Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Who discovered Xrays? When?

His first X-ray was:

A

Wilhelm Roentgen in 1895

his wife’s hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In _____, Wilhelm Roentgen won the first Nobel prize for ____.

A

1901

Physics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Properties of Xrays

A

Photons

No mass, no electrical charge, invisible

Contain more energy than visible light due to their higher frequencies and shorter wavelengths

Can penetrate most matter

Travel in straight lines until they interact with matter

Expose photo and radiographic film

Can penetrate, be absorbed or scattered in the body

Capable of changing biological matter via ionization

Can be produced in a wide range of energies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Xrays are made and emitted from the ___. They go into the ____.

A

Tube

Patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The more ____ the tissue is, the more the X-ray is absorbed by that part

A

Dense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The denser the tissue, the ______ or ____ it will appear on the X-ray

A

Whiter or lighter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

XRAYS, AKA:

A

Film

Radiograph

View

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Degreed person who takes the X-ray

A

Rad technician/ radiographer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Doctor who reads the X-ray

A

Radiologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is matter that is easily penetrated by X-ray?

What color are those typically

A

Radiolucent

Dark/black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What factors can cause something to be more or less radiolucent

A

Decrease in density

Decrease in radiopacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is matter that is NOT easily penetrated by X-ray?

Shows up as:

A

Radiopaque

Lighter/white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What cause more or less radiopaque

A

Increase in density

Increase in radiopacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

5 radiographic densities— least dense to most dense (More radiolucent to least radiolucent)

A

Air

Fat

Water

Bone

Metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A substance that makes an area no normally visible on X-ray, visible.

What density is usually used?

A

Contrast agent

Metal density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

An object that is produced on the X-ray bu some external action

A

Artifact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some examples of artifacts?

A

Clothing

Surgical

Film/processing

Jewelry

Patient motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ways to compare radiographic films

A

compare opposite sides (extremities, pars)

Time comparison (was it there before)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are serial radiographs/films?

A

Films taken over time to monitor progression or lack of progression (pneumonia, fractures, scoliosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ALL X-rays must have a:

A

Mitchell marker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the purpose of a Mitchell marker?

A

Tells which side is closes to the film (lateral views of the axial skeleton)

Tell which side of the pt is rt or lt. (A-P and P-A views of the axial skeleton, chest and abdomen)

Tells which extremity is X-rayed, rt or lt

Tells which side is closest to the film on oblique spinal and chest X-Rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

General consideration for X-rays

A

All xrays must have a Mitchell marker

There must be a sufficient anatomy for identification of the anatomical location

Extremity xrays must include a joint

Take a min of 2 views (opposing views), 90 degrees to each other

XRays must have a permanent ID label

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What should be found on the permanent ID label?

A

Pt name

Clinic or docs name

Date film is taken

Patients age or birthday

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The part of interest in an X-ray is closest to what?

A

The film (which helps decrease magnification)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Basic radiographic positions

A

Upright

Recumbent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Radiographic views?

A

A-P (anteroposterior)

P-A (posteroanterior)

Lateral

Oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is an A-P position

A

Posterior aspect of the body or part is against the film. X-rays enter through the anterior aspect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe P-A view

A

Anterior aspect of the body or part against the film. XRays enter through the post aspect of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Lateral radiographic view

A

Lateral aspect of the body or part is against the film

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Oblique radiographic views

A

Patient or body part is rotated away from the film at an angle (mc 45 deg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

RAO oblique

A

Right anterior oblique

The right anterolateral aspect of the body is closes to the film

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

LAO oblique

A

Left anterior oblique

The left anterolateral aspect of the body is closest to the film

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

RPO radiographic view

A

Right posterior oblique

The right posterolateral aspect of the body is closest to the film

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

LPO radiographic views

A

Left posterior oblique

The left posterolateral aspect of the body is closest to the film

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

2 types of ossification

A

Intramembranous

Enchondral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Intramembranous ossification

A

Bone develops from mesenchyme

Occurs quickly

Bones urgently needed for protection (skull, face, et al)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Enchondral ossification

A

Bone develops from cartilage

Majority of bone

Occurs more slowly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cells that produce the organized matrix called osteoid which is deposited on mineral salts which become mineralized to form bone

A

Osteoblasts

39
Q

Cells that cause bone resorption

A

Osteoclasts

40
Q

Primary ossification center

A

Present at birth (exceptions)

First indication of ossification in a bone that develops from cartilage

Shaft of tubular bones, vertebral bodies, et al.

41
Q

Secondary ossification centers

A

Appear at variable times after birth

Time of appearance and fusion to the rest of the bone is an indication of skeletal age and maturation

Epiphysis, apophysis, vertebral endplates

In some cases, may never form an osseous union with the rest of the bone (ununited secondary center of ossification)

42
Q

Primary ossification centers appear during the ______ fetal month.

Each vertebra develops from:

A

5th or 6th fetal month

3 primary centers: 1 in centrum, 1 in each side of the neural arch

43
Q

Most 2ndary ossification centers will appear by:

And fuse by:

A

12-16 yoa

20-25 yoa (complete skeletal maturation)

44
Q

When to Pedicles fuse?

A

In the cervical spine at 3yo

Moves down and finishes in the lumbar spine at 6-7 yo

45
Q

When does the lamina fuse?

A

In the lumber spine and moves up to finish in the cervical spine at 2 yo

7-10 they close in the sacrum

46
Q

3 primary ossification centers of the atlas:

A

1 becomes the anterior arch (does not dev until after birth)

1 for each side of the neural arch (lateral mass)

  • anterior arch fuses to lateral masses age 6-9
  • post arch fuses fuses age 3-7
47
Q

Primary ossification centers for axis

A

1- each vertebral arch

1- centrum/body

2- Base of the dens (fuses at birth- old thought- 5-7)

48
Q

2ndary ossification centers of axis

A

1- apex of the dens (appears 3-6 yo… fuses at 12 yo)

1- inf endplate

1 in each TVP

1 in spinous

49
Q

Ends of a bone

2ndary center of ossification

50
Q

Physis, AKA:

A

Physeal plate, growth plate

51
Q

Physis has ____ cartilaginous layers.

It is ______ on X-ray when open.

It is responsible for :

A

4

Radiolucent

Bone growth in length

—Zone of provisional calcification (ZPC), closest to metaphysis, growth occurs, radiopaque on X-ray

52
Q

Most vascular area of the bone

Active bone formation takes place

A

Metaphysis

53
Q

Primary center of ossification of the metaphysis is continuous with..

A

The diaphysis

54
Q

Primary ossification center

Shaft of long bones

Cortical bone is thickest

55
Q

Location of the periosteum

A

Outside of the cortex

Outer fibrous layer

Inner cambium later (osteoclasts and osteoblasts)

56
Q

The periosteum (DOES/DOES NOT) cover the epiphysis

57
Q

Periosteum is not seen on X-ray unless:

A

It is affected by a pathology

58
Q

Periosteum on kids is more loosely attached at the:

59
Q

Endosteum is located:

It (IS/IS NOT) visible on X-ray.

Here you will find:

A

Inside of the Corte

Is not

Osteoclasts and osteoblasts

60
Q

The balance between the endosteal and periosteal cellular activity maintains what?

A

The thickness of the cortex and allows for bone growth in width

61
Q

Apophysis provides:

It protrudes beyond the __.

It has a _____ center of ossification

it may or may not form:

A

bony attachment for ligaments and tendons

bone

secondary

an osseous union with the rest of the bone

62
Q

Deviation from normal. A congenital or developmental defect (Ex- spina bifida)

63
Q

3 primary centers of ossification of C3-T12

A

1 vertebral body

2- vertebral arch

64
Q

5 secondary centers of ossification of C3-T12

A

1- each endplate (2)

2- Each TVP (2)

1- SP

65
Q

C7 has separate 2ndary centers for the ____ ____. This appears and unites:

A

costal processes

appear 6th fetal month

unites 6yoa.

they remain separate and C ribs

66
Q

Lumbars are the same 2ndary ossification centers except:

A

there is one in each mamillary process.

67
Q

Something that mimics a pathology and is usually developmental. Provide an example

A

Normal variant

ununited secondary center of ossification

68
Q

Bone fragment that develops in a ligament

A

accessory ossicle

69
Q

Small bone that develops in a tendon

A

Sesamoid bone

70
Q

absence of a part or component

A

agenesis, aplasia, aplastic

71
Q

incomplete formation, smaller than normal

A

hypoplasia, hypoplastic

72
Q

structural enlargement

A

hyperplasia, hyperplastic

73
Q

failure of adjoining structures to fuse

A

nonunion, ununited

74
Q

abnormal development of skin, bone or other tissue

75
Q

increase in radiopacity due to an increased laying down of bone

76
Q

Calcification deposition in soft tissue

A

calcification

77
Q

what are the 2 types of calcification

A

Dystrophic- pathological

Physiological- non-pathological

78
Q

___- fixed, fused, closed, stiff, bent

79
Q

___- with, together, joined

80
Q

______- joint, articulation

A

arthro-, articulo-

81
Q

Synostosis

A

congenital fusion of 2 or more bones

82
Q

Arthrodesis

A

surgical fusion of 2 or more bones

83
Q

Ankylosis

A

pathological fusion of 2 or more bones

84
Q

Bone, boney

A

osseo-

ossi

osteo-

os

85
Q

Osseous:

A

boney, bone like consistency or structure

86
Q

Chondro-

87
Q

calcification of cartilage

A

chrondrocalcinosis

88
Q

Bone united by hyaline or fibrocartilage

A

synchondrosis

89
Q

Cause of a specific disease or condition

90
Q

A disease or condition arising during the course of or as a consequence of another disease

A

complication

91
Q

diagnosis of a condition whose signs and symptoms are shared by various other conditions

A

differential diagnosis

92
Q

an indication of a particular disorder, as seen on an x-ray

A

radiographic sign

93
Q

ABC’S of radiographic interpretation and examples

A

A- Alignment (relationship between bones.. curves, rotation)

B- Bone (cortex, medulla, density, size, shape, number)

C- Cartilage (joint spaces, integrity of the joint surfaces)

S- Soft tissue (organs, fat pad, vessels, muscles, calcifications, artifacts)