Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

This type of pelvis is rounded, slightly ovoid. spacious posterior segment, adequate sacrosciatic notch, hollow sacrum with backward sacral inclination. straight side walls. bones medium weight

A

Gynecoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

pelvis with wedge shaped inlet, narrow forepelvis, flat posterior segment, narrow sacrosciatic notch with sacrum inclining forward. side walls converge. bones medium to heavy

A

Android

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This pelvis has long narrow oval inlet. extended and narrow anterior and posterior segment. wide sacrosciatic notch. long narrow sacrum

A

Anthropoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

This pelvis has very oval inlet with very wide rounded retropubic angle and wide flat posterior segment. sacrosciatic notch is narrow. normal but short sacral inclination. straight side walls

A

Platypelloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

period of formation of all major internal and external structures

A

embryonic period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

week of development of identifiable testes and ovary

A

testes- 8 weeks, ovary-9 to 10 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

week of development when kidneys can excrete urine. genital duct of opposite sex degenerates

A

week 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

week of development: testis at deep inguinal ring, uterus and vagina recognizable

A

week of 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

months of development : scrotum solid until sacs and testes descend

A

months 7-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

normal age of puberty for boys and girls

A

boys: age 9 to 14, girls: age 8 to 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

increase in secretion of adrenal androgens before puberty

A

adrenarche

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

first event of puberty for girls

A

development of breasts: thelarche

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what happens after development of breasts during puberty

A

development of axillary and pubic hair :pubarche

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

name for 1st menstrual period

A

menarche

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when does ovulation begin?

A

1 year after menarche

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

hormones responsible for breast development

A

ovarian hormones: estradiol, progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

hormones responsible for axillary and pubic hair

A

adrenal androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

early development of secondary sexual characteristics without gametogenesis. caused by abnormal exposure of males to androgen or females to estrogen

A

precocious pseudopuberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

pubertal development before age 8 in girls and 9 in boys

A

precocious puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

age of delayed or absent puberty

A

absence of secondary sexual development by age 14 or failure of menarche by age 17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

menopause

A

human ovary gradually becomes unresponsive to gonadotropins with age. sexual cycles and menstruation disappear. age 45 to 55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

This means a girl has not had her first period by age 16.

A

primary amenorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

describes women who experience an absence of more than three menstrual cycles after having regular periods

A

Secondary amenorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

term meaning pregnant

A

gravid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

term meaning number of births

A

parity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

pregnancies ending before 20 weeks, induced or spontaneous

A

abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

birth between 20 and 37 weeks

A

preterm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

birth after 42 weeks

A

postterm infant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

weight if LGA baby

A

over 4000g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

weight of low birth weight infant

A

less than 2500 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

presumptive pregnancy signs (7)

A
  1. amenorrhea, 2. nausea and vomiting, 3. breast changes, 4. fetal movement, 5. elevated basal body temperature, 6. skin changes, 7. pelvic organ changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

nausea and vomiting during pregnancy (time frame and treatment)

A

lasts from 2 weeks to 13-16 weeks. treat with small meals dry diet and emotional support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

breast tenderness during pregnancy

A

mastoidynia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

areolar glands visible on skin surface more prominent during pregnancy

A

Montgomery tubercles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

protein and antibody production occuring during pregnancy as early as 16 weeks

A

colostrum secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

fetal movement occurring between 18 and 20 weeks

A

quickening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

cause of elevated basal body temp during pregnancy

A

progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

skin darkening during pregnancy on forehead, bridge of nose, or cheek bones. occurs after 16 weeks

A

chloasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

darkening of lower midline from umbilicus to pubis caused by melanocyte stimulating hormone

A

linea nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

skin lesions during pregnancy caused by elevated plasma estrogen

A

spider telangiectasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

congestion of pelvic vasculature causing bluish discoloration of vagina and cervix

A

Chadwick’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

widening and softening of uterus. occurs at 6 to 8 weeks caused by estrogen and progesterone

A

hegar’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

increase in vaginal discharge during pregnancy

A

leukorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

painless uterine contractions beginning at 28 weeks. stop with walking or exercise

A

Braxton hicks contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

pregnancy diagnosis types (4)

A
  1. fetal heart tones, 2. uterine size/ fetal palpation, 3. ultrasound (heart sounds at 5-6 weeks), 4. pregnancy test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

naegele’s rule

A

LMP- 3 months + 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

uterine size during pregnancy stages (up to 20 weeks)

A

8 weeks -pubic symphysis, 12 weeks-in abdomen, 16 weeks- halfway between pubic symphysis and umbilicus, 20 weeks at umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

weeks of fetal heart tones

A

fetoscope- 18 to 20 weeks, doppler- 10 weekd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

early pregnancy failure diagnosis

A

ultrasound - recognition of fetus without cardiac activity; lab-serial hcg test without increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

late pregnancy failure diagnosis

A

absence of fetal movement, absence of fetal heart tones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

std tests performed at initial visit for pregnancy

A

syphilis, chlamydia, gonorrhea, herpes, job, trich, and candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

subsequent ob visits: what to check for

A

maternal weight gain, blood pressure, fundal height, fetal heart tones, edema, fetal size and position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

3rd trimester labs

A

gestational diabetes screening, cbc, group b step

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

immunization during pregnancy

A

may receive killed virus, toxoid, or recombinant vaccines. may have flu shot, diphtheria, tetanus, hepatitis b and killed polio vaccine. live vaccines should be given 3 months postpartum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

cardiac change during pregnancy

A

heart size increases by 12%, blood volume increases, cardiac output increases 40%, pulse pressure widens, murmurs (first heart sound may be split) 10% of women develop supine hypotension. bp decreases by 2nd trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

lung changes in pregnancy

A

tidal volume and inspiratory capacity increase; lung capacity decreased; decrease in expiratory reserve. increased vascularization. diaphragm elevates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

renal change during pregnancy

A

kidney length increases, hydronephrosis and hydroureter, urinary flow and sodium excretion double. renin and angiotensin II increase. gfr by 40 to 65%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

bladder change during pregnancy

A

displaced upward and flattened. muscle tone decreased. urinary frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

GI changes during pregnancy

A

stomach pushed upward, bowels pushed laterally. salvation increases. reflux problems (increased production of gastrin), constipation. swollen gums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

hematologic changes during pregnancy

A

rbcs expand by 33%, iron deficiency, increase in WBC count, clotting factors increase, anemia, increases platelets . clotting: hypercoagulable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

skin changes during pregnancy

A

hyperpigmentation ( linea nigra, melasma [darkening of forehead, bridge of nose, cheek bones]), striae, angioma, thickened hair, thinned nails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

metabolism changes in pregnancy

A

decreased appetite, nausea, vomiting, weight gain, insulin resistance, risk for hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

apgar scoring

A

done at 1 and 5 minutes of life; less than 7 at 5 minutes repeat every 5 minutes until score of 7 or at 20 minutes. score 0 to 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

immediate initial exam of infant

A

check airway for potency, suction, assess chest wall movement.. may hear crackles initially, heart rate should be greater than 100… should be mostly pink. examine genitalia. assess alertness, activity, tone, and movement of extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

at birth normal forehead movement but difficulty closing eye and asymmetric facial expression with crying

A

peripheral facial nerve injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

reason for vitamin k dose and .5% erythromycin/1% silver nitrate/ 1% tetracycline

A

stop bleeding and prevent infectious conjuctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

normal resp for newborn; normal heart rate

A

respirations: 40 to 60; heart rate 100 to 160

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

head evaluation in newborn

A

check for asymmetry, premature suture line fusion. No tension or bulging of fontanelle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

caput succedaneum

A

localized collection of blood under dura mater that crosses suture lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

cephalohematoma

A

localized collection of blood under the dura mater confined by suture lines.. related to hyperbilirubinemia and possible skull fxs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what should you do? absent red reflex

A

immediate opthalmologic eval to rule out cataract, retinoblastoma or glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

causes of tachypnea in newborn

A

pneumonia, amniotic fluid, meconium aspiration, sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

chest asymmetry newborn means…

A

atelectasis, infection, mass, pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

split second heart sound in newborn means..

A

aortic and pulmonary valves are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

cause of innocent murmur

A

closing ductus arteriosus or foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

most common innocent murmur caused by

A

pulmonic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

complex chd presentation

A

cyanosis, tachypnea, shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

omphalocele

A

midline abdominal wall defect where bowel and liver herniate through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

gastroschisis

A

defect of abdomen to the right of umbilicus. bowel may be externalized but liver stays in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

genital and anal exam newborn

A

check for ambiguous genitalia. check for rectogenital fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

purpose of ortolani and barlow test and check for gluteal fold asymmetry

A

detect hip dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

signs of spina bifida and diagnostics

A

sacral dimple or tuft of hair over sacral spine. eval with ultrasound then mri at 3 months of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

when should be first pee and poop of newborn

A

pee within 24 hours; poop within first 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

standard newborn screening tests (5)

A

Guthrie test (for phenylalanine level), thyroid function test (congenital hypothyroidism), RPR or VDRL test for congenital syphilis, coombs test for abo incompatibility, otoacoustic emissions for hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

how long does postpartum period last

A

6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

immediately after pregnancy, what size is uterus

A

1 kg or size of 20 week pregnancy at level of umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

abnormal uterine involution could mean??

A

infection, retained products of conception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

contractions that occur 2 to 3 days postpartum

A

myometrial contractions or after pains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

when is uterine involution complete? what is the size of the uterus then

A

6 weeks postpartum at 100 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

subinvolution of placental site

A

complete obliteration of vessels in placental site doesn’t occur. these patients are at risk for hemorrhage and persistent lochia

91
Q

how to treat subinvolution of placental site

A

uterotonics

92
Q

describe lochia rubra

A

1st stage of postpartum discharge. contains blood, shreds of tissue, decides. reddish brown

93
Q

describe lochia serosa

A

2nd stage of postpartum discharge. serous to mucopurulent, paler, malodorous

94
Q

describe lochia alba

A

happens during the second or third postpartum week. discharge is thicker, mucoid, yellowish white (because of leukocytes) ends by week 5 or 6

95
Q

why is there ovulation suppression in lactating women

A

due to high prolactin levels which are elevated until 6 weeks postpartum. lactation may suppress periods as well due to suppressed estrogen levels

96
Q

postpartum urinary retention caused by…

A

swelling and increased bladder capacity

97
Q

when does gfr and creatinine clearance return to normal postpartum

A

gfr and creatinine clearance return to normal 8 weeks postpartum

98
Q

when does bun return postpartum

A

end of 1st week postpartum

99
Q

weight loss after pregnancy

A

10 to 13 lb immediately postpartum , and an additional 9 lbs 6 months postpartum

100
Q

when do fatty acids and triglycerides return to normal after pregnancy

A

6 to 7 weeks

101
Q

postpartum immunization (4)

A

rh, rubella, tdap, flu

102
Q

What gland is needed for lactation

A

hypothalamic pituitary axis

103
Q

mammogenesis

A

mammary growth and development

104
Q

lactogenesis

A

initiation of milk secretion

105
Q

galactopoiesis

A

maintenance of established milk secretion

106
Q

hormone responsible for ductal tissue growth

A

estrogen

107
Q

hormone necessary for milk progesterone

A

prolactin, ESTROGEN LEVELS MUST BE DOWN

108
Q

colostrum

A

premilk section. yellowish, alkaline, has immunoglobulin (especially igA)

109
Q

painful nipple tx

A

dry heat for 20 minutes 4 times a day, manual expression

110
Q

engorgement: when and how to treat

A

expect starting days 3 and 4 postpartum. Tylenol, cold compress, partial expression, cabbage leaves

111
Q

mastitis tx

A

local heat, antibiotic tx (cephalosporin, methicillin sodium, dicloxacillin sodium

