Unit 1 and 2 Revision Slides

Question 1

Describe three key differences between psychology, psychiatry and social work

Answer 1

Psychology requires 4 years of study compared to Psychiatrists who require 6 years of study. Psychiatrists can also prescribe medication whereas Psychologists and social workers cannot. Social workers work more with the community and people facing situations such as poverty

Question 2

Explain the nature-versus-nurture debate and provide an example

Answer 2

The ongoing debate of whether human personalities are inspired by nature which is genes or nurture which is the environment and influence of people around us

Question 3

Explain the philosophical debate between free will and determinism

Answer 3

Free will is when a person makes a conscious decision, however, determinism is where actions are governed by others outside a persons control

Question 4

Describe the mind-versus-body debate with reference to René Descartes

Answer 4

• Psychologists question whether the mind is a separate entity from the body and brain
• The mind relates to consciousness and self-awareness and cannot be measured
• The brain and body can be measured in terms of mass, density, shape and size
• Rene Descartes viewed the body as two separate entities - dualism. He believed our mind created our existence - ‘I think therefore, I am’

Question 5

Summarise the beliefs of Claudius Galen and Franz Joseph Gall

Answer 5

• Galen believed the brain played an important role in sensation
• He observed people who suffered strokes or could lose a particular sense even if there was no damage to the sensory organ.
• Franz Gall believed mental abilities and personality were controlled by 27 areas of the brain supposedly located on the surface of the brain

Question 6

Explain phrenology with reference to Franz Gall

Answer 6

• The study of lumps, bumps and indentations to determine a persons character, intelligence and a range of other behaviours and functions
• Development later led to the localisation of function

Question 7

Discuss the contributions of early brain experiments by Pierre Flouren’s

Answer 7

• Localised areas of animals brains to observe the effect of their behaviour and cognition
• The cerebral cortex was responsible for higher order thinking and the cerebellum was involved in regulating movement

Question 8

Identify PET and what it is

Answer 8

• Positron Emission Tomography - it tracks a radioactive substance, such as glucose that has been injected into a persons bloodstream

Question 9

Identify MRI and what it is

Answer 9

• Magnetic Resonance Imaging - involves harmless magnetic fields and radio waves that produce a computer-enhanced image of the brain structure

Question 10

Identify fMRI and what it is

Answer 10

• functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging - monitors blood flow and oxygen consumption to reveal areas of greater brain activity

Question 11

Identify EEG and what it is

Answer 11

• Electroencephalograph - detects and records electrical activity in the brain in the form of brainwaves

Question 12

Explain the difference between the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system.

Answer 12

• CNS comprises of the brain and spinal cord. It controls the body via messages sent from the peripheral nervous system which includes nerves and ganglia located outside the brain and spinal cord

Question 13

Describe the autonomic nervous system

Answer 13

• Responsible for communications between non-skeletal muscles and internal organs; for example, heart rate and digestion

Question 14

Explain what happens in the fight-flight-freeze response

Answer 14

Flight - a person removes themselves from a stressful situation
Freeze - fails to react
Fight - reacts in a combative manner (fight)

Question 15

Explain the role of the somatic nervous system

Answer 15

• Sends sensory information into the CNS and carries motor movement commands from the CNS to the skeletal muscles

Question 16

What are the Dendrites responsible for in a neuron?

Answer 16

• Receive sensory information from other neurons via synapses and deliver this to the soma

Question 17

What is the Soma responsible for in a neuron?

Answer 17

• The cell body

- Controls maintenance of the cell

Question 18

What is the Axon responsible for in a neuron?

Answer 18

• Carries information from the soma towards other cells in contact with the neuron

Question 19

What is the Synapse?

Answer 19

The function between two neurons

Question 20

Explain the difference between a sensory and a motor neuron

Answer 20

• Carry nerve impulses towards the brain and spinal cord

- Motor neurons carry the impulses away from the brain and CNS to the relevant body parts to cause movement

Question 21

Describe an interneuron

Answer 21

• Carries information between sensory and motor neurons

Question 22

Describe what the cerebrum is responsible for (part of the forebrain)

Answer 22

• The biggest part of the forebrain
• Divided into the left and right cerebral hemispheres
• Contains four different regions of the brain which are responsible for higher order thinking processes

Question 23

Explain the role of the midbrain

Answer 23

• Above the hindbrain and below the forebrain
• Responsible for the regulation of sleep, motor movement and arousal
• Connects hindbrain and forebrain

Question 24

Explain the role of the hindbrain

Answer 24

• Consists of the medulla, pons and cerebellum

- Control breathing, heartbeat, digestion, and coordinate body movements

Question 25

Describe localisation of function

Answer 25

• Different parts of the brain influence different behaviours or functions

Question 26

Compare Broca’s area, Wernicke’s area, and Geschwind’s territory

Answer 26

• Broca’s area deals with speech production
• Wernicke’s area deals with speech comprehension
• Geschwind’s territory is the connection between the two

Question 27

Consider the importance of myelination

Answer 27

• Protects axons of neurons in a child’s brain

- Aids in coordination, which also helps us in times of danger

Question 28

Explain what is meant by the term pruning. In your response, reference the development of neurons in children and adults

Answer 28

• Unused neurons or synapses being cut down or eliminated

- Occurs during infancy and childhood but there is a second wave of pruning in early adolescence

Question 29

Communicate the nature of neuroplasticity with reference to brain development (deprived and enriched environments) and brain damage

Answer 29

• In terms of brain damage, neuroplasticity refers to the process of reorganisation that might alter the function of a particular area of the brain
• In terms of brain development, neuroplasticity can change brain structure depending on the type of environment that development occurs in
• An enriched environment is where there is opportunity for stimulation of the brain by social and physical surroundings
• A deprived environment is where there is a lack of stimulation of the brain to encourage development

Question 30

Describe Lorenz’s attachment research

Answer 30

• Made detailed observations of animal behaviour and was specifically interested in how attachment occurs in young ducklings and goslings
• Took a large clutch of goose eggs and kept them until they were ready to hatch
• Placed half of the eggs under a goose mother, and the other half he kept close to himself
• When eggs that were close to him hatched, he imitated the noise of a goose and the geese regarded Lorenz as their mother
• The eggs under the goose mother did the same with the goose
• Newly hatched geese will follow the first moving object they see within the 12 to 17 hour critical period after hatching

Question 31

Explain the relationship between emotional development and attachment

Answer 31

• Assist us to develop and maintain relationships

- Allows attachment to occur

Question 32

Describe Harry Harlow’s work and how it contributed to our understanding of attachment

Answer 32

• Focused on attachment in monkeys
• Separated infant monkeys from their mothers and raised them to good health
• He found that although these monkeys grew up healthy they were unable to socialise with other monkeys
• He provided a mother for the monkeys in the form of either a wire monkey that provided nourishment through a bottle, or a cloth mother who only provided comfort,
• He found when he scared the monkeys, those with the cloth mother would always go to their ‘mother’ for comfort, whereas those with the wire mother would no
• Feeding and nourishment do not create attachment; contact comfort is more important

Question 33

Explain why John Bowlby believed that the development of attachment is biological and typical of human behaviour

Answer 33

• Believed reactions and behaviours of the caregiver are crucial. He stated that the development of attachment is biological and genetically inherited
• Infants cry, smile, crawl and walk to follow their mothers

Question 34

Explain two attachment behaviours that an infant can demonstrate towards a caregiver

Answer 34

• The lack of distress when the caregiver leaves the room - insecure avoidant attachment.
• Another is when the child seeks immediate contact when a caregiver returns and is delighted when reunited with their caregiver - like secure attachment
• Another is an infant will not appear upset or cry when their caregiver leaves the room, and can even avoid them on return

Question 35

Explain ‘object performance’ from Piaget’s theory

Answer 35

• Realising that an object still exists when it is no longer visible; for example, when a toy is covered by a blanket, knowing that it’s still there under the blanket

Question 36

Explain ‘animism’ from Piaget’s theory

Answer 36

• Children will believe that inanimate objects are alive; for example, that their toy train is alive

