Unit 1 - Ethics Flashcards

1
Q

It is determined that a staff nurse has a drug abuse problem. What approach to the staff nurse’s addiction should be taken as an initial intervention?

1
Counseled by the staff psychiatrist
2
Dismissed from the job immediately
 Correct3
Referred to the employee assistance program
4
Forced to promise to abstain from drugs in the future
A

3
Referred to the employee assistance program

Referral to the employee assistance program is a nonpunitive approach that attempts to help the nurse as an individual and as a professional. Counseling by the staff psychiatrist may be necessary for long-term therapy but is not the initial approach. Dismissing the nurse from the job immediately is a punitive nontherapeutic response that offers no chance of rehabilitation. The client has an addiction problem; promises will not keep the client from abusing drugs.

Test-Taking Tip: Become familiar with reading questions on a computer screen. Familiarity reduces anxiety and decreases errors.

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2
Q

A nurse fails to act in a reasonable, prudent manner. Which legal principle is most likely to be applied?

1
Malice
2
Tort law
3
Malpractice
4
Case law
A

3
Malpractice

Malpractice is the unskilled or faulty treatment by a professional that causes injury or harm to a client. It can result from a lack of professional knowledge or skill that can be expected in others in the profession, or from a failure to exercise reasonable care or judgment in the application of professional knowledge, experience, or skill. Malice is the desire or intent to inflict injury, harm, or suffering. Tort law is a wrongful act, not including a breach of contract of trust, that results in injury to another person and for which the injured person is entitled to compensation. Case law is law established by judicial decisions in particular cases instead of by legislative action.

Test-Taking Tip: Look for answers that focus on the client or are directed toward feelings.

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3
Q
A client requires emergency cardiac surgery. The leader nurse wants to make the client aware of the situation and wants the client to decide what should be done. Which ethical model does the leader nurse follow here?
 1
Autonomy model
2
Paternalistic model
3
Social justice model
4
Patient-benefit model
A

1) Autonomy Model

The autonomy model facilitates making decisions for competent clients. In the paternalistic model the managers decide what is best for their team. The social justice model considers broad social issues and is accountable to the overall institution. The patient-benefit model uses substituted judgment, that is, what the client would want for himself or herself if capable of making these issues known.

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4
Q

A nurse concludes that clients who receive intravenous (IV) fluids rather than total parenteral nutrition for gastrointestinal problems lose weight for what reason?

1
Lack of bulk in the diet
2
Deficient carbohydrate intake
3
Insufficient intake of water-soluble vitamins
4
Increasing concentrations of electrolytes in the cells
A

2) Deficient carbohydrate intake

Intravenous fluids supply minimal calories; a client receiving only intravenous fluids will lose weight and become malnourished. Lack of bulk in the diet is not related to weight; lack of bulk in the diet results in constipation. Vitamins are not related to weight loss. Intracellular electrolytes are not related to weight loss.

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5
Q

A registered nurse is educating a nursing student about assault. What information should the registered nurse provide?

1) “Assault refers to any action of intentional touching without consent.”
2) “A procedure performed without the consent of the client is considered assault.”
3) “Assault refers to any action that places a client in apprehension of harmful contact without consent.”
4) “Threatening a client before performing a medical procedure is not considered assault.”

A

3) “Assault refers to any action that places a client in apprehension of harmful contact without consent.”

Assault does not require actual physical contact. Any action that places the client in apprehension of a harmful contact without consent is considered to be assault. Battery refers to any action of intentional touching without consent. Medical procedures performed without the consent of the client are considered to be battery.

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6
Q

A nursing team leader identifies that a nurse is coming to work after drinking alcohol. What is the most appropriate way for the team leader to approach this ethical situation?

1) Counsel the nurse about the problem.
2) Ignore the problem until it happens again.
3) Notify the nurse manager about the problem.
4) Resolve the problem by sending the nurse home.

A

3) Notify the nurse manager about the problem.

The assessment phase of problem solving consists of collecting data. The next step involves exploring options to address the problem; this is best accomplished in collaboration with the nurse manager. Counseling the nurse about the problem is not the role of a nurse; the nurse who has been drinking needs professional counseling. Ignoring the problem until it happens again is unsafe; clients may be placed in jeopardy. Resolving the problem by sending the nurse home delays addressing the problem.

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7
Q

In order to prolong a hospitalization stay, the nurse documents in a client’s electronic health record (EHR) that there are no signs of recovery. However, in reality, the client appears to be cured of the illness. What legal implication does the nurse’s action have?

1) The nurse may be charged with libel.
2) The nurse may be charged with slander.
3) The nurse may be charged with malpractice.
4) The nurse may be charged with invasion of privacy.

A

1)The nurse may be charged with libel.

Written defamation of character is known as libel. The nurse may be charged with libel because he or she makes false entries in the client’s medical records. Speaking falsely about another individual amounts to slander. Malpractice occurs if nursing care falls below the professional standards of care. If the nurse divulges a client’s medical information to unauthorized personnel, this action is an invasion of privacy.

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8
Q

A nurse manager in charge of a unit overhears two nurses in a hall filled with visitors discussing a client on the unit who has AIDS. What should be the nurse manager’s initial action?

1) Place an incident report in each nurse’s personnel record.
2) Note the situation and intervene if it happens again.
3) Inform the nurse who is in the role of supervisor for the shift.
4) Have a conference with the nurses and talk about the need for confidentiality.

A

4)Have a conference with the nurses and talk about the need for confidentiality.

Breach of confidentiality violates the client’s right to privacy. This situation must be explored with nurses immediately to prevent it from happening again. Placing an incident report in each nurse’s personnel record may be done eventually, but it is not the initial intervention. Reports should not be placed in personnel records without an individual’s knowledge. Noting the situation and intervening if it happens again is irresponsible, because the nurses may violate another client’s right to privacy in the future. Although informing the nurse who is in the role of supervisor for the shift may be done eventually, it is the responsibility of the nurses’ immediate supervisor (the unit’s nurse manager) to intervene immediately.

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9
Q

The family of an older adult who is aphasic reports to the nurse manager that the primary nurse failed to obtain a signed consent before inserting an indwelling catheter to measure hourly output. What should the nurse manager consider before responding?

1) Procedures for a client’s benefit do not require a signed consent.
2) Clients who are aphasic are incapable of signing an informed consent.
3) A separate signed informed consent for routine treatments is unnecessary.
4) A specific intervention without a client’s signed consent is an invasion of rights.

A

3) A separate signed informed consent for routine treatments is unnecessary.

This is considered a routine procedure to meet basic physiologic needs and is covered by a consent signed at the time of admission. The need for consent is not negated because the procedure is beneficial. This treatment does not require special consent.

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10
Q

A visitor from a room adjacent to a client asks the nurse what disease the client has. The nurse responds, “I cannot discuss any client’s illness with you.” What legal issue supports the nurse’s response?

1) Libel
2) Slander
3) Negligence
4) Invasion of privacy

A

4) Invasion of privacy

The release of information to an unauthorized person, such as gossiping about a client or unwanted intrusion into private family matters, constitutes invasion of privacy. Libel occurs when a person writes false statements about another person that may injure the individual’s reputation. Slander occurs when a person verbally defames, detracts from, or maligns another’s reputation. Negligence is a careless act of omission or commission that results in injury to another person.

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11
Q

The nurse is preparing a client for epidural anesthesia. Which client statement would cause the nurse to stop the placement of the epidural catheter?

1) “I’m not exactly sure how an epidural works.”
2) “I understand that the epidural might or might not take my pain away.”
3) “I signed the consent form for an epidural at my last clinic appointment.”
4) “I’m aware that the epidural could cause my contractions to slow down.”

A

1) “I’m not exactly sure how an epidural works.”

A description of the various anesthetic techniques and what they entail is essential to informed consent, even if the woman received information about analgesia and anesthesia earlier in her pregnancy. Nurses play a significant role in the informed consent process by clarifying and describing procedures or by acting as the woman’s advocate and asking the primary healthcare provider for further explanation. There are three essential components of an informed consent. First, the procedure and its advantages and disadvantages must be thoroughly explained. Second, the woman must agree with the plan of labor pain management as explained to her. Third, her consent must be given freely without coercion or manipulation from the healthcare provider.

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12
Q

The nurse manager uses operant conditioning when managing the staff by providing positive reinforcement to motivate them to repeat constructive behavior. Which leadership theory is reflected in this practice?

1) Hierarchy of needs
2) Transformational theory
3) Situational contingency theory
4) Organizational behavior (OB) modification

A

4)Organizational behavior (OB) modification

OB modification theory is applied by providing positive reinforcement to the staff to motivate them to repeat constructive behaviors in the workplace. Awareness of the hierarchy of needs can be used to understand what motivates staff; for example, the need for security will override social needs. Transformational theory does not utilize operant conditioning for motivation. Situational contingency theory is applied to consider the challenge of a situation and encourages an adaptive leadership style to complement the issue being faced.

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13
Q

A client is scheduled for skin cancer surgery and has not signed the consent form. Which situation will cause the nurse to legally delay signing the operative consent?

1) Ambivalent feelings are present and acknowledged.
2) A sedative type of medication has been given recently.
3) A complete history and physical has not been performed and recorded.
4) A discussion of alternatives with two primary healthcare providers has not occurred.

A

2) A sedative type of medication has been given recently.

Sedation may interfere with the client’s knowledge of the consent form. Many clients face contradictory feelings regarding their impending surgery, but their consent is legal unless they withdraw the consent. A complete history and physical examination are needed before surgery, but they do not affect the legality of consent. A second opinion is not required for a consent to be legal.

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14
Q

What professional responsibility does the nurse display as a client’s advocate?

1
The nurse protects the client’s human and legal rights and provides assistance in asserting said rights.
2
The nurse actively collaborates with other healthcare professionals to follow the best treatment plan for a client.
3
The nurse explains concepts and facts about health, describes the reason for routine care activities, and demonstrates procedures.
4
The nurse establishes an environment for collaborative client-centered care to provide safe, quality care with positive client outcomes.

A

1
The nurse protects the client’s human and legal rights and provides assistance in asserting said rights.

As a client’s advocate, the nurse protects the client’s human and legal rights and provides assistance in asserting these rights. Autonomy is an essential element of professional nursing that helps the nurse to actively collaborate with other healthcare professionals to follow the best treatment plan for a client. As an educator, the nurse explains concepts and facts about health, describes the reason for routine care activities, and demonstrates procedures to the client and family members. As a manager, the nurse establishes an environment for collaborative client-centered care to provide safe, quality care with positive client outcomes.

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15
Q
A nurse notes that a famous client has received an incorrect dose of medication due to the malfunction of the intravenous (IV) device, but does not inform the primary healthcare provider. Instead the nurse tells a colleague that the medication could not be given due to the client’s inappropriate behavior. The nurse then updates media personnel about the client’s health status. What legal charges may be brought up against the nurse? Select all that apply.
1 
Libel
2 
Assault
3 
Slander
4 
Malpractice
5 
Invasion of privacy
A

3) Slander
4) Malpractice
5) Invasion of Privacy

Speaking falsely about a person is known as slander. In the given situation, the nurse misinforms the colleague about the client’s behavior. This action may damage the client’s reputation. Malpractice occurs when nursing care falls below the professional standards of care due to negligent acts. Because the nurse does not inform the primary health care provider about the incorrect medication dosage, the nurse may be charged with malpractice. Because the nurse informs media personnel about the client’s health status, the nurse may be charged with invasion of privacy. The nurse will not be charged with libel because he or she did not document false information in the client’s records. Because the nurse did not threaten the client or place him or her in physical or psychological danger, charges of assault will not be brought up.

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16
Q
A nurse assisting in a research study calculates the risk-benefit ratio and concludes that there were no harmful effects associated with a survey of diabetic clients. This researcher was applying which principle?
1
Human dignity
2
Human rights
3
Beneficence
4
Utilitarianism
A

3
Beneficence

Beneficence is defined as the promotion of well-being and abstaining from the injuring of others as well as doing good and being kind and charitable. In this situation, the possible benefits outweigh the possible harm for the clients participating in a research study. Human dignity and human rights are underlying principles of research ethics but are not directly related to the risk-benefit ratio here. Utilitarianism relates to the ethical doctrine that virtue is based on utility, and that conduct should be directed toward promoting the greatest good for the greatest number of people.

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17
Q
Which decision-making strategy involves systematic collection and summarization of opinions and judgments on a particular issue from the respondents?
1
Focus group
2
Brainstorming
3
Delphi technique
4
Normal group technique
A

3
Delphi technique

The Delphi technique is a decision-making strategy that involves systematic collection and summarization of opinions and judgments on a particular issue from respondents in order to achieve consensus among the team members and the leader. The purpose of a focus group strategy is to explore issues, identify problems, and generate information. Brainstorming strategy can be an effective method for generating a large volume of creative and innovative ideas irrespective of criticism. Normal group technique strategy gives opportunity to the group members to provide input into the decision-making process.

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18
Q

A registered nurse is educating a nursing student about risk management methods to ensure that appropriate nursing care is provided to a client by identifying and eliminating potential hazards. What information should the registered nurse provide? Select all that apply.
1
“If an incident occurs, document in the client’s medical record that an occurrence report has been filed.”
2
“Ensure that the three principles of The Joint Commission’s Universal Protocol are adhered to before starting a surgery on a client.”
3
“Refrain from depending on the use of electronic monitoring devices completely because they are not always reliable.”
4
“File an occurrence report in case of an error in technique when administering medication intravenously (IV).”
5
“Document that the healthcare provider was contacted, the information that was conveyed, and the response in the occurrence report.”

A

2
“Ensure that the three principles of The Joint Commission’s Universal Protocol are adhered to before starting a surgery on a client.”
3
“Refrain from depending on the use of electronic monitoring devices completely because they are not always reliable.”
4
“File an occurrence report in case of an error in technique when administering medication intravenously (IV).”

The nurse should ensure that the three principles of the protocol are adhered to before starting surgery. This is done to prevent an incorrect surgery. The nurse should not rely on electronic monitoring devices completely because they are not always reliable. Constant assessment of a client is essential to help document the accuracy of electronic monitoring. The nurse should file an occurrence report in case of an error in technique when administering medication intravenously (IV) to the client. This is done to prevent recurrence of the error and to alert hospital authorities about the situation. The nurse should never document in the client’s medical record that an occurrence report has been filed, because this report is confidential and is kept separated from other medical records. The nurse should document that the healthcare provider was contacted, what information was conveyed and the healthcare provider’s response. This helps to defend against a lawsuit. However, this information should not be documented in the occurrence report.

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19
Q

A parent objects to the child’s getting vaccinated because she believes that vaccinations can cause autism. However, a nurse gives the child the vaccination injection against the wishes of the mother. What legal charge may be brought against the nurse?

1
Assault
2
Battery
3
Invasion of privacy
4
False imprisonment
A

2) Battery

Battery is any intentional touching without consent. Because the nurse has administered the injection without obtaining consent, he or she is liable for a charge of battery. Assault is any action that places a person in apprehension of harmful or offensive contact without consent. Invasion of privacy involves unwanted intrusion into the private affairs of a client. False imprisonment means unjustified restraint of a person without a legal warrant.

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20
Q

A registered nurse is educating a nursing student about abortion-related issues. Which statement provided by the nursing student post-teaching needs correction?

1
“If a woman is in her first trimester, she may end her pregnancy according to state regulations.”
2
“In the third trimester when the fetus becomes viable, the state’s interest is to protect the fetus.”
3
“If the fetus is over 28 weeks old, the state requires viability tests before conducting abortions.”
4
“In the second trimester, the state enforces regulation regarding the person performing the abortion and the abortion facility.”

A

1
“If a woman is in her first trimester, she may end her pregnancy according to state regulations.”

A woman may end her pregnancy in the first trimester without state regulation because the risk of natural mortality from abortion is less than regular childbirth. In the third trimester when the fetus becomes viable, the state’s interest is to protect the fetus. Thus, the state forbids abortion unless it is required to save the mother. If the fetus is over 28 weeks of gestational age, then some states require viability tests before conducting abortions. In the second trimester, the state enforces regulations for the person performing the abortion because it has an interest in protecting maternal health.

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21
Q

A nurse in the family planning clinic reviews the health history of a sexually active 16-year-old girl whose chief concern is a thick, burning discharge accompanied by a burning sensation and lower abdominal pain. After an examination the girl is informed that she may have a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that requires treatment. The adolescent is concerned that her parents will discover that she has been sexually active and asks the nurse whether her parents will be contacted. What should the nurse explain regarding informing the client’s parents?

1
They need to know about and sign a consent form for testing and treatment.
2
They will not be contacted, because treatment at the clinic is confidential.
3
They will be notified when the insurance company is billed for testing and treatment.
4
They will remain uninformed if the adolescent ensures that her sexual contacts will come for testing.

A

2
They will not be contacted, because treatment at the clinic is confidential.

Federal law allows family planning clinics to maintain minors’ confidentiality, although individual states may have different regulations; there is a concern that these teenagers will not seek or continue treatment if they fear disclosure. To maintain confidentiality, family planning clinics treat these adolescents as emancipated minors who can sign their own consent forms. Most family planning clinics receive funding and charge on a sliding scale based on income, thus encouraging adolescents to seek treatment. Telling the client that her parents will not be notified as long as she ensures that her sexual contacts come in for testing could be viewed as coercion; if the STI is reportable, follow-up of sexual partners is indicated, but the adolescent is not responsible for ensuring that they report for testing.

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22
Q

In what instances can a minor give consent for himself or herself for medical treatment? Select all that apply.

1
The minor can give consent for his or her siblings.
2
The minor can give consent for any venereal disease.
3
The minor can give consent if he or she is lawfully married.
4
The minor can give consent for a drug or substance abuse.
5
The minor can give consent for an abortion

A

2
The minor can give consent for any venereal disease.
3
The minor can give consent if he or she is lawfully married.
4
The minor can give consent for a drug or substance abuse.

A minor can give consent for himself or herself for medical treatment if he or she has any venereal disease. A minor can give consent for himself or herself for medical treatment if he or she is lawfully married. A minor can give consent for himself or herself for any drug or substance abuse issues. A minor cannot give consent for his or her siblings. A minor can give consent for pregnancy-related issues, except abortions.

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23
Q
A staff member is planning to start a new job but is worried about the impact it might have on future growth opportunities. The nurse leader is helping the staff member understand all the implications. Which ethical principle is the nurse manager as a leader following?
1
Justice
2
Veracity
3
Paternalism
4
Non-maleficence
A

3
Paternalism

Paternalism is assisting people to make decisions when they do not have sufficient data or expertise. Helping the staff member understand all effects of a possible career change and how the potential change could impact his or her future growth reflects the leader nurse following paternalism .Justice is the principle of treating all persons equally and fairly. By following veracity, the nurse manager tells the truth and demands that the truth be told completely. The principle of non-maleficence states that one should do no harm to others.

24
Q

A nursing student is listing the characteristics of an ethical issue. Which point listed by the nursing student requires correction?

1
An ethical issue occurs if it is perplexing and if it is not easy to think logically or make a decision.
2
An ethical issue occurs if it is not possible to resolve solely through a review of scientific data.
3
An ethical issue occurs if the problem aims at the greatest good for the greatest number of people.
4
An ethical issue occurs if the answer to the problem has a profound relevance for areas of human concern.

A

3
An ethical issue occurs if the problem aims at the greatest good for the greatest number of people.

The utilitarianism system of ethics decides on the right action based on the greatest good for the greatest number of people. This is not a characteristic feature of an ethical dilemma. A situation can be called an ethical dilemma if it fulfills one of three conditions. An ethical issue is challenging and generally cannot be solved through logical decision-making. An ethical issue cannot be solved solely through a review of scientific data. If the answer to a specific problem has a profound relevance for areas of human concern, then it is an ethical issue.

25
Q

A nurse developed and implemented a discharge teaching plan based on the specific needs of a hospitalized client. Which element of decision-making does the primary nurse exhibit in this situation?

1
Authority
2
Autonomy
3
Responsibility
4
Accountability
A

2
Autonomy

Autonomy refers to the freedom of making choices and the responsibility for making those choices. A professional nurse can make independent decisions and plan nursing care for a client within the scope of the nursing practice. Authority refers to the legitimate power to give commands and make final decisions specific to a given position. Responsibility refers to duties and activities an individual is employed to perform. Accountability refers to individuals being answerable for their actions.

26
Q

What information should the registered nurse provide when educating a nursing student about living wills? Select all that apply.
1
Health care workers should always follow the directions of a client’s living will.
2
Living wills provide clinically specific instructions that help in dealing with unforeseen circumstances.
3
Clients use living wills to declare any medical procedures they want or do not want when terminally ill.
4
Living wills are written documents that direct the client’s treatments in the event of a terminal illness or condition.

A

1
Health care workers should always follow the directions of a client’s living will.3
Clients use living wills to declare any medical procedures they want or do not want when terminally ill.
4
Living wills are written documents that direct the client’s treatments in the event of a terminal illness or condition.

Health care workers should follow the directions delineated by living wills because doing so protects these workers from liability. Clients declare what medical procedures they want or do not want done when they are terminally ill or in a vegetative state through living wills. A living will is a written document that directs the treatment of clients in the event of a terminal illness or condition. The directions are given according to the wishes of the client. Living wills are difficult to interpret. They are not clinically specific about the method of dealing with unforeseen circumstances. A durable power of attorney authorizes individuals to make medical decisions on behalf of the client if he or she is unable to do so.

27
Q

What key points should the nurse keep in mind about the legal implications of nursing practice? Select all that apply.

1
Ensure that the nurse knows all the laws and that these laws are applied in the nursing practice, whenever required.
2
Ensure that the primary healthcare providers’ orders are followed unless they appear to be incorrect or inappropriate.
3
Ensure that all incident and occurrence reports are filed only for errors that have caused injury to the client.
4
Ensure that the client has given consent to any surgery or therapy voluntarily or involuntarily.
5
Ensure that the nurse can makes a formal protest to the nursing administrator if he or she is asked to take care of more clients than is reasonable.

A

1
Ensure that the nurse knows all the laws and that these laws are applied in the nursing practice, whenever required.

2
Ensure that the primary healthcare providers’ orders are followed unless they appear to be incorrect or inappropriate.

5
Ensure that the nurse can makes a formal protest to the nursing administrator if he or she is asked to take care of more clients than is reasonable.

The nurse should have knowledge of all the laws and apply them in nursing practice, whenever required, to prevent any legal complications. The nurse should ensure that the primary healthcare providers’ orders are followed unless they appear to be incorrect or inappropriate. The nurse should approach the nursing administration to make a formal protest if he or she needs to take care of more clients than is reasonable. The nurse should ensure that all the incident and occurrence reports are filed for errors even when someone is not injured. The nurse should ensure that the client has given informed consent for any surgery or therapy voluntarily.

28
Q

The nurse in the emergency department identifies that the admission consent form signed by a critically ill client is not legible. Which statement best reflects the status of this consent?

1
Consent is legal.
2
Signature is illegal.
3
Critically ill clients cannot sign a consent form.
4
Family members should sign for clients whose signatures are illegible.
A

1
Consent is legal.

If a competent adult gives informed consent and the signature is witnessed, it is a legal document even if the signature is illegible or the client is critically ill. The signature is legal even if it is illegible. The signature is legal even if the client is critically ill. A cosignature is not required as long as the client is competent and the signature is witnessed.

29
Q

A nurse signs as a witness to informed consent provided by the client. What does the signature of the nurse imply? Select all that apply.
1
That the client’s signature is authentic
2
That the client has given consent voluntarily
3
That the client appears to be competent to give consent
4
That the client cannot refuse treatment after its initiation
Incorrect5
That the client has received a proper explanation of procedures from the nurse

A

1
That the client’s signature is authentic
2
That the client has given consent voluntarily
3
That the client appears to be competent to give consent

When a nurse signs as a witness to informed consent, the signature implies that the client’s signature is authentic. The signature also implies that the client has consented to the procedure voluntarily and that the client appears to be competent enough to give consent. A client has the right to refuse treatment, even after its initiation. The nurse is not the appropriate person to provide explanations regarding procedures to obtain consent.

30
Q

A nurse is reviewing the key responsibilities of a primary healthcare provider for obtaining consent from a client before performing a medical procedure. Which key responsibilities have been accurately stated? Select all that apply.

1
“The client receives a complete explanation of the procedure or treatment.”
2
“The client knows that he or she cannot refuse the treatment after the procedure has begun.”
3
“The client receives an explanation of alternative therapies and the risks of doing nothing.”
4
“The client knows that he or she has the right to refuse treatment which may lead to a discontinuation of other supportive care.”
5
“The client receives a description of the risks, including death, which may occur due to the procedure and anticipated pain and/or discomfort.”

A

1
“The client receives a complete explanation of the procedure or treatment.”

3
“The client receives an explanation of alternative therapies and the risks of doing nothing.”

5
“The client receives a description of the risks, including death, which may occur due to the procedure and anticipated pain and/or discomfort.”

The primary healthcare provider has key responsibilities towards clients when obtaining consent before performing a procedure or initiating a treatment. The primary healthcare provider should provide a complete explanation to the client regarding the proposed procedure or treatment. The client should also be briefed about other courses of treatment and the risks of not opting for any treatment plan. The client should be informed about all the major and minor potential risks of the prescribed treatment and the amount of pain or discomfort he or she may experience. The client should be informed that he or she may refuse treatment even after the procedure has begun. The client should be aware that he or she may refuse the prescribed treatment plan without the fear of discontinuing other supportive care.

31
Q

A nurse notes that the primary healthcare provider has scheduled a surgery for an unconscious client. An informed consent has not yet been obtained. What course of action does the nurse expect to be taken to deal with the situation?
1
The client’s spouse will give informed consent for the surgery.
2
The procedure will be postponed till the client is able to give consent.
3
The surrogate decision maker designated by the client will give consent.
4
The primary healthcare provider will perform the procedure without waiting for consent.

A

3
The surrogate decision maker designated by the client will give consent.

If the client has legally designated a surrogate decision maker through a special power of attorney, the consent for the surgery should be obtained from him/her. The client’s spouse may give informed consent only if authorized to do so on the client’s behalf. The procedure need not be postponed if appropriate people are available to give informed consent on behalf of the client. A primary healthcare provider may perform the procedure without the consent only if it is an emergency situation and it is not possible to obtain consent from the client or other authorized personnel.

32
Q

A client who has participated in caring for her infant in the neonatal intensive care unit for several days in preparation for the infant’s discharge comes to the unit on the last hospital day with an alcohol odor on her breath and slurred speech. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this juncture?
1
Speak with the mother about her condition and assess her willingness to participate in an alternate discharge plan.
2
Request that the mother wait in the hospital lobby and call the primary healthcare provider to cancel the discharge order.
3
Speak to the mother about her condition and have her see a social worker about the infant’s discharge to a foster home.
4
Continue with the discharge procedure and alert the home health nurse that the mother needs an immediate follow-up visit.

A

1
Speak with the mother about her condition and assess her willingness to participate in an alternate discharge plan.

Confrontation regarding the active substance abuse and the mother’s diminished ability to care for the infant safely at this time is necessary to help the mother obtain help and to protect the infant. Decisions should not be made without input from the mother. Continuing with the discharge procedure and alerting the home health nurse that the mother needs an immediate follow-up visit is unsafe; the mother may not be capable of caring for the infant.

33
Q

A nurse leader wants to implement the principle of non-maleficence while evaluating the staff. What is an effective way to perform this action?
1
Fulfilling the commitment of promotion to a preceptor position within the unit
2
Emphasizing the good qualities of the staff and giving positive direction for growth
3
Acknowledging the right of individuals to make decisions and to live by these decisions
4
Deciding which staff members to promote or to recommend for development opportunities

A

2
Emphasizing the good qualities of the staff and giving positive direction for growth

The principle of non-maleficence states that one should not do harm. Therefore the approach towards this while evaluating the performance of staff includes emphasizing the staff’s good qualities and giving positive direction for growth. Fulfilling the commitment of promotion to a preceptor position within the unit is the principle of fidelity. Acknowledging the right of individuals to make decisions and to live by these decisions is respect for others. The principle of justice is used while deciding which staff members are to be promoted or recommended for development opportunities.

34
Q

The nurse manager of the unit comes to work obviously intoxicated. The staff nurse’s ethical obligation is to do what?
1
Call the security guard.
2
Tell the nurse manager to go home.
3
Have the supervisor validate the observation.
4
Offer the nurse manager a large cup of coffee.

A

3
Have the supervisor validate the observation.

The staff nurse should call the supervisor to confirm and deal with the problem. The security guard has no authority in this situation. Although sending the nurse manager home removes the nurse manager from the clinical setting, it does not provide for documentation of the situation; also, the nurse manager may be in no condition to go home independently. Drinking coffee does not make a person less intoxicated.

35
Q
A nurse who lacks confidence in her performance in a new position is worried about an upcoming review with the nursing director. What type of power does the nursing director hold in this scenario?
1
Expert power
2
Position power
3
Coercive power
4
Referent power
A

3
Coercive power

The nursing director holds coercive power. Coercive power arises from someone’s real or perceived fear of another person and may be caused by lack of confidence in performance in a new position or about an upcoming review with the nursing director. Expert power is based on one’s reputation for expertise and one’s credibility. Position power is achieved by virtue of one’s position within an organization or status within a group. Referent power is granted by association with a powerful person.

36
Q
The scope of professional nursing practice is determined by the rules promulgated by which organization?
a.
American Nurses’ Association (ANA)
b.
Institute of Medicine (IOM)
c.
State Board of Nursing
d.
State Nursing Association
A

ANS: C
Professional nursing practice is regulated by each state’s Board of Nursing. The ANA is the professional organization of registered nursing in the United States and may influence, but it does not regulate. The IOM collaborated with the Robert Wood Johnson Foundation to improve the fractured health care system in the United States, and it makes recommendations, not rules. The state nursing associations are state organizations of the ANA and may collaborate with the public and boards of nursing to promote nursing rules which improve health care.

REF: Page 382
OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

37
Q
A new registered nurse asks the registered nurse (RN) preceptor what could be done to become more professional. What is the preceptor’s best response?
a.
“Attend nursing educational meetings.”
b.
“Listen to other nurses.”
c.
“Read the agency newsletter.”
d.
“Pass the licensing exam.”
A

ANS: A
Knowledge and commitment are essential components of professionalism. Attending nursing educational meetings can promote collaborative learning with peers and maintenance of competence in an ever-changing health care environment. Listening can promote professionalism, and communication is certainly a component of professionalism; however, there is also a social sense to listening, and without the educational/learning component, this is not the best answer. An agency newsletter could include information about professional opportunities, but it is not the best answer. The new nurse would have already passed the licensing exam, the legal requirement to be considered a nurse.

REF: Page 385
OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

38
Q
The qualities of leadership, clinical expertise and judgment, mentorship, and lifelong learning would best describe which type of nurse?
a.
Administrator
b.
Certified nurse specialist
c.
Practitioner
d.
Professional
A

ANS: D
The qualities listed are those of a professional nurse. The other options are all nurses who may have these qualities, but the focus of their title includes qualities not essential for the professional nurse. The administrator would have management qualities; the clinical nurse specialist would have specialty area knowledge; and the practitioner would meet legal requirements as a health care provider.

REF: Page 377
OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

39
Q
The American Nurses’ Association (ANA) outlines expectations of the nursing profession in which type of documentation?
a.
Gallup poll
b.
Goldman report
c.
Social Policy Statement
d.
Social identity theory
A

ANS: C
The ANA’s Nursing’s Social Policy Statement outlines expectations of nurses. The national Gallup poll has found nursing to be one of the most trusted professions for their honesty and ethical standards almost every year, but it does not outline expectations. Emma Goldman was a radical anarchist nurse who advocated and cared for indigent women in New York. She demonstrated the expectations of a professional nurse. Social identity theory posits that social identity is derived from group membership and that most people work to attain a positive social identity, and it not specific to nursing.

REF: Page 382
OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

40
Q
What nursing recommendations are published in the Institute of Medicine (IOM’s) report The future of nursing: Leading change, advancing health?
a.
Teach, advocate, assess, and nurture.
b.
Should have a graduate degree to practice.
c.
Diagnose and recommend treatments.
d.
Must have continuing education.
A

ANS: A
Professional nurses teach, advocate, assess, and nurture. The IOM recommends that 80% of nurses have a minimum baccalaureate degree (not graduate degree) by 2020. Physicians diagnose and recommend treatments, and nurses provide the majority of these treatments. Lifelong learning is recommended, and some, not all, states require continuing education.

REF: Page 379
OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

41
Q
Nursing demonstrates dedication to improving public health through which avenue?
a.
Changing health care standards
b.
Legal regulations
c.
Scope of practice
d.
Technology
A

ANS: C
Through the scope of practice, specialized knowledge, and code of ethics, the discipline of nursing has demonstrated its dedication to improving public health. The changing health care environment is one of the challenges to nursing, not an indicator of dedication. Legal regulations are generally promulgated by legislators rather than nurses to protect the public. A highly technological environment is considered a challenge to nursing rather than an indicator of dedication.

REF: Page 379
OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

42
Q
Components of a professional identity in nursing include which attributes? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Accountability
b.
Advocacy
c.
Autonomy
d.
Competence
e.
Culture
A

ANS: A, B, C, D
The scope of professional identity in nursing includes: autonomy, knowledge, competence, professionalism, accountability, advocacy, collaborative practice, and commitment. Cultural sensitivity is important to professional nursing; however, culture is an inherent quality of nurses and patients, not a component of the professional identity.

REF: Page 379 |Page 380
OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

43
Q
A patient suffered a brain injury from a motor vehicle accident and has no brain activity. The patient has a living will which states no heroic measures. The family requests that no additional heroic measures be instituted for their son. The nurse respects this decision in keeping with which principle?
a.
Accountability
b.
Autonomy
c.
Nonmaleficence
d.
Veracity
A

ANS: B
Patients and families must be treated in a way that respects their autonomy and their ability to express their wishes and make informed choices about their treatment. Accountability is inherent in the nurse’s ethical obligation to uphold the highest standards of practice and care, assume full personal and professional responsibility for every action, and commit to maintaining quality in the skill and knowledge base of the profession. Nonmaleficence is a principle that implies a duty not to inflict harm. In ethical terms, nonmaleficence means to abstain from injuring others and to help others further their own well-being by removing harm and eliminating threats. Veracity means telling the truth as a moral and ethical requirement.

REF: Page 407
OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

44
Q
A male patient suffered a brain injury from a motor vehicle accident and has no brain activity. The spouse has come up to see the patient every day for the past 2 months. She asks the nurse, “Do you think when he moves his hands he is responding to my voice?” The nurse feels bad because she believes the movements are involuntary, and the prognosis is grim for this patient. She states, “He can hear you, and it appears he did respond to your voice.” The nurse is violating which principle of ethics?
a.
Autonomy
b.
Veracity
c.
Utilitarianism
d.
Deontology
A

ANS: B
Veracity is the principle of telling the truth in a given situation. Autonomy is the principle of respect for the individual person; this concept states that humans have incalculable worth or moral dignity. Utilitarianism is an approach that is rooted in the assumption that an action or practice is right if it leads to the greatest possible balance of good consequences or to the least possible balance of bad consequences. Giving the spouse false reassurance is not a good consequence. Deontologic theory claims that a decision is right only if it conforms to an overriding moral duty and wrong only if it violates that moral duty. Persons are to be treated as ends in themselves and never as means to the ends of others.

REF: Page 407
OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

45
Q

The nurse is faced with an ethical issue. When assessing the ethical issue, which action should the nurse perform first?
a.
Ask, “What is the issue?”
b.
Identify all possible alternatives.
c.
Select the best option from a list of alternatives.
d.
Justify the choice of action or inaction.

A

ANS: A
The first step in the situational assessment procedure is to find out the technical and scientific facts and assess the human dimension of the situation—the feelings, emotions, attitudes, and opinions. Trying to understand the full picture of a situation is time consuming and requires examination from many different perspectives, but it is worth the time and effort that is required to understand an issue fully before moving forward in the assessment procedure. Identifying alternatives is the second step in the situation assessment procedure. A set of alternatives cannot be established until an assessment has been completed. Selecting the best option is actually the third step in the situation assessment procedure. Options cannot be selected until an assessment has been done to define the issue. Justifying the action or inaction is the final step in the situational assessment procedure. No justification can be made until the assessment and action phases have been completed.

REF: Page 409
OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

46
Q
A nursing student is conducting a survey of fellow nursing students. Which ethical concept is the student following when calculating the risk-to-benefit ratio and concluding that no harmful effects were associated with a survey?
a.
Beneficence
b.
Human dignity
c.
Justice
d.
Human rights
A

ANS: A
Beneficence is a term that is defined as promoting goodness, kindness, and charity. In ethical terms, beneficence means to provide benefit to others by promoting their good. Human dignity is the inherent worth and uniqueness of a person. Justice involves upholding moral and legal principles. Human rights are the basic rights of each individual.

REF: Page 407
OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

47
Q
A nurse on the unit makes an error in the calculation of the dose of medication for a critically ill patient. The patient suffered no ill consequences from the administration. The nurse decides not to report the error or file an incident report. The nurse is violating which principle of ethics?
a.
Fidelity
b.
Individuality
c.
Justice
d.
Values clarification
A

ANS: A
Fidelity is the principle that requires us to act in ways that are loyal. In the role of a nurse, such action includes keeping your promises, doing what is expected of you, performing your duties, and being trustworthy. Individuality is something that distinguishes one person or thing from others. Injustice is when a person is denied a right or entitlement. Values clarification is a tool that allows the nurse to examine personal values in terms of ethical situations.

REF: Page 407
OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

48
Q
An unconscious patient is treated in the emergency department for head trauma. The patient is unconscious and on life support for 2 weeks prior to making a full recovery. The initial actions of the medical team are based on which ethical principle?
a.
Utilitarianism
b.
Deontology
c.
Autonomy
d.
Veracity
A

ANS: B
Deontology is an approach that is rooted in the assumption that humans are rational and act out of principles that are consistent and objective and that compel them to do what is right. Deontologic theory claims that a decision is right only if it conforms to an overriding moral duty and wrong only if it violates that moral duty. Utilitarianism is an approach that is rooted in the assumption that an action or practice is right if it leads to the greatest possible balance of good consequences or to the least possible balance of bad consequences. An attempt is made to determine which actions will lead to the greatest ratio of benefit to harm for all persons involved in the dilemma. Autonomy is the principle of respect for the individual person. People are free to form their own judgments and perform whatever actions they choose. Veracity is defined as telling the truth in personal communication as a moral and ethical requirement.

REF: Page 408
OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

49
Q
A drug-addicted nurse switches a patient's morphine injection with normal saline so that the nurse can use the morphine. The nurse is violating which principles of ethics? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Autonomy
b.
Utilitarianism
c.
Beneficence
d.
Dilemmas
e.
Veracity
A

ANS: A, B, C, E
Beneficence is providing benefit to others by promoting their welfare. In general terms, to be beneficent is to promote goodness, kindness, and charity. By taking the patient’s pain medication and substituting saline, the nurse did harm, not good, for the patient. Autonomy is the principle of respect for the individual person; the nurse does not respect someone upon whom the nurse is inflicting harm. Utilitarianism is the principle that assumes that an action is right if it leads to the greatest possible balance of good consequences or to the least possible balance of bad consequences. Because the patient’s pain medication was taken away, the consequences were all bad. Dilemmas are not included as a principle of ethics. Veracity involves truth-telling.

REF: Page 407
OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

50
Q

Nonmaleficence

A

Avoid harm to self and others

51
Q

Beneficence

A

Obligation to go good

52
Q

Justice

A

Treating people fairly, equitably, and appropriately

53
Q

Fidelity

A

Keeping promises and performing your duties and being trustworthy

54
Q

Ethics of Duty

A

Based on deontology in which moral dates are seen as self-evident requiring no further justification.

Moral action is then based on acting according to a specific duty simply because it is the right thing to do. Although the consequences of our actions are important, they are secondary consideration to duty and our intention to do the right thing.

The ethical question is “What is my duty?”

Ex. I discover a colleague is diverting narcotics and I report to nursing supervisor because that is what organizational policy requires, I have complied with ethical duty to report.

55
Q

Ethics of Consequence

A

Based on a teleological view that moral actions are defined entirely on the basis of the outcomes or consequences of an action.

“What action will promote the greatest good with the least harm?”

Reaching a particular goal is what defines the ethical justification of an act regardless of your sense of duty or moral intent.

56
Q

Ethics of Character

A

General category of virtue ethics.

Relies on the individual as the primary source of moral action.

Basic ethical question, “What is the wise action to take?”

57
Q

Ethics of Relationship

A

“What is the caring response?”

Primary attention is paid to preserving relationship, improving communication, enhancing cooperation and minimizing harm to everyone involved while promoting an ideal of caring.