112
Q

when should self breast exam be done

A

same time every month, 1 week after period starts

113
Q

when should mammogram be done

A

every 1 to years from age 40 to 50, then annually

114
Q

What infections can be seen on a plain saline slide

A

trichomomas (swim), Candida (segmented and branching filaments), bacterial vaginosis ( clue cells covered by short coccobacilli bacteria)

115
Q

What solution/ technique is used to diagnose bacterial vaginosis

A

potassium hydroxide. look for mycelia and fishy odor

116
Q

fern test

A

for ovulation. cervical mucous spread on slide and allowed to dry. in non frondlike pattern shows (absence of progesterone) ovulation has occurred

117
Q

Schuller test

A

use lugols solution that marks glycogen rich cells of the cervix. any portion that doesn’t accept dye is abnormal due to scar tissue, neoplasia, or precursors or columnar epithelium. biopsy is next step

118
Q

vulva and vagina biopsy procedure

A

use 1 to 2% aqueous solution of local aesthetic solution. inject around suspicious area. use skin punch or scalpel. control bleeding with pressure or monsel solution

119
Q

colposcopy

A

use for biopsy of cervical lesions

120
Q

test for chlamydia and gonorrhea

A

nucleic acid amplification testing

121
Q

how often to perform pap

A

after 3 normal Paps, only needed every 2 to 3 years.

122
Q

when to do initial pap

A

start annually for 3 years after start of sex but no later than age 21

123
Q

newborn genitals

A

breast budding (may have discharge from nipples, no tx needed), labia are bulbous, clitoris is protruding. hymen covers urethra orifice. vaginal discharge may occur. ovaries are abdominal organs at this time

124
Q

young children genitals look

A

flattened labia, hymen is thinned, cervix is flush with vaginal vault.

125
Q

older children genitals look (age 7 to 10)

A

mons pubis thickens, labia fill out, hymen thickens vagina elongates. cervix still at vagina vault. at age 9 or 10 ovaries descend to pelvis, uterus grows

126
Q

young adolescents genitals (10 to 13)

A

genitals take adult appearance, bartholin gland starts to produce mucous. vagina reaches adult length. cervix movement. rounded shoulders and hips and fuller breasts from estrogen . leukorrhea present

126
Q

young adolescents genitals (10 to 13)

A

genitals take adult appearance, bartholin gland starts to produce mucous. vagina reaches adult length. cervix movement. rounded shoulders and hips and fuller breasts from estrogen . leukorrhea present

127
Q

Tanner stage 1

A

no breast buds, no pubic hair

128
Q

Tanner stage 2

A

breast buds and papillae (and age 7.5 to 8) slightly elevated, sparse slightly pigmented pubic hair

129
Q

Tanner stage 3

A

breasts and areola confluent and elevated, barker coarser curly pubic hair

130
Q

Tanner stage 4

A

areola and papillae project above breasts, adult type pubis

131
Q

Tanner stage 5

A

papillae projected, mature. lateral distribution of pubic hair

132
Q

enlarged clitoris art birth could mean…

A

congenital adrenal hyperplasia, hermaphroditism, or neoplasoms

133
Q

pelvic masses in newborn is likely…

A

Wilms tumor

134
Q

seminal fluid can be seen with a…

A

wood lamp. semen will be fluorescent

135
Q

mayer rokitansky kuster Hauser syndrome

A

congenital absence of the vagina accompanied by variable mullerian duct development

136
Q

vaginal atresia

A

urogenital sinus falls to contribute to lower portion of vagina

137
Q

turners syndrome

A

disorder in females, characterized by lymphedema, short stature, gonadal dygenesis, broad chest, webbed neck, coarctation of aorta, renal abnormalities

138
Q

diagnosis and tx of vulvovaginitis

A

most common for premenarche, inflamed tissue, numerous leukocytes and occasional rbc on wet mount. treat with amoxicillin

139
Q

lichen sclerosus

A

hypertrophic dystrophy of vulva. whitish ivory coloured lesion that doesn’t extend beyond middle of labia majora laterally or into vagina medially. pt presents with itching and status. tx: ultrapotent topical corticosteroids for 4 to 8 weeks

140
Q

labial adhesion

A

labia adhere in midline and reepithelialization occurs. cardinal symptoms: dysuria and recurrent uti. tx symptomatic with estrogen cream for 3 to 12 weeks. after puberty will resolve

141
Q

embryonal rhabdomyosarcomas

A

most commonly seen in girls under 3 yo. tumor. presentation: vaginal bleeding , tumor seen as polypoid projection in vaginal Cavity. tx now chemo and radiation to preserve normal anatomy and function and improve survival

142
Q

ovarian torsion

A

symptom: abdomen pain, ovary enlargement. diagnostic: doppler study. needs urgent sx

143
Q

tx for malignant ovarian tumor in young children

A

unilateral salpingooophorectomy

144
Q

central precocious puberty or GNRH dependent

A

pubertal development that happens before age 8. may be associated with cns abnormalities but usually okay

145
Q

peripheral GNRH independent precocious puberty

A

appearance of pubertal development but presence of sex steroids is independent of pituitary gonadotropin release. caused by congenital adrenal hyperplasia, tumors on adrenal, exposure to exogenous sex steroid hormones or mccune Albright syndrome

146
Q

mccune Albright syndrome

A

presents: cafe au lait skin pigmentation and autonomous endocrine hyperfunction, early vaginal bleeding, could have pathologic fxs

147
Q

premature thelarche

A

isolated development of breast tissue before 8 years old

148
Q

premature pubarche

A

appearance of pubic or axillary hair before age 8 without signs of precocious puberty

149
Q

tx for GNRH dependent precocious puberty

A

GNRH dialogues, which preserves skeletal maturation (better for normal growth)..tx until reaches puberty age

150
Q

When to give 1st dose of hep b vaccine

A

at birth; if mother is positive give vaccine and 0.5ml of hep b immunoglobulin within 12 hours of birth. test infant between 9 to 12 months or 1 to 2 months after hep b series of delayed

151
Q

When to give 2nd dose of hep b (normal)

A

age 1 to 2 months

152
Q

following birth, if baby doesn’t get hep b dose at birth

A

get 3 doses at 0, 1 to 2 months, and 6 months

153
Q

persistent amenorrhea tx

A

progestins every other month

154
Q

menstrual cycle

A

cyclic vaginal bleeding that occurs with shedding of uterine mucousa. average length is 28 days from start of to start of next.

155
Q

ovarian cycle

A

primordial follicles enlarge and cavity forms around ovum. 1 follicle in 1 ovary grows rapidly on the 6th day and becomes dominant follicle. singled out for development in follicular phase and makes estrogen. the mature follicle (graafian). at day 14 follicle ruptures and ovum is released into abdomen (ovulation). uterine tubes picks up and transports to uterus and degenerates if no fertilization. corpus luteum forms during luteal phase. fibrous tissue left behind from released ovum is corpus albicans

156
Q

uterine cycle

A

endometrium regenerates under influence of estrogen from 5th to 16th day. uterine glands lengthen (proliferative/follicular). after ovulation, endometrium become vascularized and slightly edematous because of estrogen and progesterone from corpus luteum. in luteal phase endometrium produces prolactin. when corpus luteum regresses, causing endometrium shedding

157
Q

vaginal cycle

A

under influence of estrogen, vaginal epithelium become cornified. under influence of progesterone, thick mucous is secreted and epithelium proliferates and becomes infiltrated with leukocytes.

158
Q

anterior pituitary gland hormones

A

acth, growth hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone, fsh, lh, prolactin. controls ovarian secretion

159
Q

posterior pituitary hormones

A

oxytocin and arginine vasopressin. secreted directly into systemic circulation by neurons

160
Q

gonadotropins

A

fsh and lh - regular cyclic secretion of the ovarian hormones

161
Q

hypothalamic hormones

A

control secretion of anterior pituitary hormones

162
Q

fsh

A

released from anterior pituitary. responsible fit early maturation of ovarian follicles

163
Q

LH

A

released by anterior pituitary. triggers ovulation and formation of corpus luteum

164
Q

gnrh

A

secreted by hypothalamus. stimulates secretion of fsh and lh

165
Q

hormones during menstrual cycle

A

regression of corpus (luteolysis), estrogen and progesterone levels fall. fsh and levels increase. new follicles develop and one matures (because of fsh and lh). estrogen rises causing spike in LH secretion and ovulation. corpus luteum starts. estrogen drops then steadily rises with progesterone then luteolysis reoccurs

166
Q

how do estrogen and progesterone contraceptives work

A

interfere with gonadotropic secretion or implantation or inhibit union of sperm with ovum

167
Q

prolactin role

A

released by anterior pituitary. causes milk secretion. inhibits gonadotropins making it a natural contraceptive. excessive in males causes impotence. normal level 5 ng/mL in men 8 in women

168
Q

hyperprolactinemia

A

causes by tumor on anterior pituitary. may cause galactorrhea. happens in women with secondary amenorrhea

169
Q

umbilical cord make up

A

2 arteries and 1 vien

170
Q

placental previa

A

implantation of placenta over cervical os

171
Q

Polydactyly or syndactyly are often associated with….

A

chromosomal abnormalities

172
Q

ortolani test

A

push downward on femur while abducting the hips

173
Q

barlow test

A

bring knees together at midline and then pushing down and out on the upper inner thighs

174
Q

moro reflex

A

extension and then flexion and abduction of arms (embrace) opening of eyes and crying after being dropped a few centimeters back in bed

175
Q

contraindications for breastfeeding

A

use of street drugs or excess alcohol, human t cell leukemia virus, breast cancer, active herpes, active tb, t cell lymphotropic, use of cancer drugs, hiv

176
Q

hemangioma

A

benign tumor of vascular endothelium, not present at birth. involute after 6 to 12 months. need intervention if near eyes or airways

177
Q

vascular malformations

A

ex portwine stains and salmon patches. present at birth . do not resolve spontaneously.

178
Q

anterior fontanelle

A

1 to 4 cm, may be enlarged with hypothyroidism or increased intracranial pressure

179
Q

torticollis

A

result of ischemia to or hemorrhage to sternocleidmastoid muscle at birth. manifests as head tilt with or without fibrous mass palpable in muscle . managed with home stretching

180
Q

upper resp sounds in baby

A

congestion and stridor is normal

181
Q

umbilical stump assessment

A

assess for redness or induration :signs of infection

182
Q

when do insulin requirements return to normal after delivery

A

insulin requirements in Type I and II diabetics will return to their non-pregnant state at about 1 week after delivery

183
Q

when do clotting factors return after pregnancy

A

10 days

184
Q

blood loss amount from vaginal delivery vs c section

A

You should know the mean blood loss from a vaginal delivery is about 400mL and from a c/s is about 1L.

185
Q

how long before hcg levels return to normal after delivery

A

2 weeks to return to normal after a vaginal delivery and even longer after a 1st trimester abortion.

186
Q

rubella titer and pregnancy

A

All pregnant women should get titer. if non immune give vaccine before discharge

187
Q

rhogam postpartum

A

given to women postpartum to prevent sensitization in rh negative women who’ve had fetal to maternal transfusion of rh positive fetal rbcs

188
Q

visible jaundice in the 1st 24 hrs

A

never normal, indicates a hemolytic process, or congenital hepatitis

189
Q

where to find pallor and cyanosis in dark skinned infants

A

lips, mouth, and nail beds

190
Q

when is 3rd fontanelle present

A

in syndromes like down syndrome

191
Q

craniosynostosis

A

prematurely fused suture causing abnormal cranial shape

192
Q

iris speckling occurs in

A

down syndrome. also known as brushfield spots

193
Q

age of nose breathers

A

less than 1 month…watch for nasal obstruction that can put baby in respiratory distress

194
Q

purulent nasal discharge at birth means

A

congenital syphilis

195
Q

3 components of medical history

A
  1. maternal and paternal medical and genetic history, 2. maternal past obstetric hx, 3. current antepartum and intrapartum ob history
196
Q

apgar acronym

A

appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respirations. taken an 1 and 5 minutes after birth

197
Q

normal HR, RR, SBP for 1st day infant

A

hr: 120 to 160, rr: 30 to 60 per min, sbp: 50 to 70 mmHg

198
Q

prominent tongue with which diseases

A

trisomy 21 and beckwith wiedemann syndrome

199
Q

signs of Turner syndrome

A

redundant neck skin or webbing with low posterior hair line 0

200
Q

1 to 2 month activities

A

lifts head, turns side to side, follows objects in visual field, drops toys, alert to voice, recognises parents, smiles

201
Q

3 to 5 month activities

A

grasp, reach for and brings things to mouth, makes raspberry sound, sits with support, laughs, anticipates food on sight, turns from back to side

202
Q

6 to 8 month activities

A

sits alone, reaches with 1 hand, imitates bye bye, passes object from hand to hand, babbles, rolls from back to stomach, inhibited by word no

203
Q

9 to 11 month activities

A

stands alone imitates pat a cake and peek a boo. use thumb and index finger to pick things up, walks with furniture, follows 1 step command

204
Q

1 year activities

A

walks independently, says mama and dada, pincer grasp, follow simple demonstration, gives toy on request, tries to build tower of toys, points to toys

205
Q

18 month activities

A

throws balls, seats self in char, walks up and down stairs with help, says 4 to 20 words, understand 2 step command, carries and bugs doll, feeds self

206
Q

24 month activities

A

speaks short phrases, kicks ball, points to named objects, jumps off floor, stands on 1 ft, uses pronouns, verbalize toilet needs, puts on simple garment

207
Q

sensorimotor stage piaget

A

age birth to 2 years, sensory organs and muscles become more functional

208
Q

preoperational stage piaget

A

age 2 to 7, emerging ability to think, egocentric, use of symbolism

209
Q

concrete operational stage piaget

A

7 to 11 years old, learns to reason about events in here and now

210
Q

formal operational stage piaget

A

age 11+ able to see relationships and to reason in abstract

211
Q

Erickson stage 1

A

stage 1. trust vs mistrust (hope) 0 to 1.5 yo

212
Q

erikson stage 2

A

autonomy vs shame ( will) 1.5 to 3 yo

213
Q

erikson stage 3

A

initiative vs guilt (purpose) 3 to 5 yo

214
Q

erikson stage 4

A

industry vs inferiority (competency) 5 to 12 yo

215
Q

erikson stage 5

A

ego identity vs role confusion (fidelity) age 12 to 18

216
Q

Freud staged

A

oral (0 to 18 mo) weaning, anal (18mo to 3/4yo) toilet training, phallic (3/4 to 5/7 yo) sexual identity, latent (5/7 to puberty) learning, genital (puberty +) genital intercourse

217
Q

enuresis

A

repeated clothes wetting older than age 5, happens at least twice a week for 3 months

218
Q

monosymptomatic enuresis

A

bedwetting only at night (every night for 6 months) after age 5, means delay of maturation of urologic and neurologic systems. usually genetic. can also be caused by overproduction of urine from decreased production of demopressin or resistance to antidiuretic hormone

219
Q

non monosymptomatic enuresis

A

underlying pathology cystitis, diabetes insipid, diabetes mellitus, seizure disorder, neurogenic bladder, obstruction

220
Q

encopresis

A

constipation, 2 months with (2 or more): fewer than 3 bowel movements per week, more than 1 episode per week, impaction of rectum with stool, passage of large stool that obstructs toilet, retentive posturing and fecal withholding, pain with defecation

221
Q

colic: rule of 3s

A

colicky infant is healthy and well fed but cries for more than 3 hours, for more than 3 days a week, for more than 3 weeks

222
Q

fragile x syndrome

A

most common cause of intellectual disability, caused by fmr1 gene. pt presents with shyness, social anxiety, learning problems. cognitive and language delays