Unit 1- Deck One Flashcards

1
Q

What are the key skills that a manager should have

A

Technical Skills
Conceptual Skills
Communication Skills
People Skills

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2
Q

What aspects of technical skills should a manager know

A

have the technical skills to get job done
understand what work has to be done
how it should be done
why the work is necessary
how much time should be allocated for the task
who on their team is capable of performing the work

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3
Q

Why are conceptual skills important for a manager

A

Analytical thinking allows managers to make decisions based on the information on hand, even if the information is incomplete

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4
Q

What are the activities that are expected from a manager/supervisor

A

Planning
Organizing
Staffing
Managing
Monitoring

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5
Q

What are the 3 steps in goal setting

A

Identify the goal
Decide on a strategy to achieve the goal
Determine the allocation of resources to attain the goal

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6
Q

What are some issues that must be considered when organizing and coordinating resources to meet the goal

A
  • What work has to be done
  • How that work can be divided into job-specific tasks
  • How to distribute the tasks to the staff in a fair and efficient way
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7
Q

How can you determine the workload of a single individual

A

By understanding the time it takes to complete the tasks and how many times a day the tasks are performed

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8
Q

What do you need to consider when prioritizing tasks and assigning work

A
  • the physical limitations of the staff and facility
  • The requirements of research being conducted
  • The species being used.
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9
Q

How can supervisors assist staff with ensuring they are completing tasks efficiently

A

by using standard operating procedures (SOPs) that outline the necessary steps to complete a task.

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10
Q

What are the downsides of inefficiency

A

It can lead to the need for more staffing and possibly overtime pay

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11
Q

What is one type of scheduling that can help provide adequate staffing

A

A non-traditional workday schedule

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12
Q

What is the best way to assign weekend and holiday shifts

A

On a rotating system

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13
Q

What are the benefits of a rotating weekend/holiday schedule

A

It can reduce budget expenditures and is perceived as fair by personnel

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14
Q

What is the basic principle for staffing

A

That an average person working at a reasonable pace should be able to complete assigned jobs within normal working hours

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15
Q

What are some physical limitiations of a facility

A
  • A small cage wash area may limit the number people working in it at any one time and can limit the number of cages cleaned
  • If the facility is old, staff may have idle or down time while waiting for equipment to be repaired or replaced
  • If a facility is filled to capacity, animal maintenance operations may slow because of a lack of space in which to move animals
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16
Q

How many tasks are typically listed in a job description

A

10-20 tasks

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17
Q

Why do you need to be cautious in the way that you present physical requirements in job descriptions

A

Because federal, state, local laws prohibit hiring discrimination on the basis local laws

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18
Q

What are “Hard Skills”

A

Skills that relate to specific experiences learning or performing a task
i.e, the knowledge, skills, and abilities of the candidate to perform the job.

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19
Q

What are “Soft Skills”

A

Skills that relate to interpersonal skills, communication styles, and other behaviors that are associated with candidate’s emotional intelligence quotient

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20
Q

What is behavioral-based interviewing

A

A process of asking candidates to describe a problem or situation they have encountered that relates to a skill or competency needed in the position

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21
Q

What items should not be discussed in a formal interview

A

Religious affiliations
Marital status
Age
Number of children
Childcare situation
Hobbies
Other personal information

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22
Q

What is the estimated cost to replace an employee

A

About 20% of the employee’s annual salary

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23
Q

What are the benefits of hiring someone who is underqualified

A
  • Lower financial burden
  • Limited influence and job bias from previous positions
  • Ability to train on tasks without influence from previous jobs
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24
Q

What are the downsides of hiring an underqualified person

A
  • More time needed for training
  • Longer to get up to speed on tasks
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25
Q

What are the benefits of hiring an overqualified person

A
  • Quickly get up to speed on tasks
  • Less time needed for training
  • Higher skills at a lower salary due to the financial limits of the position
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26
Q

What are the downsides of hiring an overqualified person

A
  • Easily bored
  • May leave sooner than desired
  • Higher salary requirements
  • Previous job bias regarding procedures to complete tasks
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27
Q

What are some of the consequences of disregarding the needs of the employees

A
  • low morale
  • absenteeism
  • high turnover rate
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28
Q

What are the 6 levels of Maslows hierarchy of needs

A
  1. Physiological needs
    o fair salary
    o adequate vacation and holidays
    o proper scheduling and workload
  2. Safety need
  3. Belonging and social needs
  4. Esteem needs- relate to being recognized and having a sense of self-worth
  5. Self-actualization is characterized by personal growth and fulfilment
  6. Transcendence - achieved when an employee gains satisfaction from assisting in the development of others’ competencies and character
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29
Q

According to employee surveys, what are the highest-ranked motivational factors

A

Professional growth
Thinking independently
Being part of a team
Being treated with respect

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30
Q

What 3 questions should you ask when deciding the best way to manage ones time

A
  1. Is what you are doing necessary?
  2. Is it appropriate?
  3. Is it efficient in accomplishing your goals?
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31
Q

What are some reasons that supervisors may be reluctant to delegate jobs

A

Not being comfortable with authority
Fear of losing control over certain responsibilities within the facility
Because they enjoy doing the task themselves and do not want to give it up

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32
Q

What are the 3 different types of evaluation feedback

A
  • informal (ongoing)
  • periodic
  • annual
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33
Q

When giving negative feedback, what is one thing that is good to do to make it a more positive experience

A

Try to express what they might do the next time or demonstrate a better way to perform a task.

For example, you might say, “When you pick up the animal the next time, try to do it this way.”

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34
Q

When giving negative feedback, what should be focused on

A

On the action

For example, saying “this needs to be done with a longer needle” is preferable to “you should use a longer needle.”

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35
Q

What are some examples of employee concerns

A
  • Time and attendance issues
  • lack of attention to detail
  • improper documentation
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36
Q

Why is it important to address issues immediately

A

Because if the employee believes that the behavior is acceptable and will not understand if you identify it as a problem at a later

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37
Q

What are the steps in a progressive disciplinary process

A

Verbal warning
Written warning
Final written warning

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38
Q

What things should be included in a written warning

A

A written description of the issue
The previous conversations that have taken place with the employee, including the dates of those conversations
A description of the verbal warning conversation with what could occur if those expectations are not met

39
Q
A
40
Q

What is training

A

The process of bringing a person to an agreed standard of competency or proficiency by instruction and/or practice

41
Q

What does competency refer to

A

One’s ability to perform a procedure to an acceptable standard

42
Q

What does proficiency refer to

A

One’s ability to consistently perform a task with accuracy and efficiency

43
Q

What are the benefits of training

A

Strengthen employee knowledge
Increasing job satisfaction

44
Q

Why should supervisors avoid using trainings as an easy to implement solution for job related issues

A

Because the staff with associate training with punishment and resist learning

45
Q

What are some things that all individuals who work with animals need training on

A

Occupational health and safety
Disaster preparedness
Reporting of animal safety

46
Q

What are the 5 phases for developing a training program

A

Analyze
Design
Develop
Implement
Evaluate

47
Q

What are some key things that adult learners want to understand

A

The importance of the info presented
Relevance to their job
The immediate problem or concern

48
Q

What type of training do adult learners tend to prefer

A

Experiential training

49
Q

What are some intrinsic motivations for training

A

Pleasure from the learning experience itself
Improvement of one’s self concept

50
Q

What are some extrinsic motivations for training

A

Money
Grades
Promotions

51
Q

What are some key attributes for learning objectives

A

Specific
Measurable
Attainable
Relevant
Time-bound

52
Q

What should you avoid when using presentation software with trainings

A

Excessive:
movements
Animations
Sounds

53
Q

What are the two important functions of management that lead to effective resolutions of problems

A

Planning and organization

54
Q

What are some things that may impact the resolution of a problem

A

Staffing
Resources
Animal welfare
Desired outcomes

55
Q

What are the phases of project management

A

Initiating
Planning
Accomplishing
Controlling
Closing the work

56
Q

What happens during the initiation phase of project management

A

The process, the nature and scope of the project are determined
Analyzing the needs or requirements in measurable goals
Reviewing current operations
Cost/benefit analysis
Budget development
Stakeholders analysis

57
Q

What are some examples of Vivarium needs that managers need to factor in

A

Quarantine spaces
Procedure rooms
Animal housing rooms
Cage wash rooms
Behavioral space
Biohazard/radiation areas
Diagnostic/necropsy areas
Surgical areas

58
Q

What are SOPs meant to provide

A

The who, what, where, when, how and possibly why a task is performed

59
Q

What are some suggestions for writing clear SOPs

A

Use simple words and short active sentences
Avoid overusing acronyms and define any used
Follow in chronological order and clearly indicate the order of the steps
Use figures and diagrams when needed
Do not intermix general background information with the step-by-step instructions

60
Q

What are the benefits of centralized facilities

A

More efficient because the economy of scale, managing security and staffing
Easier to ensure regulatory compliance and oversight

61
Q

What are the benefits of decentralized facilities

A

More convenient for researchers
The physical separation of different groups of animals may help limit propagation of infectious diseases

62
Q

What are two ways to minimize chemical hazards

A

Replace more toxic chemicals with less toxic ones
Follow disposal instructions appropriately to prevent environmental contamination

63
Q

What are some ways that mechanical equipment can save resources

A

Set cage washers to lowest temp required
Use final rinse of previous load as the first rinse of the next load
Set sterilizers to use the lowest energy possible
Use dry heat instead of steam where possible
Use auto-shut offs when available
Use newer equipment

64
Q

What are some things that can be done to reduce the amount of waste being sent to landfills

A

Recycle as much as possible
Consider selling or donating old equipment
Purchasing used or refurbished equipment
Trading in equipment

65
Q

What are some common costs in the animal facility

A

Labor
Supplies
Employee morale
Travel
Outside services
Equipment maintenance and repairs
Training
Equipment
Capital equipment

66
Q

What are direct costs

A

Expenses that can be directly related to a provided service such as labor or supplies

67
Q

What are indirect costs

A

Expenses such as utilities, security, shared items across departments

68
Q

What percent of a budget is used on personnel

A

about 60%

69
Q

What are the 3 main ways that a facility can charge for a service

A
  • per diem rate
  • rate per quantity of service
  • time and materials
70
Q

What are the basic principles for setting fee for service rates

A
  1. Billing rates should be based on costs
  2. The objective should be to operate as closely as possible to a break-even basis
  3. Billing rates should be established for all services that can be specifically identified to users and involve significant activities of the [facility].
  4. All costs associated with providing an animal service should be included in the total cost of each service.
  5. The costs must be treated consistently as either direct support costs.
  6. The assignment of costs to cost centers and the allocation of support costs to direct cost centers should be based on beneficial relationships.
  7. Billing units should logically represent the service provided.
  8. All users should be charged consistently at full rates.
  9. Revenue and costs should be compared annually to identify surpluses and deficits for each service.
  10. Adjustments should be made to compensate for surpluses or deficits.
71
Q

What are some examples of rates per quantity services

A

injections, blood collection, weaning, perfusions, necropsy

72
Q

What are some examples of common security practice

A

Securing facility entrance at all times
Restricting access to those that are listed on approved protocols
Not permitting visitors
Setting up security cameras
Ensure that procedures and communication channels in place to handle threats or intrusions by animal rights activists

73
Q

what do community right to know ordinances require

A

the development and coordination of emergency plans with local community response groups, such as fire departments, and require the listing hazardous chemicals stored and used in the facility

74
Q

According to the Guide what should be included in a disaster plan

A

The plan should define the actions necessary to prevent animal pain, distress, and deaths due loss of systems such as those that control ventilation, cooling, heating, or provision of potable water. If possible the plan should describe how the facility will preserve animals that are necessary for critical research activities or are irreplaceable

75
Q

What are the 5 types of actions considered in planning for and dealing with disasters

A

Prevention
Preparation
Response
Recover
Mitigate

76
Q

Which agencies must be contacted if there are any animal deaths due to a disaster

A

OLAW
USDA
AALAC

77
Q

How does the Animal Welfare Act define an “animal”

A

any live or dead dog, cat, nonhuman primate, guinea pig, hamster, rabbit, or any other warm-blooded species included by the Secretary of the USDA in the AWA Regulation

78
Q

What amendments were made to the AWA in 1985

A
  • Provide dogs with the opportunity for exercise
  • environmental enhancement adequate to promote the psychological well-being of nonhuman mates.
  • Animal may be used in more than one major operative experiment from which it is allowed to recover, except in cases of scientific necessity or other special circumstances.
79
Q

What is included in the 1990 AWA amendment

A
  • Establishes a 5-day holding period for dogs and cats held at pounds, shelters or research facilities.
  • Research facilities using regulated species must register with USDA and update this registration every three years.
  • Every research facility submit an annual report to USDA on or before December 1 of each calendar year.
80
Q

What must be included in the IACUC minutes

A

general information such as assurance of quorum, brief descriptions of all discussions, status of animal use protocols discussed

81
Q

What information must be included on the age cards for dogs and cats

A
  • Their description and identification
  • transportation
  • euthanasia
  • sale or other means of disposal by the research facility
  • any offspring born of these species while in the research facility’s possession or under its control
82
Q

Which USDA forms track the necessary cage card information for dogs and cats

A
  • Interstate and International Certificate of Health Examination for Small Animals (APHIS Form 7001);
  • Record of Acquisition and Dogs and Cats on Hand (APHIS Form 7005)
  • Record of Disposition of Dogs and Cats (APHIS Form 7006).
83
Q

Which group of dogs and cats are exempt from microchipping or tattooing

A

Puppies that are less than 16 weeks of age if they are maintained as distinct litters and the enclosure is appropriately identified

84
Q

What are the 4 specified roles in an IACUC program

A

o Institutional Official
o IACUC chairperson
o Attending Veterinarian
o Nonaffiliated member

85
Q

When does a health certificate need to be issued for dogs, cats and NHPs

A

within 10 days of shipment

86
Q

Do individuals who sell dead animals or animal parts for research, teaching or exhibition need a license

A

yes

87
Q

How often does a NHP enrichment exemption plan need to be reviewed by a veterinarian

A

at least every 30 days

88
Q

What are some things that need to be included in a NHP enrichment plan

A

o Social grouping
o Environmental enrichment
o Special considerations
o Restraint devices, including limits on time
o Exemptions

89
Q

Who does the PHS policy apply to

A

all research, testing, and educational activities supported or conducted any PHS agency, including the National Institutes of Health and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

90
Q

Who enforces the PHS policy

A

Office of Laboratory Animal Welfare (OLAW) at the National Institutes of Health

91
Q

Which program requirement is unique to the PHS policy

A

an occupational health and safety program for personnel having contact with animals

92
Q

What are the program documents and reports that are required by OLAW

A

An animal welfare assurance and a semiannual program and facility review report

93
Q
A