Question 37

Explain ‘seriation’ from Piaget’s theory

Answer 37

• Children will have difficulty in arranging objects according to one dimension, such as arranging sticks from shortest to longest

Question 38

Explain ‘centration’ from Piaget’s theory

Answer 38

• Children can only focus on one aspect of a task at a time

Question 39

Explain the three themes of Vygotsky’s theory of sociocultural cognitive development

Answer 39

• Zone of proximal development - cognitive development stretching from solo performance to collaborative cooperation; for example, a young child may not be able to wrap a present on their own but will be able to master it with assistance
• The more knowledgeable other - another individual with greater knowledge of a particular topic. With reference to the present wrapping, the person helping the child is the more knowledgeable one.
• Scaffolding - providing support to a child to help them learn and master a task independently. In the present-wrapping example, the more knowledgeable one might put the sticky tape on while the child holds the paper, as the child masters the skills on their own, the helper will do less until the child is doing the task on their own

Question 40

Examine the information processing model of cognition. Refer to processing speed and cognitive strategies in your answer

Answer 40

• Based on the idea that humans process the information they receive
• Emphasises a continuous pattern of development, in contrast with Piaget’s theory, who thought development occurs in stages at a time
• Children who have information processing issues may have trouble with their input or output, which means that the speed of processing information for certain children can be slower
• Children learn information at varying speeds due to their ability to process their environment
• Our cognitive strategies may also slow down as we age

Question 41

Assess the importance of having different perspectives on cognitive development

Answer 41

• There are different ways in which we develop, including the speed at which we develop.
• There are certain milestones that infants and children need to develop in order to process information, communicate, develop etc.
• Different cultures may develop differently
• One model may not explain all situations

Question 42

Distinguish between selective and divided attention

Answer 42

• Selective attention is the ability to focus on one thing, to the exclusion of others
• Divided attention is the ability to perform two or more activities at the same time (multi-tasking)

Question 43

What is EMG?

Answer 43

Electromyograph - detects and records the electrical activity of skeletal muscles

Question 44

What is EOG?

Answer 44

Electrooculograph - detects and records eye movement

Question 45

Describe the sleep-wake cycle

Answer 45

This regular cycle is an example of a circadian rhythm (roughly 24 hour cycle)

Question 46

Explain what NREM-REM cycles are

Answer 46

An ultradian rhythm (less than 24 hours, and repeated many times in a day) which lasts for between 90 and 120 minutes. It alternates between the four stages of NREM sleep and REM sleep. We typically complete between 4 and 5 of these cycles per night

Question 47

Summarise the changes in the sleep-wake cycle across the lifespan, including the sleep-wake shift (in Mark Carskadon) in adolescence

Answer 47

• After we are born, we spend most of our days sleeping and around half of it in REM sleep
• As we get to around 3 years old, we transition to requiring only one long sleep at night.
• During adolescence, there is a period of mental growth that requires a slight increase in REM sleep, during this time, a sleep-wake shift occurs.
• In Mary Carskadon’s study, she discovered that adolescents shift their sleep time back anywhere up to 2 hours
• By the time a person reaches adulthood, the growth period is over and this sleep-wake shift has reverted back to normal hours

Question 48

Describe the purpose of sleep by comparing the restoration and evolutionary theories

Answer 48

• Restoration theory of sleep describes sleep as the body’s ‘time out’ to rest and recover - promotes the replenishment of resources, enhancing the immune system, and growing hormones
• Its limitations are that this assumes that the more damage to a body, the more sleep that is required, and the brain never actually rests during sleep

Question 49

Compare the axon and axon terminals

Answer 49

• The axon is a nerve fibre that carries information through electrical impulse
• The axon terminal is where the impulse or message is transmitted to the next neuron

Question 50

Explain how the brain structures and hormones regulate and direct consciousness

Answer 50

• The nucleus is located in the hypothalamus and is responsible for regulating the timing and activity of the sleep-wake cycle
• Receives information about the amount of incoming light from the eyes and adjusts our sleep-wake cycle by sending messages to the pineal gland to secrete more or less of the hormone melatonin
• When it is night time and there is less light, the SCN signals the pineal gland to produce and release more melatonin which increases our level of drowsiness
• When it is day time and there is more light, it signals the pineal gland to reduce the melatonin levels, increasing alertness

Question 51

Describe the physical and psychological consequences of total and partial sleep deprivation, including effects on concentration and mood

Answer 51

• Partial sleep deprivation is not getting enough hours of sleep or not getting enough of a particular stage of sleep, like deep sleep
• Total sleep deprivation is going without sleep altogether - the physical effects are that it can make it difficult to focus your eyes, cause headaches and give you low energy. The psychological effects are mood changes (lack of interest), short attention span, difficulty processing information and memory problems

Question 52

Describe each of the following: narcolepsy, sleep-onset insomnia, sleep apnoea and sleepwalking

Answer 52

• Narcolepsy is a sleep order that causes sudden and unexpected sleeping
• Sleep-onset insomnia is a type of insomnia in which you have trouble falling asleep at the beginning of the night
• Sleep apnoea is a type of sleep disorder characterised by periods when breathing is interrupted during sleep
• Sleepwalking is a type of sleep disorder characterised by walking or completing routine activities during the night

Question 53

Describe bright light therapy

Answer 53

• Used to advance or delay sleep depending on the type of circadian phase disorder
• Light signals ceases the release of melatonin

Question 54

Explain cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

Answer 54

• Focuses on breaking unhealthy patterns of thinking or behaving and replacing these patterns with positive habits and coping skills
• Can be used to treat insomnia and it assumes that our behaviours and cognitions with regard to sleep influence each other strongly
• Seeks to establish an alternative healthy sleep cycle so that sleep can become automatic

Question 55

Define normal/typical behaviour and provide an example to illustrate your understanding

Answer 55

• Considered acceptable within society and typical for a particular situation or context. For instance, in Australian schools it would be considered normal to see students lined up outside a classroom at the start of the lesson

Question 56

Describe abnormal/atypical behaviour and provide an example to illustrate your understanding

Answer 56

• Viewed as ‘out of the ordinary’ behaviour. For instance, it would be seen as atypical behaviour to wear pyjamas to the shops in the middle of the day

Question 57

Differentiate between the sociocultural and situational approaches to normality

Answer 57

• Sociocultural normality is what a particular society says is okay; for instance, using cutlery at the table when eating. In some societies this would be considered normal and in others they would be considered abnormal.
• Situational normality is dictated by the situation in which a person finds themselves; for example, it would not be considered appropriate to call out during a school assembly but it would be okay to do this on the school oval

Question 58

Compare the cultural and historical approaches of normality

Answer 58

• With historical approaches to normality many things that were considered normal 30, 50 or even 100 years ago would not be thought okay today. For instance, clothes that people wore have changed over the years.
• Culturally, there are differences between different societies. For example, wearing a hijab is traditional and culturally normal in many countries, but in Australia, some people believe that it’s not ‘normal’ to wear this piece of clothing

Question 59

Using an example, explain what maladaptive behaviour is

Answer 59

• Developed in early childhood as a means of reducing anxiety
• Negative coping mechanisms
• An example is tantrums. Babies and toddlers throw tantrums as a means of reducing their anxiety when they haven’t developed full communication skills. This kind of behaviour is not ‘normal’ as a coping mechanism in society among older age groups as it would be considered as maladaptive behaviour

Question 60

Contrast maladaptive and adaptive behaviours

Answer 60

• Maladaptive behaviours do not help us to cope in situations
• Adaptive behaviours do help us to cope.
• Adaptive behaviours help us become independent adults who can function effectively within our society or culture
• Maladaptive behaviours hold us back or interfere with us becoming independent; they ‘disable’ us from being an effective member of society

Question 61

Describe what a psychological disorder is

Answer 61

• Dysfunction in an individual involving disordered moods and behaviours
• Usually associated with distress in the individual

Question 62

Describe the two main systems for classifying psychological disorders

Answer 62

• The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)
• International Classification of Diseases (ICD)
• The DSM (now 5th edition, so DSM-5) is a handbook that is used to identify and classify symptoms of psychological disorders
• The ICD is a tool that helps to diagnose a patient based on symptoms for both physical and mental illness

Question 63

Distinguish between the DSM-5 and the ICD-10

Answer 63

• ICD covers a wider range of illnesses and is more commonly used to diagnose mental health conditions
• DSM uses more categories than ICD, for example, neurotic and stress-related disorders appear under one category in the ICD, where the DSM divide these into four different categories
• 200+ countries are involved in the construction of the ICD which is why it recognises cultural differences whereas the DSM does not

Question 64

Explain the difference between a fear and a phobia

Answer 64

Fear is experienced by most people and can actually be healthy
- Phobia is an irrational fear of a specific object or situation

Question 65

Describe three symptoms of schizophrenia

Answer 65

• Delusions are false beliefs that are strongly held despite evidence that they cannot be true
• Hallucinations are false perceptions, such as sight or sound, which are not present in reality
• Word salad is a jumble of meaningless words and phrases

Question 66

Explain major depressive disorder

Answer 66

• Severe symptoms of flattened mood, low self-esteem and lack of motivation
• Prolonged and persistent extreme sadness.

Question 67

Consider why diagnosing someone with a personality disorder is so difficult

Answer 67

• Personality disorders are ‘an enduring pattern of inner experience and behaviour that deviates from the expectations of the individual’s culture and leads to distress’
• The definition is complex and overlaps a lot of different disorders
• Takes a high degree of skill to correctly diagnose

Question 68

Describe specific phobia. Provide an example

Answer 68

• Form of anxiety disorder that is defined as a persistent and intense fear of a particular thing
• Interferes with a person’s day-to-day functioning
• A person who suffers an intense fear of spiders suffers from arachnophobia

Question 69

Describe what generalised anxiety is and list two major symptoms

Answer 69

Generalised anxiety disorder is characterised by excessive anxiety about several aspects of everyday life

• Major symptoms need to be displayed for a period of 6 months or more
• Symptoms include feeling very worried about events or activities, unable to stop or ease the worrying

Question 70

Explain how diagnosis of a psychological disorder may not be always valid of reliable

Answer 70

• Different clinicians might be using the different manuals or even different versions of the manuals
• Psychological disorders are decided upon by different aspects of normality

Question 71

Discuss the reliability and validity of diagnosis

Answer 71

• Diagnostic reliability is defined as the extent to which a patient would receive the same diagnosis at different hospitals or clinics
• DSM and ICD were introduced to gain greater reliability of diagnosis
• Diagnostic validity refers to the accuracy with which the manual’s criteria define and differentiate a disease from other diseases
• The DSM and ICD are updated to allow more diagnostic validity

Question 72

Explain biological risk factors for psychological disorders

Answer 72

• Genetic predisposition, physiological structures of the body and the biochemical processes of the brain and nervous system
• Some risk factors are inherited from parents
• The way a person’s brain is ‘wired’ can be a risk factor. Some medical conditions, such as diabetes, can be a biological risk factor for a mental disorder

Question 73

Identify and explain three psychological risk factors for psychological disorders

Answer 73

• Rumination - an individual goes over and over the same thoughts
• Impaired reasoning and memory - an individual has difficulties with logical reasoning and memory
• Stress - an individual feels tense and pressured

Question 74

Describe social risk factors for psychological disorders

Answer 74

• Disorganised attachment and loss of significant relationships - experienced by individuals who find it difficult to share their feelings or empathise with others
• Loss of significant relationships - separation from a partner or the death of someone close

Question 75

Explain what is meant by disorganised attachment in children

Answer 75

• Experienced by individuals who find it difficult to share their feelings and empathise with others
• Children who exhibit this form of attachment behave in contradictory ways, such as approaching their caregiver while gazing elsewhere

Question 76

Explain what is meant by stigma and explain how this affects treatment of psychological disorders

Answer 76

• A negative mark that applies to an individual and separates them from others
• ‘Labels’ a person as different and as a result, the person may feel separate from others
• Individuals feel ashamed or embarrassed about the stigma associated with mental illness and as a result they don’t seek help for their disorder

Question 77

Having a risk factor does not guarantee developing a psychological disorder. Discuss this statement

Answer 77

A risk can be defined as ‘a situation involving exposure to danger’ but does not necessarily lead to a psychological disorder
- If someone exposes themselves to several risks, this could lead to a disorder, like smoking can lead to increased risk of a heart attack

Question 78

Describe how the biopsychosocial model differs from the biomedical approach

Answer 78

• The biomedical approach treats individuals at a physiological level, in a ‘distant’ and impersonal manner that ignores human distress
• The biopsychosocial model treats patients in a more caring and interested way and considers the psychological and social factors that may contribute towards their mental illness

Question 79

Think of someone suffering from major depressive disorder. Discuss how the biopsychosocial approach could help them

Answer 79

It would look at all the possible contributing factors as to why they had developed the disorder

• It would not just look at their symptoms from a medical perspective
• The biopsychosocial approach would also look at the psychological reasons behind how/why the depressive disorder had manifested
• Review any possible social risks that might have contributed towards it

Question 80

Explain the placebo effect

Answer 80

• A fake treatment can sometimes improve a patient’s condition simply because the person has the expectation that it will be helpful

Question 81

Describe the difference between pharmacotherapy and psychotherapy

Answer 81

• Psychotherapy is talk therapy to deal with mental illness and change a persons way of thinking
• Pharmacotherapy deals with medication-based treatment within mental illnesses

Question 82

Explain why the use of placebo treatments might be unethical

Answer 82

• One of the ethical conditions to consider when conducting psychological experiments is minimal deception
• The whole idea of a placebo or placebo treatment is to not tell the person that they are on a placebo

Question 83

In some states, psychosurgery is not allowed, or highly restricted. Propose why this is the case

Answer 83

• It’s dangerous and irreversible
• Considered a last resort
• One of the side effects being death
• Success rates are low and there’s no guarantee that it will work for an individual

Question 84

ECT therapy can have negative side effects. Consider what these may be and why a patient may still choose to have ECT

Answer 84

• Negative side effects include disorientation and confusion, headaches, nausea and memory loss.
• A patient may still choose to have ECT because
  research indicates immediate relief of symptoms, the symptoms of their disorder may be so severe and causing so much pain, discomfort and pressure on not only the individual but their family, that they simply feel there is no other option than to seek relief through ECT and finally the effects of the treatment are immediate

Question 85

Compare the two-factor and appraisal theories of emotion

Answer 85

• The two-factor theory suggests that emotion is caused by assigning a cognitive label to the physiological response to the situation
• Cognitive theory is the cognitive process that occurs before an emotion is displayed, allowing us to assess how well we can handle the situation

Question 86

Compare primary appraisal and secondary appraisal

Answer 86

• Primary appraisal is the process by which someone initially evaluates whether or not a situation is threatening or irrelevant
• Secondary appraisal is the process of consciously appraising a situation by considering options available and how best to respond

Question 87

Describe factors that influence happiness

Answer 87

Age, physical health (good condition means less stressed about it and therefore increased happiness), religion (increased social engagement and sense of community lead to increased happiness), income and employment (a secure job and comfortable income reduces stress and increases happiness)

Question 88

Explain the difference between autonomy and personal growth

Answer 88

Autonomy is the ability to make decisions whereas personal growth is the belief that you can

Question 89

Describe the six factors that Ryff (1995) determined were part of psychological wellbeing

Answer 89

Autonomy: Independence and a feeling that someone is able to use their own free will
Environmental mastery: Being able to direct our own lives how we want
Personal growth: When a person feels that they can continue to progress and try new things
Positive relations with others: When a person is able to develop and maintain close relationships with other people
Purpose in life: When a person has goals in life and feels that these goals provide their life with meaning
Self-acceptance: When we are able to view ourselves in a positive way

Question 90

Explain how subjective wellbeing influences happiness

Answer 90

Subjective wellbeing is how a person evaluates their fulfilment within specific areas of their life
- So when a person is experiencing joy and excitement while completing a meaningful task, it creates an overall positive sense of subjective wellbeing and life satisfaction

Question 91

Explain how the broaden-and-build theory influences happiness

Answer 91

• Positive emotions, such as joy and interest, contain benefits to achieving ‘optimal wellbeing’
• A broadened mind has long term adaptive benefits and can lead to building physical and emotional resources

Question 92

Describe mindfulness

Answer 92

• Enable effective living through paying attention in a specific way, and reaching a level of acceptance about one’s life

Question 93

Explain what is meant by attention and acceptance in mindfulness

Answer 93

Attention in mindfulness is how we attend to an environmental or internal stimulus
- Acceptance is we must be able to recognise and identify experiences in a certain way, accepting the present and ourselves as we are, without judgment

Question 94

Identify the six factors of the flow experience

Answer 94

Intense and focused concentration on the present moment, merging of action and awareness, loss of reflective self-consciousness, sense of personal control over the situation/activity, altered experience of time, experiencing the activity as rewarding

Question 95

Explain what the flow experience is, with reference to enhancing positive affect, life satisfaction, performance and learning

Answer 95

• Developed by Csikszentmihalyi and Nakamura to describe the immersion people find themselves in when focusing on a task
• We are entirely focused on what we are doing to the point that we may forget about our basic need
• When a person enters a state of flow, they are doing something they are passionate about which creates positive feelings, fulfilment and increases life satisfaction and overall wellbeing

Question 96

Explain what self-efficacy is

Answer 96

• Can affect how they perceive or approach challenges

- Personal judgement or belief of how likely they are to succeed in a task or activity

Question 97

Describe intrinsic and extrinsic motivation and provide an example of each

Answer 97

• Intrinsic motivation is when people are motivated by internal factors – such as excitement, pleasure or joy – to complete a task
• Extrinsic motivation is when people are motivated by external factors, such as receiving a reward or avoiding punishment. For example, someone might write a textbook and be paid for their work – this would be an example of extrinsic motivation (they’re being paid for the work). However this person may have a sense of pride and accomplishment from writing the book, irrespective of pay – this would be an example of intrinsic motivation

Question 98

Explain the achievement goal theory with reference to task-orientation and ego-orientation

Answer 98

• People will be more motivated when they have clear goals and that they believe they are capable of achieving them
• Task-orientation goals are focused on mastering a skill, whereas ego-orientation goals are focused on becoming the best at that skill
• The achievement goal theory is the result of the goals that we set ourselves and our perceived ability to succeed in these goals
• The result varies according to whether we are task- or ego-oriented

Question 99

Define the cognitive evaluation theory of motivation

Answer 99

Aims to explain the effects of external consequences on our internal motivation

Question 100

Explain what the five factors of goal setting need to have

Answer 100

Clear (an easy way to measure them so it’s easy to recognise when the goal is achieved)
Challenging (hard but achievable)
Commitment (people must be committed to achieving their goal)
Feedback (goals are easier to achieve if they receive feedback)
Task complexity (keep things as simple as possible, while maintaining the challenge)

Question 101

What are motor neurons?

Answer 101

Carry information from the CNS to the muscles and glands

Question 102

What are sensory neurons?

Answer 102

Carry senses from the sensory organ to the CNS

Question 103

What is the somatic nervous system?

Answer 103

Controls voluntary movements, you have to think before you do it

Question 104

What is the autonomic nervous system?

Answer 104

Controls involuntary automatic movements

Question 105

What is the parasympathetic division?

Answer 105

Freeze

Question 106

What is the sympathetic division?

Answer 106

Fight or flight

Question 107

What does the peripheral nervous system comprise of?

Answer 107

All neural pathways outside the CNS

Question 108

What does the peripheral nervous system do?

Answer 108

Communicate information from the body (sensory organs) to the CNS

Question 109

What is included in the peripheral nervous system?

Answer 109

Sensory neurons and motor neurons which are divided into the somatic nervous system, autonomic nervous system which is also subdivided into sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems