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Assessment > Unit 1 Notes > Flashcards

Unit 1 Notes Flashcards

1
Q

what services are provided by athletics trainers

A 
prevention
emergency care
clinical diagnosis
therapeutic intervention
medical conditions
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2
Q

communication with patients

A

respect for cultural differences, gender, language, other potential barreries
ability to maintain pleasant and interested demeanor
use of open ended questions

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3
Q

communication with health professionals

A

understand medical terminology, medial abbreviations, difference between a sign and a symptom, physical specialties and what the physician can contribute to the athlete’s well being and safe return to play

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4
Q

federal regulations pertaining to communication among medical professionals

A

HIPAA

FERPA

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5
Q

HIPAA

A

protects patient privacy, oversees medical records, and gives patients more control over how and to whom their personal health information is disclosed

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6
Q

FERPA

A

protects the privacy of student education records

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7
Q

medical records

A

must maintain adequate records on the health care of athletes
records are maintained and stored in areas with limited access in accordance with institutional and state regulatory acts

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8
Q

examples of inappropriate medical record storage

A

unsecured files, open storage areas, or unprotected computers without passwords encryption

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9
Q

what is prevention of disease transmission

A

protection from infection
maintaining a sanitary environment
immunization from specific diseases by vaccine

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10
Q

who oversees prevention of disease transmission

A

OSHA- occupational safety and health administration

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11
Q

what is OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard

A

intended to safegaurd health care workers against hazards resulting from exposure to infectious body fluids

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12
Q

who is covered under OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard

A

anyone who could reasonably anticipate having occupational exposure to infectious waste

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13
Q

what do individuals, institutions or setting must have for OSHA bloodborne pathogens standards

A

exposure control plan

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14
Q

what is an exposure control plan

A

written document outlines steps to take and specific people to call in the event of an exposure to infectious waste

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15
Q

do all health care workers have access to personal protective equipment

A

yes

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16
Q

what is universal precaution

A 
that all human waste should be treated as if it were infectious
glove use, application, removal
personal protective equipment
sharps containers
disinfection of surfaces
infectious waste disposal
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17
Q

legal considerations

A

breaching a duty- negligence

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18
Q

can breaching a duty be considered negligence

A

if the breach of duty causes harm

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19
Q

negligence

A

conduct that falls below an established and expected standard of care

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20
Q

what is the BOC standard of professional practice

A

references the expected level of care

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21
Q

patient reported outcomes

A

used in clinical settings

data collected directly from patients

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22
Q

what is the purpose of patient reported outcomes

A

to engage patients as active partners in their own progress and to determine if a given treatment is working

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23
Q

evidence based medicine

A

blending the best research evidence and clinical expertise to make health care decisions
involves the patient’s values and preferences to create a complete research practice patient circle

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24
Q

what does evidence based medicine seek

A

appropriate validated research or resources

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25
Q

classification and surveillance systems

A

international classification of diseases

current procedural terminology

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26
Q

ICD-10

A

diagnosis related to classification manual

primarily used to diagnose and track conditions

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27
Q

what must providers do when seeking reimbursement

A

submit diagnosis codes (ICD-10) when billing or requesting authorization of services or procedures

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28
Q

CPT

A

provides a set of billing codes, descriptions, and guidelines associated with procedures and services used by health care professionals

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29
Q

when is CPT published

A

annually in January by AMS

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30
Q

what is contained in a CPT

A

five digit codes that identify the procedure or service rendered

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31
Q

preparticipation examination

A

determines readiness for specific sport

identify potential or correctable conditions that may impair the athlete’s agility to perform

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32
Q

who suggests that all athletes have a PPE

A

American Academy of Family Physicians (AAFP)

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33
Q

when are athletes required to have PPE

A

entry into middle or high school or when transferring to a new school
also when entering intercollegiate athletics

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34
Q

what is required annually for PPE

A

updates on comprehensive health history, problem focused areas, and vital signs

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35
Q

where can PPEs been done

A

office visit

station based

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36
Q

office visit PPEs

A

more private
typically performed by a physician who has a working relationship with athlete
potentially expensive and not covered by insurance

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37
Q

station based PPEs

A

athlete moves from station to station
often occurs as a courtesy or community service from a group of physicians
not as private as office visit; can be loud or confusing to patients

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38
Q

determining sport qualification

A

certain medical conditions may disqualify an athlete from certain sports or from competitive activity altogether
responsibility of the team physician to determine level of risk inherent in a given sport for an athlete with a medical condition

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39
Q

what does an examination of a patient start with

A

thorough history then systematic review, then exam specific to condition

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40
Q

comprehensive medical history

A

may involve many body systems, be difficult to describe, may not be at all obvious, possibility of potential comorbid conditions

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41
Q

important aspects of medical history

A 
duration of signs and symptoms
onset (gradual, insidious, rapid)
when do symptoms occur
do symptoms come and go, or constant
disability from symptoms
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42
Q

signs

A

something that the clinician can see or feel in the patient, such as temperature, respiration, heartbeat, or blood pressure

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43
Q

symptom

A

something the patient feels, but the clinician can’t, such as a headache, nausea, dizziness, or pain

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44
Q

comprehensive history

A

past medical history: childhood and adult injury, accidents
current health status
family history

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45
Q

current health status

A

alcohol and drug use, diet, exercise, immunizations

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46
Q

family history

A

diabetes, kidney disease, hypertension, heart disease, cardiovascular disorders, allergies, asthma, mental illness, addictions

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47
Q

cephalocaudal systems review

A 
general assesssment
skin head to toe
Head, eyes, ears, nose and throat
respiratory
cardiovascular
gastrointestinal
peripheral vascular
neurological
hematological
endocrine
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48
Q

physical exam

A

cephalocaudal sequence
general observation of patient’s state of health, level of consciousness, signs of distress
physical assessment begins with vital signs

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49
Q

vital signs

A 
height and weight
blood pressure
heart rate and rhythm
respiratory rate and rhythm
body temperature
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50
Q

what is Korotkoff sound

A

where sound disappears

diastolic

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51
Q

normal body temperature

A

oral- 98.6, 96.4-99.1

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52
Q

what is the only reliable measure of core body temperature

A

rectal

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53
Q

what part of stethoscope is used for high pitched sounds

A

diaphragm

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54
Q

what part of stethoscope is used for low pitched sounds

A

bell

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55
Q

external eye structures

A

eye socket
eyelid
conjunctiva
lacrimal gland

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56
Q

internal eye structures

A 
sclera
cornea
iris
lens
retina
choroid
optic disk
macula
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57
Q

evaluation of eye

A 
thorough history
visual acuity
pupillary responses
motility of the extraocular muscles
peripheral vision
anatomical structures of the eyes
internal structures of the eye using ophthalmoscope
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58
Q

visual acuity

A

patient wears glasses or contact lenses for distance

snellen chart

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59
Q

snellen chart

A

contains graduated sizes of letters with standarized acuity at the end of each line
asked to read the lines of the chart while standing 20 ft away

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60
Q

what is normal vision acuity

A

20/20

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61
Q

pupillary responses

A

ability to react to light as a basic feature of a normally functioning ocular system

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62
Q

how to check pupillary response

A

while patient looks into the distance, a light is moved in toward the eye from the side and shone directly into pupil
speed of pupillary constriction is noted
each eye is examined separately

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63
Q

motility of extraocular muscles

A

examiner ask the patient to follow an object or fingertip up, down, left, and right using both eyes
examiner assesses for uninterrupted smooth movements of both eyes in all fields
there should be no restriction of gaze in either eye; movements of the two eyes should be harmonious and parallel

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64
Q

refractive erros

A

myopia
hyperopia
astigmatism

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65
Q

myopia

A

nearsightedness

eye is larger

66
Q

hyperopia

A

farsightedness

eye is smaller

67
Q

astimatism

A

abnormally shaped cornea or lens

68
Q

age related macular degeneration

A

deterioration or breakdown of the eye’s macula

central vision problems, blurriness, dark areas, distortion

69
Q

pathophysiology of AMD

A

formation of drusen under retina
growth of abnormal blood vessels under the retina
rarely causes blindness

70
Q

presbyopia

A

age related vision loss
normal change in eyes ability to focus
results from losing flexibility of the lens in the eye
eventually need correction with glasses or contacts

71
Q

conjunctivitis

A

inflammation of conjunctiva

72
Q

conjunctiva

A

transparent vascular tissue covering the anterior sclera and posterior surface of eye

73
Q

4 layers of the eye

A

conjunctiva
sclera
choroid
retina

74
Q

hyphema

A

blood in anterior chamber of eye
complication of blunt force trauma
often associated with other types of orbital or ocular damage

75
Q

where does the blood in hyphema come from

A

damaged blood vessel in iris or ciliary body

76
Q

how does blood in the anterior chamber of the eye begin

A

as a crescent shape inferiorly

77
Q

subjunctival hemorrhage

A

bright red blood appearing acutely in a sector of the eye under the clear conjunctiva and in front of sclera

78
Q

is subjunctival hemorrhage a dangerous condition

A

no its benign

79
Q

corneal abrasion

A

from scratch to the surface of the cornea

most common symptom is the sensation of having something in the eye

80
Q

what is the most common cause of corneal abrasion

A

direct trauma with a foreign object

81
Q

corneal or scleral laceration

A

one of the most traumatic eye injuries, open globe

allows for leakage of intraocular fluid and allows for the introduction of infectious pathogens

82
Q

open globe

A

eyeball that has been ruptured after blunt or sharp trauma or injury with a projectile foreign body

83
Q

corneal and conjunctival foreign bodies

A

something in the eye or scratchiness

often associated with tearing reflex

84
Q

orbital fracture

A

blunt injury to the eye, forces against orbit creates sudden increase in pressure within the orbit, orbital contents including eyeball are displaced posteriorly, pressure can break orbital walls

85
Q

blow out fracture

A

pressure form eye trauma that pushes eyeball posteriorly, factures orbit

86
Q

retinal tear or detachment

A

can occur from illness, injury, heredity, or aging

can occur with history of previous detachment

87
Q

dislocated contact lense

A

loss of visual acuity and presence of foreign body sensation

88
Q

chemical burns

A

any chemical substance that comes into contact with ocular surface,
symptoms include rapid onset of pain, foreign body sensation, and frequently loss of vison

89
Q

signs of chemical burn to ocular surface

A

defects on the corneal surface
corneal opacification with pronounced swelling
blanching of the cornea or conjunctiva

90
Q

periorbital contusion

A

direct trauma to periorbital structures “black eye”

91
Q

traumatic iritis

A

inflammation of iris or anterior chamber secondary to traumatic injury to eye
dull, deep, aching pain when either iris or pupil moves
can occur 1 to 7 days after trauma

92
Q

most common symptom of iritis

A

photophobia

93
Q

photophobia

A

light sensitivity

94
Q

proptosis/exophthalmos

A

direct trauma to orbit can result in deep orbital swelling and hemmorages
pushes eye forward, causing bulging
can cause damage to optic nerve

95
Q

hordeolum

A

infection of eyelash follicle or sebaceous gland

red bump will appear,

96
Q

how to treat hordeolum

A

warm compress, antibiotics and sometimes draining

97
Q

eyelid laceration

A

open wound of eyelid or surrounding tissues

presence of foreign body must be ruled out and ocular exam performed

98
Q

protective eyewear

A

many eye injuries are permanent and can cause serious vision loss
proper eye protection can reduce risk by 90%

99
Q

indications for immediate referral

A 
persistent blurred vision
diplopia
restricted eye movement
hyphema
distorted pupil
unilateral pupil dilation or constriction
foreign body protruding from eye
large laceration of eyelids
laceration that involves the margins of eyelid
persistent floaters
100
Q

external ear

A

pinna or auricle
external auditory canal
lateral surface of tympanic membrane

101
Q

what separates middle and external ear

A

tympanic membrane

102
Q

middle ear

A

ossicles: malleus, incus, and stapes

103
Q

inner ear

A

vestibule
semicircular canals
cochlea

104
Q

external nose

A

bone, cartilage

105
Q

internal nose

A

2 cavities or vestibules separated by septum

106
Q

what forms lateral wall of nose

A

3 turbinate bones

107
Q

what are paranasal sinuses

A

air-filled spaces within cranium

108
Q

oral cavity

A 
lips
cheeks
tongue
teeth
salivary glands
109
Q

oropharynx

A 
soft palate
tonsillar pillars
tonsils
base of tongue
posterior pharyngeal walls
110
Q

upper parts of respiratory and digestive tract

A

nasopharynx
oropharynx
laryngopharynx

111
Q

evaluation of ear, nose, throat, and mouth

A

done as single examination

each area can reveal important signs and symptoms

112
Q

exam of ear

A

inspect auricle for size, shape, and symmetry
external ear canal for discharge or odor
auricles and mastoid areas palpated for tenderness, swelling and nonvisible nodules
otoscope with disposal speculum is used to inspect ear canal

113
Q

exam of nose and nasopharynx

A

onset and duration of symptoms
if obstructed is it uni or bilateral, constant or intermittent
assess inspiratory and expiratory airflow
if drainage note characteristics
palpate facial bones and sinuses to determine areas of tenderness, swelling, or deformity

114
Q

speculum exam

A

view septum and turbinates, tip patients head back
nares may be dilated and viewed with speculum
check for discoloration, perforations, bleeding, or crusting
note differences such as polyps, holes, swelling, or abnormal coloring

115
Q

exam of mouth and throat

A

inspect lips, noting color and lesions
note condition of teeth and gum
inspect tongue and buccal mucosa for color, lesions, and presence of white plaque
with tongue depressor, depress tongue to visualize tonsils, uvula, and pharynx
palpate cervical lymph nodes for swelling

116
Q

hearing loss

A

inability to hear a specific pitch or inability to detect any sound
conductive or sensorineural

117
Q

deafness

A

inability to detect any sound

118
Q

conductive hearing loss

A

sound conduction pathway is blocked
a mechanical dysfunction
otitis media, sinus infections, impacted cerumen

119
Q

sensorineural loss

A

more serious involving inner ear sensory receptors
usually born with defect
can be related to heredity factors, meningitis, measles, scarlet fever, mumps, and encephalitis

120
Q

hearing loss evaluation

A

clinician conducts a gross determination of hearing when hearing loss is suspected
patient’s response to questions may indicate gross hearing ability

121
Q

how do you distinguish between sensorineural and conductive hearing loss

A

weber and rinne tests

uses tuning fork for both

122
Q

weber test

A

apex of head
normal- sound heard in both ears
conduction loss- sound heard best in impaired ear
sensorineural loss- sound only in normal ear

123
Q

rinne

A

mastoid process and in front of EAM
normal- air heard twice as long bone
conductive- bone sound heard longer
sensorineural- sound reduced and heard longer through air

124
Q

otitis externa

A

inflammation or infection of external auditory canal and tympanic membrane
“swimmer’s ear”

125
Q

signs and symptoms of otitis externa

A

drainage, canal swelling, erythema, decreased hearing, itching and pain when auricle is pulled

126
Q

otitis media

A

presence of fluid in middle ear and symptoms of infection
incidence decreases with age
often occurs with upper respiratory infection

127
Q

what can cause otitits media

A

virus or bacteria

128
Q

signs and symptoms of otitis media

A

intense ear pain, fluid drainage, transient hearing loss, fever, headache, nausea, vertigo
erythematous tympanic membrane with a bulge

129
Q

ruptured tympanic membrane

A

sudden change in air pressure, blunt trauma or infection

increasing pressure in middle ear often causes extreme pressure

130
Q

does a ruptured tympanic membrane heal on its own

A

most of the time

131
Q

signs and symptoms of tympanic membrane rupture

A

decreased hearing, purulent fluid, bleeding, audible whistling, may be painless without infection

132
Q

impacted cerumen

A

similar signs and symptoms of otitis externa

caused by cerumen being pushed into canal with cotton swap

133
Q

pinna hematoma “cauliflower ear”

A

repeated contusion to pinna of ear
usually seen in wrestlers
can be treated by draining and splinting ear
prevented by wearing protective ear headgear

134
Q

allergic rhinitis

A

immune response to nasally inhaled allergens that causes sneezing, rhnorrhea, nasal pruritus, and congestion

135
Q

nonallergic rhinitis

A

nasal inflammation due to infection, vasmotor, occupational hormonal, drug-induced, and gustatory
produces excessive mucus

136
Q

sinusitis

A

inflammation of the mucous membrane lining the nasal cavity
maybe acute, subacute, recurrent, or chronic
may result form bacterial or viral exposure

137
Q

when does sinusitis occur

A

when mucus or other infectious materials cause blockage within the passageways connecting the sinuses to the nasal cavity

138
Q

signs and symptoms of sinusitis

A

congestion, headache, colorful mucus, nonproductive cough, malaise; sometimes has low grade fever

139
Q

epistaxis

A

nosebleed

trauma to nose

140
Q

anterior nose bleed

A

kiesselbach’s plexus of the septum

141
Q

posterior nose bleed

A

profuse and often arterial origin

142
Q

how to treat epistaxis

A

compression, cold compress, or nose plug

143
Q

deviated septum

A

trauma, blow to side of nose
often has nasal fracture
minor deformity or complaints of chronic nasal obstruction

144
Q

pharyngitis

A

inflammation of the pharynx; sore throat

145
Q

tonsillitis

A

inflammation of the tonsils

146
Q

tonsillitis treatment

A

bacterial strep- antibiotics

viral- antiviral meds

147
Q

prevention of tonsillitis

A

keep away from sick
do not share utensils, drinking glasses, toothbrushes
wash hands
cover mouth when you cough or sneeze

148
Q

laryngitis

A

inflammation of larynx
acute or chronic
direct trauma to throat

149
Q

signs and symptoms of laryngitis

A

hoarseness, malaise, dry cough, pain

150
Q

treatment of laryngitis

A

resting voice, analgesics, cough suppressant, antibiotics

151
Q

oral mucosl lesions

A

caused by trauma, infectious disease, autoimmune disorders, neoplastic disease, toxic reactions

152
Q

what is often the first clinical sign of HIV or AIDs

A

oral lesions

153
Q

oral candidiasis

A

yeastlike fungus

presents as a white, cheesy, curdlike patch on tongue and buccal mucosa

154
Q

treatment of oral candidiasis

A

oral rinse and oral antifungal medications

treatment may last several weeks

155
Q

oral cancers

A

often involve tongue, lips, and gum

156
Q

predisposing risk factors for oral cancer

A 
any tobacco use
excessive alcohol use
poor oral hygiene
over 40
family history
157
Q

gingivitis

A

inflammatory conditions of gums caused by bacteria

158
Q

signs and symptoms of gingivitis

A

mouth sores, swollen gums, bright red-purple appearance to gums, bleeding gums, tender gums

159
Q

periodontitis

A

occurs if gingivitis is left untreated

receding gum line and loss of alveolar bone

160
Q

dental caries

A

tooth decay caused by accumulated bacteria on enamel surface, which forms plaque
decay starts at enamel and may extend into dentin and even pulp

161
Q

tooth abscess

A

collection of infected material resulting from bacterial infection of the center of tooth
complication of dental caries, can also result from trauma
openings of tooth enamel allow bacterial to infect center of tooth
infection may spread out from root of the tooth to bones

162
Q

tooth abscess treatment

A

elimination of infection, preservation of tooth, prevention of complication
antibiotics to fight infection
warm salt water analgesics

Assessment (5 decks)

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