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Higher Biology > Unit 1 > Flashcards

Unit 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a Deoxyribose sugar made of?

A

A Phosphate group and an organic base

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2
Q

4 bases

A

Adenine, Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine

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3
Q

What are the bases linked by?

A

Weak hydrogen bonds

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4
Q

Features of a Prokaryote

A

No true nucleus; Circular DNA, Few organelles

Bacterial cell

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5
Q

Features of a Eukaryote

A

True nucleus, double nuclear membrane, Linear DNA

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6
Q

What does a nuclear membrane do?

A

Separates the nucleus from the cytoplasm

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7
Q

For DNA replication to occur, what must the nucleus contain?

A

Primers, Bases, Enzymes and a supply of DNA

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8
Q

What catalyses DNA replication?

A

DNA Polymerase

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9
Q

2 strands of DNA replication?

A

Leading and Lagging strand

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10
Q

What is meant by Semi conservative replication?

A

Each DNA double helix has one original strand and one new strand

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11
Q

What is the importance of DNA?

A

DNA encodes the hereditary information in a chemical language; stored as a base sequence of DNA (the genome)

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12
Q

What is PCR?

A

A technique used to make many copies of a small sample or fragment of DNA in a lab.

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13
Q

What does the reaction mixture in PCR contain? (5)

A
  • Original DNA strand
  • DNA Polymerase
  • DNA nucleotides
  • Primers
  • ATP
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14
Q

What is the enzyme used in PCR?

A

Taq polymerase

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15
Q

What happens in the first step of PCR?

A

DNA is heated to a very high temperature to break the weak hydrogen bonds.

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16
Q

What happens in stage 2 of PCR?

A

It is cooled. At a lower temperature, the primers can then form hydrogen bonds.

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17
Q

What happens at stage 3 in PCR?

A

The temperature is increased to allow a special heat tolerant DNA polymerase can then add on nucleotides.

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18
Q

What are the uses of PCR?

A
  • Forensic: blood or tissues samples

- Paternity cases

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19
Q

What is the structure of RNA?

A
  • Ribose sugar, a phosphate group and a base (A,G,C or U)
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20
Q

What is mRNA?

A

Carries a copy of the genetic code to the Ribosomes

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21
Q

Where is tRNA found and what is it role?

A

Found in the cytoplasm

Carries a specific amino acid

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22
Q

What is rRNA?

A

rRNA and associated proteins together form a ribosome.

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23
Q

Stages of Gene expression (in order)

A 
Transcriptions
RNA Splicing 
Translation 
Folding - post translational modification
(~Protein is formed~)
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24
Q

What is Transcription?

A

Synthesis of mRNA from DNA, within the nucleus

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25
Q

What enzyme is present during Transcription?

A

RNA Polymerase

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26
Q

What happens during RNA Splicing?

A

Introns are removed; Exons are ‘spliced’ together to form mature messenger RNA transcript.

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27
Q

What is Translation?

A

Synthesis of a protein from a specific amino acid using the code in mRNA at the ribosomes.

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28
Q

What is folding?

A

Hydrogen bonds and disulphide bridges hold the chains of amino acids in their 3D shape.

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29
Q

What is post-translational modification?

A

Cutting and combining different protein chains, adding phosphate to the protein.

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30
Q

What are Meristems?

A

Regions of unspecialised cells in plants capable of cell division.

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31
Q

Name the 2 different types of Meristems

A

Apical and Lateral

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32
Q

Where are Apical Meristems?

A

Found at the root and shoot tips, capable of elongating

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33
Q

Where are Lateral Meristems found?

A

Found in Cambium; in both root and stems

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34
Q

What are stem cells?

A

Unspecialised somatic cells

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35
Q

What are Embryonic stem cells?

A

Cells which are capable of differentiating into all cell types (pluripotent)
found within a blastocyst.

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36
Q

What are Adult stem cells needed for?

A

For growth, repair and renewal of tissues of only limited cell types.

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37
Q

What are stem cells used for in research?

A

Model cells to study how diseases develop.

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38
Q

Therapeutic uses of stem cells

A

Repair of damaged or diseased organs or tissues

e.g. skin grafts for severe burns

39
Q

Future potential of stem cells

A

provide treatment for diabetes, Alzheimer’s disease and cardiac disease.

40
Q

Function of non-coding sequences

A

No known function and to regulate transcription

41
Q

What are the factors which increase the rate of mutations known as and give examples

A

Mutagenic agents

  • Chemical: mustard gas
  • Radiation: X-Rays
42
Q

What are single gene mutations?

A

A change in one of the base pairs in a DNA sequence of a gene.

43
Q

What are the 3 different types of single gene mutations?

A
  • Insertion
  • Deletion
  • Substitution
44
Q

What is insertion?

A

When an extra base is inserted into DNA. All amino acids after the insertion will be different (major changes)
Known as a Frame-shift mutation

45
Q

What is Deletion?

A

When a base is deleted in DNA; also known as a Frame-shift mutation.

46
Q

What is Substitution?

A

When a base is replaced by a different base in DNA; only has a minor effect

47
Q

What are the 3 types of Substitutions?

A
  • Missense: results in a triplet that codes for a different amino acid
  • Non-sense: Results in a stop codon
  • Splice-site: a nucleotide is substituted at a site where introns are normally removed.
48
Q

What are Chromosome structure mutations?

A

Changes to the number or sequence of genes in a chromosome.

49
Q

What are the 4 different types of Chromosomal mutations?

A
  • Duplication
  • Deletion
  • Translocation
  • Inversion
50
Q

What is Duplication?

A

When a set of genes are repeated or duplicated on the chromosome.

51
Q

What is Inversion?

A

When genes are rotated 180 degrees.

52
Q

What is Translocation?

A

When a section of a chromosome breaks off from original chromosome and attaches itself to another chromosome.

53
Q

What is important about mutations in Evolution?

A

Only source of new variation: gives an individual a survival advantage.

54
Q

What is Meiosis?

A

When only one set of chromosomes are present in each cell: each gamete has a haploid number of chromosomes (n)

55
Q

What is Non-disjunction?

A

When an error can occur through spindle fibre formation and the matching chromosome fails to separate.

56
Q

What is complete non-disjunction?

A

When the spindle fibres fails altogether, which can result in a cell with a complete extra set of chromosomes.

57
Q

What is Polyploidy?

A

If there is more than 2 complete sets of matching chromosomes in an organism.
Common in plants but very rare in animals.

58
Q

How can polyploidy benefit the production of plants?

A
  • Greater yields
  • Larger cells and grow faster
  • Greater resistance to disease
59
Q

What does evolution involve?

A

Inheritance, Selection, Drift and speciation

60
Q

What is inheritance?

A

The passage of genetic information from parent to offspring

61
Q

What are the 2 types of inheritance?

A

Vertical and Horizontal

62
Q

What is horizontal inheritance?

A

When genetic material can pass across from one cell to another horizontally within the same generation or from one species to a different species of prokaryotes.

63
Q

Why might many offspring die ?

A

due to the lack of food availability, over-crowding and the lack of resistance to disease

64
Q

What is male to male competition?

A

When fight to gain the best breeding site or territory. They use “weapons” such as antlers or tusks

65
Q

What is female choice?

A

The female “selects” or “chooses” the male to mate with.

Male is likely to have advantageous alleles.

66
Q

What are the 3 ways that natural selection can affect a population?

A
  • Stabilising
  • Directional
  • Disruptive
67
Q

What does stabilising selection do?

A

Gives an advantage to individual that posses the average phenotype.
(graph gets thinner, same mean)

68
Q

What is directional selection?

A

Favours alleles at one phenotypic extreme, in response to a change in an environmental pressure.
(Graph moves along the x-axis, new mean)

69
Q

What is Disruptive selection?

A

Favours 2 extreme forms of a characteristic

the population splits into two distinct groups: each with its own means

70
Q

What are Neutral mutations?

A

Affected by genetic drift and therefore may increase or decrease in frequency.

71
Q

What is the founder effect?

A

A small group of organisms are isolated from the rest of population.
Has a random selection of alleles.

72
Q

What do isolation barriers do?

A

Prevent gene flow between populations, stopping the populations from interbreeding.

73
Q

What are the 3 types of isolation?

A

Geographical, behavioural and ecological

74
Q

What does geographical isolation lead to?

A

Allopatric Speciation

75
Q

What does behavioural and ecological isolation lead to?

A

Sympatric Speciation

76
Q

What is allopatric speciation?

A

When a geographical barrier separates two (or more) populations, such as mountain ranges, rivers, deserts and seas. This prevents gene flow.

77
Q

What is sympatric speciation?

A

When gene flow between the populations is prevented by a behavioural or ecological barrier.
Produces 2 species which don’t interbreed

78
Q

What is a behavioural barrier?

A

Changes in reproductive behaviour

79
Q

What is an ecological barrier?

A

Changes in abiotic conditions

80
Q

What is a Hybrid zone?

A

Gene flow between the sub-populations.

An area where two populations meet and interbreed to produce fertile, hybrid offspring.

81
Q

What are Genomics?

A

Sequences of nucleotide bases in the entire genome; study of genomes

82
Q

What is bioinformatics?

A

The comparison of gene sequences using computers and statistics.

83
Q

What is used to work out a sequence of bases within a fragment of DNA?

A

Restriction endonuclease

84
Q

What is Phylogenetics?

A

Study of ‘evolutionary relatedness’ among different groups of organisms, using phylogenetic trees.

85
Q

What is evolutionary distance?

A

The number of differences per unit length of DNA between 2 genomes; the further apart the 2 species, the more distantly related they are.

86
Q

What are molecular clocks used for?

A

To estimate the data of the origins of groups of living organisms and the sequence in which they evolved.

87
Q

What are the 3 domains of life?

A

Bacteria - Prokaryotes
Archaea
Eukaryotes

88
Q

What is combined evidence?

A

Data from genome sequences and fossil evidence has been used to produce a timeline of the key events in evolution.

89
Q

What does the comparison of genomes do?

A

It shows many genes are highly conserved across different organisms.

90
Q

What is personal genomics?

A

Sequencing of a person’s entire genome (all the DNA bases) and its analysis.

91
Q

What is a genetic disorders a result of?

A

A result of a variation in Genomic DNA sequences.

92
Q

What is Personalised Medicine?

A

A study of how drugs work in the body (pharmacology); Analysing an individual’ genome can lead to a greater understanding of the genetic components of the risks of particular diseases.

93
Q

Name an advantage to Personalised medicine

A
  • Increases the effectiveness of the drug and reduces any possible side effects.
94
Q

Name a disadvantage to personalised medicine

A

You don’t know who has access to your information

Higher Biology (4 decks)

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