Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Principles of Biology > Unit 1 Exam - 1,2,33,34,35 > Flashcards

Unit 1 Exam - 1,2,33,34,35 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Which level of biological organization is composed of several tissues?

A

Organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A physician specializes in surgery involving the following group of organs: mouth, esophagus, stomach and intestines. Overall, what is the highest level of organization that this physician is specialized in?

A

Organ System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which sequence correctly lists the different levels of biological organization, from the smallest and simplest to the largest and most complex?

A

Cells - Tissues - Organs - Organ Systems - Organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which statement about living organisms is NOT correct?
A. Living Organisms create energy
B. Living Organisms maintain homeostasis
C. Living Organism Reproduce
D. Living Organisms have adaptations
E. Living Organisms grow and develop

A

A. Living Organisms create energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Organs are composed of tissues, which are composed of cells. This is an example of which characteristic of life?

A

Living things have levels of hierarchical organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

All the birds called cardinals in a forest would comprise a(n):

A

population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

All the banded sunfish in a pond would comprise a(n)

A

population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Jennifer wants to use the brand of fertilizer that gives her the most tomatoes from each plant. She breaks her plants into groups and uses a different brand of fertilizer on each group. What would the experimental/independent variable be?

A

brand of fertilizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Jennifer wants to use the brand of fertilizer that gives her the most tomatoes from each plant. She breaks her plants into groups and uses a different brand of fertilizer on each group. What would the response/dependent variable be?

A

amount of fruit produced by the tomato plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Jeff wants to know what concentration of bleach would be most effective at killing bacteria without overdoing it and using too much bleach. Jeff makes 3 solutions of bleach ins after, 1, 5, and 10% solutions. He then adds a specific number of bacteria to a test tube of each solution and waits 3 minutes. He puts these bacterial on a petri plate and later counts colonies to see how many bacteria survived. In this experiment, the number of bacteria that were killed would be:

A

response/dependent variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Jeff wants to know what concentration of bleach would be most effective at killing bacteria without overdoing it and using too much bleach. Jeff makes 3 solutions of bleach ins after, 1, 5, and 10% solutions. He then adds a specific number of bacteria to a test tube of each solution and waits 3 minutes. He puts these bacterial on a petri plate and later counts colonies to see how many bacteria survived. In this experiment, the concentration of the bleach would be:

A

experimental/independent variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which statement regarding the scientific method is FALSE?
A. A theory is an explanation of why a pattern occurs
B. Confounding variables make experiments difficult to interpret
C. Deductive reasoning is often used in the design of an experiment
D. A control group is always exposed to the factor being tested

A

D. A control group is always exposed to the factor being tested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When researchers test a new human cancer drug using mice, the mice constitute the:

A

Model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In the antibiotic experiment in the textbook, what is the independent variable?

A

Whether or not the patient gets one of the antibiotics or placebo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is a way to control for confounding variables in the antibiotic experiment covered in the textbook?
A. Using many replicates
B. Allowing the person doing the endoscopies to know which subjects are controls
C. randomly assigning test subjects of different groups
D. both A and C are true
E. All of the above are true

A

C. Both A and B are true

A. Using many replicates
C. Randomly assigning test subjects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is a way to control for confounding variables in the antibiotic experiment covered in the textbook?
A. using too many replicates
B. using a double blind study design
C. randomly assigning test subjects to different groups
D. all of the above

A

D. All of the above

A. using too many replicates
B. using a double blind study design
C. randomly assigning test subjects to different groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following statements about the strengths of science is false?
A. Science is publicly understandable
B. Scientific theories can change as new data become available
C. Scientific theories, k once found to be true, are always true.
D. Science is capable of making measurable predictions

A

C. Scientific theories, once found to be true, are always true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Emerging diseases enter the human population due to:

A

new interactions with other organisms that can then act as vectors of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is an example of “Organization?”

A

Cutting open many leaves from trees and examining them under a microscope you find the tissues for photosynthesis are always in the middle Layer with a protective layer of cells surrounding that leaf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is an example of “acquiring materials and energy?”

A

Leaves take the energy from sunlight and perform photosynthesis, storing that energy in chemical bond on carbon atoms taken from the air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is an example of “Homeostasis?”

A

When you drink a large amount of water you have to urinate more often

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is an example of “response to stimulus?”

A

A moth sees a streetlight at night time and flies towards the light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is an example of “growth and development?”

A

A Caterpillars metamorphoses into a butterfly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is an example of “Adaption through evolution?”

A

Timer rattlesnakes, are ambush hunters found in Arkansas forests. When they are very still in the leaves on the forest floor, they are nearly impossible to see due to the colors and markings on their skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a plant bending towards a light an example of?

A

Response to stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The atomic mass of an element:

A

is determined by the number of protons and neutrons it contains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If an element has an atomic number of 12 then

A

the atom has 12 electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Isotopes of a given element have

A

the same number of protons but differ in atomic mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A covalent bond is

A

a sharing of electrons between two atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When an ionic bond forms, electrons are

A

transferred from one atom to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which type of bond formation is responsible for the properties of water?

A

hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which statement regarding acids and bases is correct?
A. Acids increase the pH and bases decrease the pH
B. Acids increase the proportion of hydrogen ions (H+) and bases reduce the proportion of (H+)
C. Acids are harmful, but bases are not harmful
D. Acids combine with bases to form sugars

A

B. Acides increase the proportion of hydrogen ions (H+) and bases reduce the proportion of (H+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Since pure water is neutral in pH, it contains

A

neither hydrogen ions (H+) nor hydroxide ions (OH-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The lower the pH…

A

the greater the hydroxide ion (OH-) concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Water is a liquid at room temperature. This is due to..

A

hydrogen bonding between water molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

You notice that rain water forms “beads” on your car. This is an example of what property of water?

A

Cohesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following molecules is inorganic?
A. CH4
B. CO2
C. C6H22O12
D. C6H6

A

B. CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Organic molecules…

A

always contain hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

___ is a polysaccharide that is found in plant cell walls and accounts for their strength

A

Cellulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Glycogen is a…

A

Polysaccharide use to store glucose/energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When two glucose molecules combine they form a disaccharide molecule and

A

a water molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Maltose is classified as a

A

carbohydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following types of lipids is the most abundant constituent of cell membranes?
A. cholesterol
B. Phospholipid
C. Triglyceride
D. fat

A

B. Phospholipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following fats can be found in the human diet have the highest correlation with heart disease?
A. Phospholipids
B. Steroids
C. Unsaturated Fats
D. Saturated Fats
E. Trans Fats

A

D. Saturated Fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Cholesterol is a component of cell membranes and is an example of which type of lipid?

A

Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The ___ structure of a protein consists of the sequence of the amino acids joined together by peptide bonds.

A

Primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A genetic mutation can cause a change in the sequence of the 20 amino acids used to build proteins. Such a change is a change to the protein’s ______

A

Primary structure, but this will likely alter higher levels of the structure as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Hemoglobin is a protein composed of two pairs of polypeptide chains. What is the highest level of protein structure represented by hemoglobin?

A

Quaternary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What type of bond will connect the amino acids in a protein?

A

Peptide

50
Q

What type of reaction is necessary to produce a dipeptide from individual amino acids?

A

Dehydration Reaction

51
Q

Nucleic Acids are polymers of

A

Nucleotides

52
Q

Which of these combinations would be found in a nucleotide?
A. base-acid-salt
B. adenine-thymine-uracil
C. base-sugar-phosphate
D. DNA-RNA-nucleus
E. sugar-protein-fat

A

C. Base-sugar-phosphate

53
Q

What is the functional group “NH2?”

A

Amino group

54
Q

What is the functional group “-OH?”

A

Hydroxyl group

55
Q

What is the functional group “-CH3?”

A

Methyl Group

56
Q

What is the functional group “-PO4?”

A

phosphate group

57
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true about fixed action patterns (FAPs)?
A. All the members of a species perform the exact same sequence of behaviors
B. The behavior pattern is stereotypes
C. The fixed action pattern is considered to be initiated by a sign stimulus
D. FAPs require learning

A

B. The behavior pattern is stereotypes

58
Q

Male goats will attempt to mate with goats who resemble the female goat who raised them. This is an example of..

A

Imprinting

59
Q

Imprinting is of benefit to organisms because it allows them to..

A

recognize a member of their own species

60
Q

Learned behavior that causes a family of baby ducks to follow their mother is called

A

imprinting

61
Q

A farmer buys a duck egg and hatches it in an incubator. The baby due, duckling follows the farmer every places possible after hatching. This is an example of…

A

Imprinting

62
Q

To train an animal, you try to reward each instance of desired behavior. In this very way, you can eventually get pigeons to play ping-pong. This system of reward, where animals are given a reward each time they respond correctly, usually in a. boxlike environment is called

A

operant conditioning

63
Q

A female peacock spider will only choose a mate with the proper markings and who performs the proper mating ritual. This is an example of…

A

Sexual selection

64
Q

Male elk may earn the right to mate with female elk by battling other males with their antlers. This is an example of…

A

intrasexual selection

65
Q

Natural selection might favor altruistic behaviors in closely related individuals because it..

A

increases the frequency of the altruistic individuals’ genes in the next generation.

66
Q

A nephew has a genetic relatedness of ___ to an uncle?

A

1/4

67
Q

Siblings who are not identical twins have a genetic relatedness of ___?

A

1/2

68
Q

A child has a genetic relatedness of ___ to a parent?

A

1/2

69
Q

First cousins have a genetic relatedness of ____?

A

1/8

70
Q

Why should a female butterfly choose a vibrantly colored male for mating?

A

Brightly colored males are healthier and more likely to produce healthy offspring

71
Q

The mating strategy in which a female mates with multiple males is called…

A

polyandry

72
Q

An example of territoriality is…

A

A red winged blackbird singing to ward off other males and attract a female to the nest in his fence row.

73
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about the bee waggle dance?
A. is a tactile form of behavior since it is done in a dark hive and other bees touch the dancing bee to get information
B. It is primarily a visual form of behavior as all dances are
C. The angle the bee moves to gravity communicates the angel a bee must fly compared to the position of the sun to find the food source
D. Bees can use the sun as a compass since they have an internal biological clock that allows them to compensate for the movement of the sun.

A

A. is a table form of behavior since it is done in a dark hive and the other bees touch the dancing bee to get information

74
Q

A number of populations of a different species interacting with one another in a natural environment, such as a rotten log, is called…

A

A community

75
Q

All the members of the same species that inhabit a particular area are termed a(n)

A

population

76
Q

which of the following would be LEAST likely to have an effect on biotic potential?
A. the number of offspring per reproduction
B. how often each individual reproduces
C. how often a male performs a courtship display
D. chances of survival until the age of reproduction

A

D. chances of survival until the age of reproduction

77
Q

When the number of births exceeds the number of deaths, this results in

A

population growth

78
Q

Under what conditions would one expect a negative population growth rate?

A

death rate is greater than birthrate

79
Q

A population expanding at the rate of 2-4-8-16-32-64… etc is in

A

exponential growth

80
Q

A population under exponential growth would be graphed with ____ - shaped curves

A

J

81
Q

The maximum population that the environment can support for an indefinite period of time is called the…

A

carrying capacity

82
Q

Population size is believed to level off at the _____ of an environment

A

carrying capacity

83
Q

The carrying capacity of the environment for a species is determined by…

A

The limited productivity of the environment and the environmental resistance to the biotic potential of the organism

84
Q

In a species with a type III survivorship curve

A

many individuals die early in life

85
Q

Interaction between two species in which one feeds on the other is…

A

predation

86
Q

A form of symbiosis in which one participant benefits and the other apparently is not benefited nor harmed is called..

A

commensalism

87
Q

A relationship in which two species live very close to each other and have close interactions is

A

symbiosis

88
Q

A former symbiosis in which both participants benefit is

A

mutualism

89
Q

Which is NOT a density-dependent factor?
A. Food supply
B. Weather
C. Shelter or Nest Space
D. Disease

A

Weather

90
Q

A population of 100 butterflies living on an acre of land loses three-quarters of its members when a sudden freeze in the spring occurs just after they emerge as caterpillars. this population has undergone a reduction in population size due to

A

a density-independent factor

91
Q

Ecology is best defined as the study of

A

organisms as they interact with other organisms and with their physical surroundings

92
Q

All of the organisms living in your front yard represent a(n) ______. while the blue jays represent a(n) ______.

A

community: population

93
Q

Consider that a species of salmon lays 20,000 eggs per pair when it spawns and dies. At the end of five years, an average of one pair of mature salmon from this group of hatched eggs returns again to spawn in the parent stream (19998 have died.) What is the per capita rate of increase?

A

zero, because there is exact replacement of the previous generation

94
Q

Which of the following is NOT a form of environmental resistance?
A. limited food supply
B. accumulation of waste products
C. number of offspring produced per litter
D. predation
E. limited living space

A

number of offspring produced per litter

95
Q

A population age structure diagram in which the birthrate is high and the population is mainly young would be best represented by a graph with a(n)

A

pyramid shape.

96
Q

The demographic transition where population growth speeds up and then slows in developed countries is due to a(n)

A

decreased death rate, followed by a decreased birthrate

97
Q

Which of the following is a biotic factor in an ecosystem?
A. parasites
B. water availability
C. temperature
D. sunlight

A

parasites

98
Q

An ecosystem consists of what two components?

A

biotic and abiotic factors

99
Q

In the biosphere which of the following is NOT constantly recycled?
A. carbon
B. nitrogen
C. water
D. energy

A

energy

100
Q

Ecologists have found that

A

energy flows one way through an ecosystem and requires an external input

101
Q

Energy flow in an ecosystem is NOT cyclic because energy is

A

no longer useful when it is converted to heat

102
Q

Fungi and bacteria are detritus-feeders also known as

A

decomposers

103
Q

Animals that feed on both plants and other animals are called

A

omnivores

104
Q

What only eats plant foods?

A

Herbivores

105
Q

The primary consumers that feed directly on green plants are called

A

Herbivores

106
Q

Which type of organism produces food in an ecosystem

A

autotroph

107
Q

Which kind of organism would be most likely to perform photosynthesis

A

autotroph

108
Q

The first step in the use of carbon by living organisms occurs in

A

green plants

109
Q

Which of the following is NOT a carbon reservoir?
A. living organisms
B. dead organisms
C. coal
D. ammonium and nitrates

A

ammonium and nitrates

110
Q

which of the following statements is false regarding the carbon cycle?
A. Terrestrial plants take up carbon dioxide from the air
B. Aquatic plants exchange carbon dioxide directly with the atmosphere
C. Algae produce food for themselves and for heterotrophs
D. When organisms respire, a portion of carbon is returned to the atmosphere as carbon dioxide
E. The amount of bicarbonate in the water is in equilibrium with the amount of carbon dioxide in the air

A

Aquatic plants exchange carbon dioxide directly with the atmosphere

111
Q

Atmospheric carbon serves as

A

An exchange pool for carbon that is available to plants for photosynthesis

112
Q

A carbon atom starts as carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. It is brought into a sugar molecule by a plant. The sugar is eaten by a deer and is converted back to carbon dioxide in a deer mitochondrion. The carbon dioxide is then exhaled back to the atmosphere through what parts of the carbon cycle did it pass

A

exchange pool to living organism to living organism to exchange pool

113
Q

Which of the biogeochemical cycles involves bacteria move chemicals into or out of the exchange pool?

A

Nitrogen and Carbon

114
Q

Given that the most nutrients can dissolve into water, which of the following statements is FALSE?

A

N2 dissolves into water droplets and is carried to the earth to be used by producers

115
Q

When a plant produces food by photosynthesis, why is the fate of food stored as sugars, starches, etc.

A

A portion of the food is used by the plant itself in cellular respiration and the rest is consumed. by animals or by decomposers

116
Q

Energy flow in an ecosystem is NOT cyclic because energy is

A

no longer useful when it is converted to heat

117
Q

Inverted ecological pyramids can occur in what habitat

A

ocean shorelines with algae

118
Q

which of the following organisms would be considered a decomposer?
A. mushrooms
B. green algae
C. plant
D. caterpillar

A

Mushrooms

119
Q

How are omnivores, carnivores and herbivores similar?

A

They are all consumers and produce carbon dioxide

120
Q

Once a nutrient enter an ecosystem it

A

can cycle endless in that ecosystem

121
Q

True or False: A bird that lives in a forest is a part of the forest ecosystem

A

True

122
Q

Ecological pyramids shows the relative

A

biomass at each level

Principles of Biology (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions