Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

C > Unit 1 > Flashcards

Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Give the meaning of the term relative atomic mass.

A

average mass of all the atoms in an element compared to 1/12th the mass of a carbon-12 atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ions in a mass spectrometer are deflected using…

A

Magnetic field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe how the ions in a mass spectrometer are detected.

A

(Ions hit) plate/detector causing movement of electrons or (ions hit) plate/detector accept electrons
current generated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A second mass spectrum was recorded for the same sample of silicon.
The energy of the electrons from the electron gun was higher for this second spectrum.

A

Similarities:
(Some) peak(s) at same m/z
same sample / element (is being ionised and detected)

Differences:
Additional peak(s) at ½ m/z value
Two electrons knocked out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Van der Waals’ forces exist between all molecules.

Explain how these forces arise.

A

Electron movement in first molecule / temporary dipole
Induces a dipole in another molecule
(induced-temporary) attraction or δ+ attracts δ- in different/adjacent molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Methanol (CH3OH) and methanethiol (CH3SH). ) Explain, in terms of their intermolecular forces, why the boiling points of these compounds are different.

A

(methanol) H-bonds / hydrogen bonding
(methanethiol) dipole-dipole forces or van der Waals
H-bonds are a stronger / are the strongest IMF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Suggest how a mixture of methanol and methanethiol could be separated.

A

(Fractional) distillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Suggest why methaneselenol (CH3SeH) has a higher boiling point than methanethiol (CH3SH).

A

(Methaneselenol is a) bigger molecule

With stronger/more vdw forces between molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Solid Cu2(OH)2CO3 is added to an excess of dilute hydrochloric acid. Suggest one observation that could be made during the reaction.

A

effervescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

State what is meant by the term empirical formula.

A

Simplest ratio of atoms of each element in a compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Identify the homologous series to which octane belongs.

A

Alkanes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Complete combustion products.

A

Carbon Dioxide and Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Incomplete combustion products.

A

Carbon Monoxide or Carbon (soot) and Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name the type of cracking that produces a high yield Alkenes.
Give two conditions required for this process.

A

Thermal
High pressure (70 atms)
and
High temperature (500 degrees Celsius)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

State and explain the general trend in first ionisation energy across Period 3.

A

General increase
Greater nuclear charge / more protons
Same shielding / electrons added to same shell
Stronger attraction (from nucleus) for outer electron(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give one example of an element which deviates from the general trend in first ionisation energy across Period 3.
Explain why this deviation occurs.

A

Sulfur / S (lower than P)
(outer) electrons in (3)p orbital begin to pair
repel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Table 3 shows successive ionisation energies of an element Y in Period 3.
Identify element Y.
Explain your answer using data from Table 3.

A

Sulfur / S

Large jump after 6th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Identify the Period 3 element that has the highest melting point.
Explain your answer by reference to structure and bonding.

A

Silicon
Giant covalent structure
Covalent Bonds
Many / strong (covalent bonds) need lots of energy to break

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Explain whether the first method or the second method of production of phosphoric acid has the higher atom economy.
You are not required to do a calculation

A

Method 1

No other products formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

State the element in Period 3 that has the highest first ionisation energy.
Explain your answer.

A

Argon / Ar
Large(st) number of protons / large(st) nuclear charge
Same amount of shielding / same number of shells / same number of energy levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Suggest the element in Period 3 that has the highest electronegativity value.

A

Chlorine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Suggest what might cause the relative atomic mass of this sample to be different from the relative atomic mass given in the Periodic Table.

A

some isotopes absent/missing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Write an equation for the reaction that occurs when a tellurium ion hits the detector.

A

Te+ + e(–) –> Te

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The mass spectrum of tellurium also has a small peak at m/z = 64.
Explain the existence of this peak.

A 
2+ ion formed / 2 electrons removed
From 128 (Te)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Predict whether the atomic radius of two isotopes are different or the same.
Explain your answer.

A

Same

(Each isotope has the) same number of protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Give the name of the type of crystal structure shown by silicon dioxide.

A

Giant covalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Suggest why silicon dioxide does not conduct electricity when molten.

A

No delocalised electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Suggest how a student doing this experiment could check that all the water had been removed.

A

re-heat

check that mass is unchanged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Suggest a value for the H–O–O bond angle.

A

100 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

State the strongest type of interaction that occurs between molecules of hydrogen peroxide and water.

A

Hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Explain, in terms of electronegativity, why the boiling point of H2S2 is lower than H2O2.

A

Electronegativity of S lower than O

No hydrogen bonding between H2S2 molecules only van der Waals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Give the meaning of the terms saturated and hydrocarbon as applied to saturated hydrocarbons.

A

Saturated – single carbon-carbon bonds only

Hydrocarbon – contains carbon and hydrogen (atoms) only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Explain why the sulfur compounds found in crude oil should be removed from the fractions before they are used for central heating fuel.

A

SO2 produced

Which causes acid rain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Suggest one important substance manufactured on a large scale from propene.

A

polypropene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Sodium azide has a high melting point.
Predict the type of bonding in a crystal of sodium azide.
Suggest why its melting point is high.

A

Ionic
Oppositely charged ions / Na+ and N3– ions
lots of energy needed to overcome (strong) attractions (between ions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Give the formula of a molecule that has the same number of electrons as the azide ion.

A

CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which is the correct formula of magnesium azide?

A

MgN6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q 
Which one of the following is a fundamental particle that would not be deflected by an
electric field?
 A electron
 B neutron
 C proton
A

B neutron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

State why isotopes have similar chemical reactions.

A

the have the same electron configuration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Second ionisation energy equation for boron.

A

B+(g) –> B^2+(g) + e(–)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Explain why the second ionisation energy of boron is higher than the first ionisation energy of boron.

A

Electron being removed from a positive ion (therefore need more energy) to remove the electron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Suggest a name for this type of reaction that iron(III) nitrate undergoes.

A

(Thermal) decomposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Suggest why the iron(III) oxide obtained is pure. Assume a complete reaction.

A

because there are no other solid/liquid products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

State the block in the Periodic Table that contains nickel.

A

d (block)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Explain, in terms of its structure and bonding, why nickel has a high melting point.

A 
Contains positive (metal) ions  and a sea of electrons
Strong metallic bonds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Explain why nickel is ductile (can be stretched into wires).

A

sheets of atoms can slide over one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The following equation shows how anhydrous nickel(II) chloride can be obtained from the hydrated salt using SOCl2.
Identify one substance that could react with both gaseous products.

A

CaCO3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Name the strongest attractive force between two ammonia molecules.

A

Hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

State how the bond between ammonia and boron trichloride is formed.

A

Lone pair is donated to B(Cl3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Give the meaning of the term electronegativity.

A

The power of an atom to attract electrons towards itself in a covalent bond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Give the name of the substance from which paraffin is obtained.
State the name of the process used to obtain paraffin from this substance.

A

Crude oil

Fractional distillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Oxides of nitrogen are also produced during the combustion of paraffin in air.
Explain how these oxides of nitrogen are formed.

A

Nitrogen and oxygen (from air) react

at high temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Give the general formula for the homologous series that contains dodecane.

A

CnH2n+2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Write an equation for the cracking of one molecule of dodecane into equal amounts of two different molecules each containing the same number of carbon atoms.
State the empirical formula of the straight-chain alkane that is formed.
Name the catalyst used in this reaction.

A

C12H26 –> C6H14 + C6H12
C3H7
Zeolite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Explain why the melting point of dodecane is higher than the melting point of the straight-chain alkane produced by cracking dodecane.

A

Larger molecule

More van der Waals’ forces between molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Dodecane can be converted into halododecanes.
Deduce the formula of a substance that could be reacted with dodecane to produce 1-chlorododecane and hydrogen chloride only.

A

Cl2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Thallium(I) bromide (TlBr) is a crystalline solid with a melting point of 480 ºC.
Suggest the type of bonding present in thallium(I) bromide and state why the melting
point is high.

A

Ionic
Oppositely charged ions / Tl + and Br– ions
Strong attraction between ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Identify which one of the isotopes of X is deflected the most in the magnetic field of a mass spectrometer. Give a reason for your answer.

A

number

Lowest mass / lowest m/z

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Explain how the current in a mass spectrometer is generated.

A

Electron(s) transferred / flow (at the detector)

(From detector / plate) to the (+) ion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

State one hazard associated with carbon.

A

causes global dimming

61
Q

Other than cracking, give one common use of Y.

A

Jet fuel

62
Q

Identify a catalyst used in a catalytic converter and why other than cost it is used.

A

platinum

it can withstand high temperatures

63
Q

Deduce the type of crystal structure shown by graphane.

A

macromolecular

64
Q

State how two carbon atoms form a carbon–carbon bond in graphane.

A

bond due to the shared pair of electrons

65
Q

Deduce the empirical formula of graphane.

A

CH

66
Q

Phosphine (PH3) has a structure similar to ammonia.

In terms of intermolecular forces, suggest the main reason why phosphine is almost insoluble in water.

A

(Phosphine) does not form hydrogen bonds (with water)

67
Q

An aluminium chloride molecule reacts with a chloride ion to form the AlCl4− ion.
Name the type of bond formed in this reaction. Explain how this type of bond is formed in the AlCl4− ion.

A

Coordinate / dative (covalent)

Electron pair on Cl– donated to Al(Cl3)

68
Q

Aluminium chloride has a relative molecular mass of 267 in the gas phase.
Deduce the formula of the aluminium compound that has a relative molecular mass of 267.

A

Al2Cl6

69
Q

Deduce the name or formula of a compound that has the same number of atoms, the
same number of electrons and the same shape as the AlCl4− ion.

A

SiCl4

70
Q

Explain why the TlCl2+ ion has the shape that you have drawn .

A

(electrons in) the bonds repel to be as far apart as possible

71
Q

Which one of the first, second or third ionisations of thallium produces an ion with the electron configuration [Xe] 5d106s1?

A

Second

72
Q

Identify the Period 2 element, from carbon to fluorine, that has the largest atomic radius. Explain your answer.

A

Carbon / C
smallest nuclear charge
Similar shielding

73
Q

State the general trend in first ionisation energies from carbon to neon.
Deduce the element that deviates from this trend and explain why this element deviates from the trend.

A

Increase
Oxygen / O
Paired electrons in a (2)p orbital
(Paired electrons in a p orbital) repel

74
Q

Deduce the element in Period 2, from lithium to neon, that has the highest second ionisation energy.

A

Lithium

75
Q

Predict the type of crystal structure in solid zinc fluoride and explain why its melting point is high.

A 
Ionic
Strong (electrostatic) attraction (between ions)
between oppositely charged ions / + and – ions / F– and Zn2+ ions
76
Q

Give the general formula of the homologous series of straight-chain bromoalkanes that contains one bromine atom per molecule

A

CnH2n+1Br

77
Q

Suggest one reason why 1-bromohexane has a higher boiling point than Z.

A

Stronger / more vdw (forces) between molecules

78
Q

State the meaning of the term mass number of an isotope.

A

(Total number of) protons and neutrons (in nucleus of

atom)

79
Q

In a mass spectrometer, the isotopes of an element are separated.
Two measurements for each isotope are recorded on the mass spectrum.
State the two measurements that are recorded for each isotope.

A

m/z

(relative) abundance

80
Q

Give one reason why the second ionisation energy of silicon is lower than the second ionisation energy of aluminium.

A

electron in silicon is more shielded

81
Q

Predict the element in Period 3 that has the highest second ionisation energy.
Give a reason for your answer.

A

Sodium / Na

Electron (removed) from the 2nd shell / 2p (orbital)

82
Q

The following table gives the successive ionisation energies of an element in Period 3.
Identify this element.

A

Silicon

83
Q

Explain why the ionisation energy of every element is endothermic.

A

energy is needed to overcome the attraction between
the (negative) electron and the (positive) nucleus or
protons

84
Q

Suggest why the electronegativity of the elements increases from lithium to fluorine

A

bigger nuclear charge

similar shielding

85
Q

State the type of bonding in lithium fluoride.

Explain why a lot of energy is needed to melt a sample of solid lithium fluoride.

A 
Ionic
Strong (electrostatic) attractions 
between oppositely charged Li+ and F- ions
86
Q

Deduce why the bonding in nitrogen oxide is covalent rather than ionic.

A

Small electronegativity difference / they are both non-metal

87
Q

Suggest the type of crystal shown by OF2

A

(simple) molecular

88
Q

Both C3H8 and C4H10 can be liquefied and used as fuels for camping stoves.
Suggest, with a reason, which of these two fuels is liquefied more easily.

A

C4H10

because it is a larger molecule

89
Q

Explain why the complete combustion of C4H10 may contribute to environmental problems.

A

CO2 produced is a greenhouse gas and contributes to global warming

90
Q

Identify a compound that is used to react with the sulfur dioxide in the products of
combustion before they enter the atmosphere.
Give one reason why this compound reacts with sulfur dioxide.

A

calcium carbonate

Neutralises the SO2

91
Q

Ethanethiol and ethanol molecules have similar shapes.

Explain why ethanol has the higher boiling point.

A

because Ethanol contains Hydrogen bonding

Which is stronger than van der waals in ethanethiol

92
Q

Suggest why a leak of NO2 gas from the Ostwald Process will cause atmospheric pollution.

