the court or orally apply

302
Q

CrimPR 7.2(3)?

A

Application for summons must set out allegations and any time limits for the offence.

303
Q

What is laying information?

A

laying information is applying to the magistrates court for the issue of a summons.

304
Q

What can a magistrates issue upon application for summons?

A

a summons to appear and answer charges, or an arrest warrant to be brought.

305
Q

Who can issue a summons but not a warrant?

A

A justice clerk at MC may issue a summons but not a warrant

306
Q

CrimPR 7.3(1)?

A

outlines what a summons or written charge must contain: a statement of offence and particulars of conduct.

307
Q

What must a summons or written charge contain?

A

a statement of the offence in ordinary language, relevant legislation and sufficient particulars of alleged conduct.

308
Q

CrimPR 7.2(9)?

A

A single document for summons or written charge may contain more than one charge.

309
Q

CrimPR 7.3(2)?

A

Any incidents that amount to a course of conduct may be included in the same written charge or summons.

310
Q

CrimPR 7.4(3)?

A

A requisition or summons must contain a notice setting out when and where you should attend court and specify each offence.

311
Q

MCA 1980, s. 127(1)?

A

A magistrates court may not try summary offences unless application for a summons was served within six months of alleged committal. this does not apply to indictable offences.

312
Q

MCA 1980, s. 127(2) and (4)

A

There is no time limit on when proceedings must be started for either way offences (with exceptions on statutory limitations).

313
Q

MCA 1980, ss. 10 and 18?

A

Covers a magistrates power to adjourn proceedings before sending to CC or commencing summary trial.

314
Q

How can adjournments be challenged?

A

grant or refusal of adjournment can exceptionally be challenged by judicial review.

315
Q

MCA 1980, s.10(1)?

A

magistrates courts can adjourn at any time with only one justice.

316
Q

MCA 1980, s. 10(2)

A

when adjourning the court can fix time and place of resumption or leave it to be determined later.

317
Q

MCA 1980, s. 10(4)(a-b)

A

Upon adjournment the accused may be remanded (custody or bail) and if its an either way offence MUST if they’ve already been remanded

318
Q

MCA 1980, s. 128(1)

A

a magistrates court may remand a person in custody or on bail.

319
Q

What are the two situations in which the magistrates may adjourn without remand?

A

At all appearances for summary offences up to conviction and at appearances for either-way offences up to determination for trial or summary conviction.

320
Q

How does procedure differ between an adjourned case or an adjourned case with remand?

A

Where a case is only adjourned you need not fix the date for next hearing, but you must if the accused is remanded.

321
Q

MCA 1980, s. 128(6)?

A

The maximum period a magistrates court may remand an accused in custody for is “eight clear days” subject to exceptions

322
Q

How many exceptions are there to MCA 1980 s. 128(6)

A

Five exceptions to the eight clear days rule

323
Q

What is the first exception to the eight clear days rule?

A

following summary conviction there may be a remand in custody up to 3 weeks, 4 if remand on bail.

324
Q

What is the statutory authority for the first exception to the eight clear days rule?

A

MCA 1980, s. 10(3)

325
Q

What is the second exception to the eight clear days rule?

A

after establishing guilt, there may be remand in custody for 3 weeks, on bail for 4, for medical exams

326
Q

What is the statutory authority for the second exception to the eight clear days rule?

A

PCC(S)A 2000, s. 11(1-2).

327
Q

What is the third exception to the eight clear days rule?

A

Where mode of trial is determined as summary but not proceeding immediately, remand in custody until a date when there’s multiple justices sitting.

328
Q

What is the statutory authority for the third exception to the eight clear days rule?

A

MCA 1980, s. 128(6)(c)

329
Q

What is the fourth exception to the eight clear days rule?

A

A second or subsequent remand in custody may be made for up to 28 clear days

330
Q

What is the fifth exception to the eight clear days rule?

A

An accused already detained in custody may be remanded up to 28 clear days or up to anticipated release date, whichever’s shorter

331
Q

What is the statutory authority for the fifth exception to the eight clear days rule?

A

MCA 1980, s. 131.

332
Q

What is the rule for further remands of the accused?

A

A person brought before the court after an earlier remand may be remanded again until sending or commencement of trial unless against the interests of justice.

333
Q

Where is the statutory authority for the rule on further remands found?

A

MCA 1980, s.128(3).

334
Q

MCA 1980, s. 128(6)(a)?

A

Accused may be remanded for a period greater than eight clear days if on bail and agreed to by prosecution and accused.

335
Q

What is the function of Prosecution of Offences Act 1985, s. 22?

A

To ensure that trials on indictment begin in a reasonable time by conferring powers on the secretary of state to fix maximum time for pre-trial proceedings and for custody during this period.

336
Q

Prosecution of Offences Act 1985, s. 22(1)(a)?

A

regulations provide an overall time limit within which the prosecution must complete the pre-trial stage of proceedings, but none currently apply. same for custody (ss. 22(1)(b)).

337
Q

Where can you find custody time limit regulations?

A

Prosecution of Offences (Custody Time Limits) Regulations 1987, (SI 1987 no. 299).

338
Q

What is the custody time limit between first appearance and committal?

A

An accused charged with an indictable offence may be held in MC custody for 70 days between first appearance and committal.

339
Q

What is the custody time limit between first appearance and summary trial?

A

If the offence is triable either way and is summarily done, the maximum period of custody is 70 days unless decision for summary trial is taken within 56 days in which case the custody limit is reduced to that.

340
Q

What is the custody time limit between committal and trial on indictment?

A

the maximum custody period between committal and start of trial on indictment is 112 days.

341
Q

What is custody time limit for multiple committals?

A

A 112 day limit applies separately in relation to each offence listed on a single indictment

342
Q

What is the custody time limit for s. 51 sending?

A

Where the accused has been sent for trial under CDA 1998, s. 51 maximum custody is 182 days between sending and commencement with any time held in custody by MC deducted.

343
Q

What is the custody time limit for retrial directed by the court of appeal?

A

Where an indictment is preferred and following ordering of a retrial, 112 days limit applies.

344
Q

What is the custody time limit for voluntary bills.

A

Where proceedings are by way of a voluntary bill of indictment, the 112 limit applies from the date of the bill.

345
Q

Prosecution of Offences Regulations 6.(6).?

A

If custody time limit expires before completion of that stage of proceedings the accused must be granted bail in relation to the offence the limit relates to.

346
Q

Where can you find the procedure for seeking extension of custody time limits?

A

Prosecution of Offences Act 1985, s. 22(3)

347
Q

What is the procedure extending the custody time limit?

A

The courts may extend if (1) the prosecution has acted with all due diligence and expedition and (2) there is good and sufficient cause for extension.

348
Q

Prosecution of Offences Act 1985, s.22 (3)?

A

courts may extend custody time limits if the two stage test is satisfied, and an already extended limit may be further extended.

349
Q

Define ‘bail in criminal proceedings’.

A

(a) bail grantable in or in connection with proceedings for an offence to a person who is accused or convicted of the offence, or (b) bail grantable in connection with an offence to a person who is under arrest for the offence or for whose arrest the offence offence a warrant for bail is being issuedW

350
Q

Where can you find the definition of bail in criminal proceedings?

A

s. 1(1) Bail Act 1976.

351
Q

Where can you find the procedural rules for bail?

A

CrimPR Part 14.

352
Q

Senior Courts Act 1981, s. 81(1)(a-g).

A

Lists who the Crown Court may grant bail to.

353
Q

Senior Courts Act 1981, s.81(1)(a)?

A

The Crown Court may grant bail to any person who has been sent in custody for trial in the crown court

354
Q

Senior Courts Act 1981, s.81(1)(b)?

A

The Crown Court may grant bail to any person who has been given a custodial sentence following conviction at MC and is appealing to CC

355
Q

Senior Courts Act 1981, s.81(1)(c)?

A

The Crown Court may grant bail to any person who is in custody of CC pending disposal of the case

356
Q

Senior Courts Act 1981, s.81(1)(d)?

A

The Crown Court may grant bail to any person whose case has been decided by CC but is seeking appeal or JR.

357
Q

Senior Courts Act 1981, s.81(1)(e)?

A

The Crown Court may grant bail to any person who is seeking appeal or judicial review.

358
Q

Senior Courts Act 1981, s.81(1)(f)?

A

The Crown Court may grant bail to any person to whom the CC has said is eligible for appeal to CoA against conviction and sentence.

359
Q

Senior Courts Act 1981, s.81(1)(g)?

A

The Crown Court may grant bail to any person who has been remanded by MC upon adjournment provided that the MC heard all arguments.

360
Q

What curbs the powers of the crown court to grant bail?

A

CJPO 1994, s. 25.

361
Q

CAJA 2009, s. 115(1)?

A

A person charged with murder can only be granted bail by order of a crown court judge.

362
Q

CAJA s. 115(4)?

A

A person in a magistrates court charged with murder must be committed in custody to the crown court.

363
Q

CAJA 2009, s. 115(3)?

A

once in their custody, the crown court has 48 working hours after the day of appearance in a magistrates court to decide the question of bail.

364
Q

CAJA 2009, s. 115(6)?

A

The provisions restricting bail for murder charges apply even if the accused is charged with additional offences.

365
Q

Where can you find the presumption in favour of bail?

A

s 4(1) of the Bail Act 1976 along with Schedule 1 creates a rebuttable presumption in favour of bail.

366
Q

Bail Act 1976, s. 4(1).

A

A person to whom this section applies shall be granted bail except as provided in schedule 1 to this act.

367
Q

Who benefits from the presumption in favour of bail?

A

(a) people who appear ay CC or MC during proceedings for an offence and apply for bail in connection with those proceedings. (b) those convicted and awaiting sentence (c) who have been brought before court under SA 2020 for breach of community orders.

368
Q

BA 1976, s. 4(2)?

A

those involved in proceedings at MC or CC and apply for bail benefit from the right to bail.

369
Q

BA 1976, s. 4(4)?

A

those convicted of an offence and are adjourned before sentencing benefit from the right to bail.

370
Q

BA 1976, s. 4(3)?

A

Those brought to court for breaching community orders benefit from the right to bail.

371
Q

BA 1976, s. 4(1)?

A

appellant seeking bail pending determination of an appeal against conviction or sentence does not benefit from the right to bail.

372
Q

Rafferty [1999]?

A

When a person who had been on bail pleads guilty at the plea before venue, the usual practice should be to continue unless good reasons for remand.

373
Q

Bail Act 1976, sch. 1, part I, para. 6ZA?

A

an accused charged with murder may not be granted bail unless the court is of the opinion that there is no significant risk of an offence that would cause physical or mental injury to another person.

374
Q

What is laid out in Bail Act 1976, Schedule 1, part 1?

A

BA 1976, sch.1, part 1 lays out circumstances where accused may be refused bail if charged with or awaiting sentence for at least one offence triable on indictment and punishable with imprisonable.

375
Q

Bail Act 1976, sch. 1, Part 1, paras 2-6A?

A

An unconvicted accused charged with an offence which is imprisonable and triable on indictment need not be granted bail if one or more of the grounds for remand in custody is applicable.

376
Q

Where can you find the statutory grounds for refusing bail?

A

Bail Act 1976, sch. 1 para. 2 lays out the grounds for refusing bail.

377
Q

What are the three reasons a defendant need not be granted bail?

A

defendants do not need bail if court believe they would (A) fail to surrender to custody, (B) commit an offence on bail (C) interfere with witnesses or obstruct course of justice.

378
Q

What is the standard of proof for the three reasons that can be cited upon a court’s refusal of bail?

A

The court must merely be satisfied that there are substantial grounds for believing that one of three risks will occur.

379
Q

Bail Act 1976, sch. 1, para 1A?

A

para. 2 of schedule 1 does not apply where the accused is >18 and has not been convicted of an offence in these proceedings and there’s no real prospect of a custodial sentence.

380
Q

Where can you find a list of factors the court should consider when taking a decision under para 2 about bail?

A

relevant factors for a para. 2 decision can be found listed in para. 9 BA 1976, (a-e).

381
Q

What relevant factors should the court take into account when making a para. 2 bail decision?

A

(a) nature and severity of offence (b) character, associations and community ties (c) previous bail infractions (d) strength of prosecution evidence (e) risk of causing harm to others.

382
Q

What is meant by ‘character’ with regards to relevant factors to consider for bail?

A

character refers to previous convictions that make a custodial sentence more likely.

383
Q

What should be noted about the relevant factors to consider when making a decision on bail?

A

the relevant factors listed in paras 9(a-e) are not exhaustive. Other things may and should be considered.

384
Q

What are other grounds for witholding bail not listed in para. 2?

A

risk of injury to an associated person, where accused is already on bail for another offence, for own protection, where already serving time for another offence, where court has insufficient info, where accused is absconded

385
Q

What is meant by risk of harm to an “associated person” with regard to bail?

A

An associated person is a person associated with the accused within the family law act 1996, s. 62(3) - i.e. domestic violence possible victims.

386
Q

Bail Act 1976, sch. 1, para. 2A?

A

Accused needn’t be granted bail if on bail for another offence on the date of current offence unless no real prospect of custodial sentence etc.

387
Q

What is the rule for bail as a means of protecting the accused?

A

Accused can remain in custody for own protection e.g. where public may exact retribution or for a child accused’s own welfare.

388
Q

What is the rule for bail regarding those already in custody?

A

The accused needn’t be granted bail if already serving a custodial sentence.

389
Q

What is the rule for granting bail with insufficient information?

A

Where the court believes that lack of time has led to insufficient collection of information on the bail decision the accused need not be granted bail. This should be relied upon sparingly.

390
Q

What is the rule on granting bail to those who have absconded during current proceedings?

A

accused needn’t be granted bail if arrested for absconding on the present proceedings after granted bail

391
Q

How many factors are there that should be considered for bail in drug related cases?

A

three - drug test evidence of class A ; charge with class A drug offence; refusal to undergo drug dependency assessment

392
Q

Bail Act 1976, s. 3(6d)?

A

If a drug assessment + follow ups are proposed and agreed to it will be a condition of bail that it is undertaken

393
Q

Bail Act 1976, sch. 1, part 1, para 1?

A

imprisonable summary offences have their own 8 exceptions to the presumption in favour of bail

394
Q

How many exceptions to the presumption of bail for imprisonable summary offences are there?

A

8 exceptions to the presumption of bail for imprisonable summary offences

395
Q

What are the 8 exceptions to the presumption of bail for imprisonable summary offences?

A

(1) history of failing to surrender (2) on bail during commission (3) re-offending (4) own protection (5) already custodial sentence (6) arrested under BA s. 7 (7) insufficient info (8) where drug exceptions would apply if the offence were indictable.

396
Q

Bail Act, 1976, Sch. 1, Part II?

A

sets out 5 reasons to permit refusal of bail for non-imprisonable offences.

397
Q

What is the first reason bail may be refused for a non-imprisonable offence?

A

Where the accused is <18 or has already been granted bail in this matter and failed to surrender and would do so again

398
Q

What is the second reason bail may be refused for a non-imprisonable offence?

A

for the accused’s own protection

399
Q

What is the third reason bail may be refused for a non-imprisonable offence?

A

when the accused is serving a custodial sentence

400
Q

What is the fourth reason bail may be refused for a non-imprisonable offence?

A

where the accused is <18 or has been convicted of a s.7 offence and is likely to fail to surrender, interfere with justice or re-offend

401
Q

What is the fifth reason bail may be refused for a non-imprisonable offence?

A

Where the accused has been arrested under s. 7 and is likely to cause injury or fear of injury to an associated person.

402
Q

What grounds for refusing bail are inapplicable to non-imprisonable offences?

A

Bail for non-imprisonable offences cannot be withheld for risk of absconding or insufficient time reasons.

403
Q

Bail Act 1976, s 7?

A

police have power to accused who is likely to break any of the conditions of his bail or is suspected of having broken them.

404
Q

Bail Act 1976, s. 3?

A

governs duties for people on bail

405
Q

Bail Act 1976, s. 3(1)?

A

For unconditional bail, the accused simply must surrender to custody (i.e. attend court) at the specified date and time.

406
Q

Bail Act 1976, s.3(6)?

A

Authority for conditional bail in order to ensure (1) surrender to custody (2) non-offending (3) non-interference (4) availability for inquiries and interviews).

407
Q

Bail Act 1976, s. 2(2)?

A

Defines surrender to custody

408
Q

What is the definition of ‘surrender to custody’

A

surrendering into the custody of the court the accused has been bailed to attend. Failure to do so is an offence under s. 6.

409
Q

Bail Act 1976, s. 3(2)?

A

The accused may not act as their own surety for bail, but can provide others (s. 3(4)).

410
Q

Bail Act 1976, sch. 1, part 1, para 8(1)?

A

No conditions may be imposed unless it appears to the court as necessary to do so for the accused or the public’s benefit.

411
Q

What are the four most common bail conditions imposed to reduce absconding risks?

A

condition of residence, notification of change of address, reporting daily weekly etc to local police, surrender of passport.

412
Q

What conditions are often imposed to prevent commission of offences while on bail?

A

a curfew and a ban from certain addresses and areas

413
Q

What conditions are often imposed to minimise interference with witnesses?

A

no-contact orders of the victim and any witnesses, banning from certain areas and addresses.

414
Q

Bail Act 1976, s. 3(6ZAA)?

A

Electronic monitoring is available as a condition of bail (often along with curfews).

415
Q

Bail Act 1976, s. 3(4)?

A

A person >17 granted bail may first be required to provide sureties to secure their later surrender to custody - if it seems necessary to the court.

416
Q

What is the difference between sureties for bail and securities for bail?

A

Sureties are monetary and cannot be provided by the accused, security can be a valuable item of the accused’s or a third party’s that will be forfeited upon non-attendance.

417
Q

What is the statutory authority for security being given for bail?

A

Bail Act 1976, s. 3(5)

418
Q

Bail Act 1976, s. 3(8)(a)?

A

Where conditional bail is granted the accused may apply to the court which granted bail or when sent to, to the Crown Court, for a variation of conditions 48 hours before any hearing

419
Q

Bail Act 1976, s. 3(8)(b)?

A

The prosecution may also apply for variations of conditions for bail 48 hours before any hearing.

420
Q

What happens upon breach of bail conditions?

A

Breach of any condition can lead to arrest without warrant under Bail Act 1976, s. 7(3) and the withdrawal of bail.

421
Q

What is a bail application in a magistrates court?

A

At a magistrates court, a bail application is a preliminary hearing and so attendance may be through live link audio or video.

422
Q

CrimPR Part 14 R14.2(1)(a)?

A

A decision on bail cannot be made unless each party is present or has had the opportunity to make representations.

423
Q

who bears the standard of proof regarding presumption in favour of bail?

A

The onus is on the court to justify any refusal of bail.

424
Q

What is the practice regarding bail at any point of adjourment?

A

At any adjournment the court should ask prosecution if there are any objections to bail.

425
Q

CrimPR Rule 14.5(2)

A

The prosecutor must provide the court with all information that is relevant to the question of bail.

426
Q

Bail Act, 1976, sch. 1, Part IIA, para. 2?

A

An accused remanded in custody may apply for bail at their following hearing even if it repeats arguments. If their second application fails then they may not repeat the same arguments.

427
Q

What must magistrates courts do after hearing a bail application?

A

Issue a certificate confirming that full argument was heard, and if second hearing, must list any changes between hearings.

428
Q

What may an accused do if MC refuse bail?

A

Accused may apply for bail to the Crown Court. They may also appeal the conditions imposed by MC. (CrimPR 14.8)

429
Q

What is the procedure for appealing a MC bail decision to CC?

A

Written notice of the appeal must be given to the MC CC and CPS as soon as reasonably practicable. This should say what the appeal asserts and should list any new info or arguments. This should then be heard within a day.

430
Q

What is the procedure for bail hearings?

A

Bail applications to CC may be public but are often private and heard by a judge or recorder.

431
Q

What is the rule on repeated bail applications to CC?

A

Repeated bail applications to the crown court can only be made if there are fresh arguments or considerations to be put to the court.

432
Q

What does the Bail (Amendment) Act 1993 do?

A

It confers upon the prosecution the right to appeal to CC and High Court.

433
Q

What curbs the prosecution’s power to appeal bail decisions?

A

Bail Amendment Act 1993, s. 1(1-3).

434
Q

Bail Amendment Act 1993, s. 1(1-3)?

A

Prosecution’s right to appeal bail decisions is limited to imprisonable offences, in trials conducted on behalf of DPP, where the prosecution has already argued bail should not be granted.

435
Q

What is the procedure for a prosecution’s appeal on a bail decision?

A

Prosecution must give oral notice of appeal as soon as bail is granted and before the accused is released, then the accused will be remanded until the appeal is disposed of. Written notice must be served within 2 hours of bail being granted.

436
Q

What should the court first consider when an accused fails to comply with bail?

A

The court should question how they will ensure attendance for the remainder of proceedings and what the consequences should be for the breach of bail.

437
Q

What are the three main powers of the court when a bailed accused fails to appear?

A

The court may issue a bench warrant (s. 7(1)); the court may adjourn and extend bail or rule to take no further action where there is evidence of good reason for no attendance, and they may proceed in absence of the accused (if not either way offence in magistrates).

438
Q

What are the three circumstances in which a bailed accused may be arrested without warrant?

A

Where the officer has reasonable grounds for believing the accused is unlikely to surrender; is likely to break or has broken conditions; or the surety wishes to be relieved of obligations and informs the police of this.

439
Q

What must happen following a BA 1976 s. 7 arrest?

A

The arrested must be brought before a magistrate ASAP, within 24 working hours. Even if their trial is at the Crown Court. The magistrate will then consider risks of bail and either grant on same conditions, withhold or vary bail, after hearing the accused.

440
Q

Bail Act 1976, s. 6(1)?

A

A person who has been released on bail and who fails without reasonable cause to surrender to custody is guilty of an offence. The burden of showing reasonable cause is on the accused (s.6(3)).

441
Q

What are s. 6 BA 1976 offences punishable as?

A

the offence of absconding is punishable on summary conviction or as criminal contempt of court. Punishment is up to 3 months imprisonment and/or limitless fine.

442
Q

What are s. 6 BA 1976 offences punishable by at crown court sentencing?

A

absconding from trials at the CC is imprisonable for up to 12 months and an unlimited fine.

443
Q

What is the procedure for charging a s. 6 BA 1976 offence?

A

The accused should be brought before the original court that granted bail. No summons or requisition is needed. The prosecutor questions the absconder and there is an opportunity to offer good reason for absconding.