A

NO2 contributes to acid rain

93
Q

Give one reason why excess air is used in the Ostwald Process.

A

ensure complete combustion takes place

94
Q

Ammonia reacts with nitric acid as shown in this equation.
NH3 + HNO3 → NH4NO3
Deduce the type of reaction occurring.

A

Neutralisation

95
Q

Explain why the AsCl4+ ion has a bond angle of 109.5º

A

There are 4 pairs of electrons

and the electron pairs repel equally

96
Q

Explain how the gaseous atoms of rubidium are ionised in a mass spectrometer.

A

Electron gun

Knock out electron(s)

97
Q

State one reason why the first ionisation energy of rubidium is lower than the first ionisation energy of sodium.

A

more shells in Rb so there is more shielding in Rb

98
Q

By reference to the relevant part of the mass spectrometer, explain how the abundance
of an isotope in a sample of rubidium is determined.

A

Detector

detects the flow of electron as an electric current

99
Q

Predict whether an atom of 88Sr will have an atomic radius that is larger than, smaller than or the same as the atomic radius of 87Rb. Explain your answer

A

Smaller
Bigger nuclear charge / more protons in Sr
Similar/same shielding

100
Q

State why high temperatures are needed for thermal cracking.

A

Break (C-C or C-H) bonds

101
Q

Suggest the formula of a reagent that could be added to alkenes in order to convert it into alkanes.

A

H2

102
Q

Explain why the boiling points of alkenes and alkanes are similar

A

(Molecules) are similar sizes

so have similar intermolecular forces

103
Q

Although phosphine molecules contain hydrogen atoms, there is no hydrogen bonding between phosphine molecules.
Suggest an explanation for this.

A

Difference in electronegativity between P and H is too

small

104
Q

Suggest why graphene is an excellent conductor of electricity

A

Delocalised electrons / free electrons

Able to move / flow (through the crystal)

105
Q

Explain, in terms of its structure and bonding, why titanium has a high melting point.

A

Nucleus / protons / positive ions and delocalised
electrons (are attracted)
Strong attraction

106
Q

Explain why boron trichloride has a trigonal planar shape with equal bond angles.

A

3 bonds

Pairs repel equally

107
Q

State the type of bond between Br and F in BrF3 and state how this bond is formed.

A

Covalent

Shared pair of electrons

108
Q

The boiling points of fluorine and hydrogen fluoride are –188 oC and 19.5 oC respectively.
Explain, in terms of bonding, why the boiling point of fluorine is very low.

A

van der Waals forces between molecules

IMF are weak

109
Q

Identify, from the Period 2 elements lithium to nitrogen, the element that has the largest
atomic radius.

A

Lithium

110
Q

State the general trend in first ionisation energies for the Period 2 elements lithium to nitrogen.

A

Increase / gets bigger

111
Q

Identify the element that deviates from this general trend, from lithium to nitrogen, and explain your answer.

A

Boron / B
Electron removed from (2)p orbital
Which is higher in energy

112
Q

Identify the Period 2 element that has the following successive ionisation energies.

A

Carbon

113
Q

Explain, in terms of structure and bonding, why the melting point of carbon is high.

A

Macromolecular / giant molecular / giant atomic
Covalent bonds in the structure
Strong (covalent) bonds must be broken or overcome /
(covalent) bonds need a lot of energy to break

114
Q

C6H14 has structural isomers.

Deduce the number of structural isomers with molecular formula C6H14.

A

5

115
Q

State one type of structural isomerism shown by the isomers of C6H14.

A

Chain (isomerism)

116
Q

An element forms an ion Q with a single negative charge that has the same electron
configuration as the nitride ion.
Identify the ion Q.

A

Fluoride

117
Q

Use the Periodic Table and your knowledge of electron arrangement to write the formula of lithium nitride.

A

Li3N

118
Q

Suggest one reason why the yield of nitrogen dioxide formed during this reaction is often less than expected.

A

some (NO2) escapes

119
Q

Suggest one reason why it is difficult to obtain a pure sample of nitrogen dioxide from this reaction.

A

hard to separate the 2 gases

120
Q

State how krypton is ionised in the mass spectrometer. Sometimes the mass spectrum of Kr has a very small peak with an m/z value of 42
Explain the occurrence of this peak.

A

(Beam of electrons from) an electron gun
Knocks out electron(s
The 84Kr isotope
Has 2 electrons knocked out

121
Q

Suggest one reason why particles with the same mass and velocity can be deflected
by different amounts in the same magnetic field.

A

different charges

122
Q

Explain how the detector in a mass spectrometer enables the abundance of an isotope to be measured.

A

(ions hit detector and) cause current/(ions)

current proportional to abundance of the isotope

123
Q

State the type of reaction that occurs when calcium carbonate reacts with nitric acid.

A

Neutralisation

124
Q

State the type of bond formed between the N atom and the B atom in F2HNBF3.
Explain how this bond is formed.

A

dative covalent

Lone pair on N(HF2) donated (to BF3)

125
Q

Suggest why the melting point of sodium iodide is lower than the melting point of sodium bromide.

A

Iodide is a bigger ion

126
Q

Suggest why the first ionisation energy of krypton is lower than the first ionisation energy of argon.

A

Kr is a bigger atom

127
Q

Deduce the group in the Periodic Table that contains this element.

A

2

128
Q

With reference to the structure shown above give one reason why ice is less dense than water.

A

H2O molecules (in ice) are more spread out

129
Q

State the strongest type of intermolecular force in methane.

A

Van der waals

130
Q

Identify one molecule with the same number of atoms, the same number of electrons and the same shape as the H3O+ ion.

A

ammonia

131
Q

State why more than the minimum energy is not used to ionise the sample of indium.

A

so only one electron is knocked out

132
Q

Give two reasons why the sample of indium must be ionised.

A

so that the ions can be:
Accelerated
Deflect

133
Q

Suggest one possible danger when a metal carbonate is reacted with an acid in a sealed flask.

A

may explode

134
Q

State the type of structure shown by crystals of sulfur and phosphorus.
Explain why the melting point of sulfur is higher than the melting point of phosphorus.

A

(Simple) molecular
S bigger molecule (than P)
So more/ stronger van der Waals‟ forces (to be broken or overcome)

135
Q

Explain why the melting point of aluminium is higher than the melting point of sodium.

A

Al has a bigger charge
More free /delocalised electrons
Stronger metallic bonding

136
Q

State two characteristics of a homologous series.

A

Same) General formula /

Chemically similar

137
Q

Suggest the strongest type of intermolecular force between CCI2F2 molecules.

A

dipole-dipole

138
Q

Name the type of bond formed when a molecule of BF3 reacts with an F– ion. Explain how this bond is formed.

A

Coordinate/ dative (covalent)
(Lone) pair of electrons/ both electrons (on F-)
Donated from F / fluoride or donated to the BF3

139
Q

State the bond angle in the BF4– ion.

A

109.5

140
Q

Explain why the value of the first ionisation energy of sulfur is less than the value of the first ionisation energy of phosphorus.

A

Paired electrons in (3)p orbital

repel

141
Q

State the trend in first ionisation energies in Group 2 from beryllium to barium.
Explain your answer in terms of a suitable model of atomic structure.

A

Decreases
Atomic radius increases/ electron removed further
from nucleus or nuclear charge/ electron in higher
energy level/ Atoms get larger/ more shells
As group is descended more shielding

142
Q

State the type of crystal structure for each of iodine and graphite.

A

Iodine- molecular

Graphite- giant covalent

143
Q

State the meaning of the term first ionisation energy.

A

Energy (needed) to remove one mole of electrons from one mole of atoms in the gaseous state.

144
Q

A general trend exists in the first ionisation energies of the Period 2 elements lithium to fluorine. Identify one element which deviates from this general trend.

A

Oxygen

145
Q

The first ionisation energy of aluminium is less than the first ionisation energy of magnesium.

A

The outer electron in Rb is in a 5s orbital (or next outer shell)
It is more shielded from the nucleus than outer electrons in Kr

146
Q

The first ionisation energy of krypton is greater than that of bromine.

A

Krypton has more protons than bromine

But its outer electrons are in the same shell (or have similar shielding)

147
Q

Give two reasons why this reaction might not be suitable for the removal of carbon dioxide from the exhaust gases of an engine.

A

reaction might be too slow

would need continuous supply of solution

148
Q

The sodium hydroxide solution for this reaction can be made on an industrial scale, together with chlorine gas and hydrogen gas, by electrolysis of a dilute solution of sodium chloride. Suggest one commercial advantage and one environmental disadvantage of this industrial process.

A

commercial advantage could sell chlorine and/or hydrogen

environmental disadvantage generation of electricity likely to lead to release of CO2

149
Q

In terms of atomic structure, explain why the van der Waals’ forces in liquid argon are very weak.

A

Argon particles are single atoms with electrons closer to nucleus
Cannot easily be polarised

C (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions