Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the TWO types of law?

A

Enacted (legislation) Law and Unenacted (common) Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the TWO ways to find out about common law?

A

Reported court cases AND authoritative texts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are statutes?

A

Acts of Parliament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who can authorise the Scottish Government to legislate?

A

Parliament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do you change the common law?

A

By statute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Public Law?

A

The law concerning the state and its relations with its citizens and with the businesses that operate in the country.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some examples of Public Law?

A

Constitutional law, Tax law, Planning law, Criminal law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Private Law?

A

Private law is horizontal law and acts between citizens and businesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some examples of Private Law?

A

Company law, Property law, Inheritance/succession law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Who makes the decision to prosecute a criminal?

A

State prosecutor/Fiscal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is ‘v’ spoken in England?

A

‘AND’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is ‘v’ spoken in Scotland?

A

‘AGAINST’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is it called if a judge disagrees?

A

Dissenting Judgement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a headnote?

A

A case summary written by an editor of a law publisher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the first instance court called?

A

Outer house

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is ‘reclaiming’?

A

Appealing from the outer house to the inner house

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What court can reverse the decision of the Lord Ordinary?

A

Inner house

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What courts can overrule a decision?

A

Courts that are higher than the court in which a decision was made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is ‘res judicata’?

A

A matter that has been adjudicated by a competent court and therefore may not be pursued further by the same parties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Who is the head judge?

A

The Lord President of the Court of Session

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Who is the second highest judge?

A

Lord Justice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is manslaughter called in Scotland?

A

Culpable Homicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many Scottish qualified judges does the Supreme Court have?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the THREE sources of law?

A

Formal/primary, secondary, historical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are some examples of formal/primary law?

A

Statutes, Acts of Parliament, EU legislation, case law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are Statutory Instruments?

A

Legislation that is passed by the government (in order to amend an act) and cannot be amended by parliament - parliament can only accept or reject in full. Scottish SI’s passed by Scottish ministers. A SI is an enactment made under the authority of a statute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is primary legislation passed by?

A

Acts of Parliament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are some examples of secondary law?

A

Journals, articles, textbooks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What areas of Scots law have been affected by Roman law?

A

Property, delict, persons, contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Example of secondary legislation?

A

(Scottish) statutory instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Case example where judge made law to deal with specific incident?

A

Callic glue-sniffing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the requirements of unwritten custom law?

A
  • Must not contradict general law
  • Must be certain
  • Must be generally accepted as obligatory
  • Must be reasonable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Case example of unwritten custom law?

A
Stirling Park & co v Digby Brown & co 
1996 SLT (Sh Ct) 17 (sheriff officer fees)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Hierarchy of Case law sources?

A
  • Decisions of the EU Court of Human Rights and the court of justice of the EU.
  • Supreme court of the UK/House of Lords/Judicial Committee of the Privy Council.
  • Inner House of the Court of Session (note: Whole Court/Full Bench/First division/second division/extra division).
  • Within a sheriffdom – decision of the sheriff principal.
  • Courts of first instance: outer house of the court of session/sheriff court.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hierarchy of unenacted law sources?

A

come back to this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is ‘stare decisis’?

A

Notion that higher courts bind lower courts?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where can sources of law be found?

A
  • Morisson’s dictionary (until 1801)
  • Session cases
  • Scots law times
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the short title of an act?

A

Name used to refer to legislation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the long title of an act?

A

The full name of the act, listed at the start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the enacting formula of an act?

A

Tells you how the act was passed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How can you tell if an act is in force or has been amended?

A

Check the current law using a legislation citatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is implied repeal?

A

When later legislation negates the effect of earlier legislation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is desuetude?

A

When a statute becomes obsolete after a passing of timw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does consolidation involve?

A

A new act that resolves any anomalies in legislation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does codification involve?

A

Taking the law in a particular area and trying to set it out in statutory form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are ‘travaux preparatoires’?

A

The official record of a negotiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the THREE elements of our tripartite system?

A

Legislative (writes the law)
Executive (amends the law)
Judiciary (applies the law)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is precedent?

A

Using a previous case as an example and applying it in a similar context

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is an example of a Scotland specific law?

A

Alcohol cannot be sold after 10pm in the shops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Where do rules specific to Scotland derive from?

A

Institutional writings, Scottish precedents, or from legislation passed either from UK Parliament dealing specifically with Scotland only or by the Scottish Parliament (since 1999).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is an example of an ‘umbrella law’?

A

Tax law in UK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the modern day characteristics of common law?

A
  • Not a codified system (relies on precedent)
  • Emphasis on judge-made law
  • Emphasis on actions and particular forms of plea
  • Makes a distinction between law and equity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the characteristics of civil law?

A
  • Codified system (does not rely on precedent)

- Judges have less power than in common law system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is Quebec’s legal system like?

A

Hybrid system between civil law and common law (mixed system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What were the ecclesiastical courts used for?

A

Anything regarding personal matters, such as marriage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What was canon law?

A

Principle by which Roman law filtered into Scotland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is an old scottish law that is still in place today?

A

Leases Act 1449

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What law was Scotland’s mixed system influenced by?

A

A mix of English law and Roman law influence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

When did the UK join the EU?

A

1972

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which law takes precedence?

A

EU law takes precedence over national law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When did devolution take place?

A

1999

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is devolution?

A

Devolution gives certain parts of an area a certain degree of power. Scotland was given a separate parliament.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is this difference between reserved and devolved matters?

A

Reserved - power held by Westminster

Devolved - power held by Scottish Parliament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

2 key dates in the development of the UK?

A

1603 - Union of Crowns

1707 - Union of Parliaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is a bicameral legislature?

A

2 chambers: HOL non-elected, HOC elected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The UK Parliament is supreme. What does this mean?

A

It is subject to EU law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

When reading HoL or UKSC cases, how do we know if they’re Scottish or English cases?

A

By looking at what courts they came from in the appellate history.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How many MSPs are there in Scottish parliament?

A

129

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Why is there a gap between royal assent and the passing of a bill?

A

So the government can take the bill to court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What happens if Westminster wants to legislate on a devolved topic?

A

The Scottish Parliament has to agree to this - only disagreed on one occasion (Welfare Reform Bill 2011)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Could the Scottish parliament amend a prior UK statute on Scottish Marriage law?

A

Yes - Scots Private Law is generally devolved. They could also repeal it or abolish marriage completely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Could the SP pass a statute about international sales? About consumer sales?

A

Yes to international. Consumer sales have to be handled by Westminster.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Could SP pass a statute on sexual offences?

A

Yes, criminal law is generally devolved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Could SP pass a statute changing company law?

A

Company law fits within the broad series of restrictions for trade and industry.
Therefore, this power is reserved for Westminster only.
BUT Scottish Parliament can deal with the rights and security of a company, just not the actual company itself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Could the SP host a referendum on Scottish Independence?

A

• When the Scotland Act 1998 was passed, this question was asked and the initial answer was No.
• Section 30 order on the referendum
This is a statutory instrument laid by the UK govt, which has to be agreed on by both the SP and UK parliament. This allows for the powers of the Scottish Parliament to be extended.
This effectively changes the Scotland Act without having to go through the full processes.
Section 30 does limit the ways in which Scotland can act with its extended power (e.g. The Scottish Parliament cannot pass the referendum on Scottish independence after December 2014).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the purpose of delegated legislation?

A

Delegated legislation allows the Government to make changes to a law without needing to push through a completely new Act of Parliament. The original Act (also known as primary legislation) would have provisions that allow for future delegated legislation to alter the law to differing degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Desolved legislative competence week 2

A

come back to this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Donoghue v Stevenson (unenacted law)

A

The headnote here implies that it was only a food safety case. BUT within 5 years of this case, it was applied to many cases for suing manufacturers of products. The case founded a law of product liability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Stirling Park & Co v Digby Brown & Co (custom law)

A

This case regarded sheriff officer fees. Digby Brown’s client did not pay Stirling Park’s sheriff officer fees, and it was argued that it was custom for the solicitors to pay the fees on behalf of their client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Who forms policy?

A

• Policy formulation becomes law because the policy people have an advisor / solicitor, and they translate the views of the team into instructions for the parliamentary drafter.
The legislation drafted by the parliamentary drafter is then sent back to the solicitor, who explains the draft to the bill team and they ensure that the legislation draft is doing what they want it to do. IF it doesn’t, it will be sent back and forth between the drafter and solicitor until an agreement is reached.
Once it is prepared, it is put to the parliament. Any member of the parliament can propose an amendment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the purpose of chapter numbers in legislation?

A

Denotes the sequential number of the act in the year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What does the date at the end of the long title tell you?

A

When Royal Assent was given - NOT when act was passed!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the four forms of enacting formula for?

A

Basic, taxation legislation, government expenditure legislation, legislation under parliament act 1911.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is a Henry VIII clause?

A

When a statute says that primary legislation can be amended by secondary legislation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Islip Pedigree Breeding and Others v Abercromby

A

come back to this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

2 types of ambiguity in law language?

A
  1. semantic ambiguity – ambiguities in individual words
  2. syntactic ambiguity – the way in which the words are put together on the page creates ambiguity. Basically, when the context can create ambiguities.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Williams v Evans (case example of syntactic ambiguity)

A

Where “fixed plant or machinery” created ambiguity. If you sold some of your “fixed plant or machinery” you were subject to tax relief.
Question as to whether “fixed” referred to both the plant and the machinery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The Guard Dogs Act s1(1) (case example of syntactic ambiguity)

A

“A person shall not use or permit the use of a guard dog at any premises unless a person (“the handler”) who is capable of controlling the dog is present on the premises and the dog is under the control of the handler at all times while it is being so used except while it is secured so that it is not at liberty to go freely about the premises.”
Two possible interpretations of the act.
Is it qualifying that the dog must be tethered, with a person simply there in the background?
OR is it qualifying the general principle that the dog must be under control of the person at all times?
The courts held that you did not need a handler present. You did not need a handler at all provided the dog is tethered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Why can the application of statutory interpretation be difficult?

A
  • Rules concerning complicated matters will be complicated
  • No language is an instrument of complete precision
  • No drafter can forsee all eventualities
  • Sometimes drafters make mistakes
  • There can be ambiguities
  • The meanings of words change over time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What do courts do in interpreting statutes?

A

• “Statute law consists of the words that Parliament has enacted. It is for the courts to construe those words and it is the court’s duty in so doing to give effect to the intention of Parliament in using those words.”
Pepper v Hart [1993] AC 593, 634 (per lord Browne-Wilkinson)

• “The object of the court in interpreting legislation is to give effect so far as the language permits to the intention of the legislature.”
Pepper v Hart [1993] AC 593, 617 (per Lord Griffiths)

• “No principle of interpretation of statutes, however, is more firmly settled than the rule that the court must deduce the intention of Parliament from the words used in the Act. If those words are in any way ambiguous – if they are reasonably capable of more than one meaning – or if the provision is contradicted by or is incompatible with any other provision in the Act, then the court may depart from the natural meaning of the words in question; beyond that we cannot go.”
Westminster Bank v Zang [1966] AC 182, 222

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are some possible reasons for legislating?

A
  • Necessity – legal problems arise that need a cure. EU obligations.
  • Emergency bill
  • Budget bills – government spending, £30 billion each year.
  • Policy priorities – land reform, smoking ban, referendum, tax powers etc.
  • Because we can
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the difference between statutory interpretation and application?

A

Interpretation is applying statutes to a theoretical situation.
A valid will is signed on every page – statutory application. (Requirements of Writing (Scotland) Act 1995).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Case corresponding to Vehicles (Excise) Act 1971 s8(1)?

A

“If any person … keeps on a public road any mechanically propelled vehicle for which a licence is not in force … he shall be liable to …” [penalty]
If an unlicensed car, without a gearbox, is balanced on four roller skates is it “on” a public road?
Holliday v Henry (1974)
The car was still found to be on the road.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Case corresponding to Glamorgan County Council (Various Streets, Bridgend) (recovation, Limitation and Prohibition of Waiting) Order 1972?

A

Boulton v Pilkington (1981)
The act stated that no one could park on Wyndham Street UNLESS they were parked there to enable the loading or unloading of goods to / from the vehicle.
Pilkington parked there to pick up his takeaway, and went back to his car, “loading” the goods into the car.
Argued that because he was picking up the takeaway i.e. loading goods into a vehicle, he was not wrong for being parked there.
On appeal, the courts held that by “unloading” goods, they meant a substantial amount of goods as opposed to a singular takeaway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Case corresponding toRestriction of Offensive Weapons Act 1959 s1?

A

Fisher v Bell
Under the act, it is illegal to manufacture, sell, or offer for sale a flick knife.
The shop had a flick knife in the window with a price tag next to it – are they offering the flick knife for sale?
The defence was to use “offer” under its technical meaning, Fisher was not actually offering the knife for sale, it was an invitation to treat, hence it was an offer to make an offer – not an offer for sale.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Principle 1 of the Judiciary approach to statutory interpretation?

A

The judge must give effect to the grammatical and ordinary or, where appropriate, the technical meaning of words in the general context of the statute; he must also determine the extent of general words with reference to that context.
Technical or ordinary meaning – what takes priority? Depends on the context.
Jenner v Allen West & Co Ltd – a case involving employment legislation regulating those who worked on roofs. The legislation referred to a “crawling board”. In the roofing industry, crawling board has a specific technical meaning BUT if you were to say it to a normal person, there would be ambiguity surrounding its definition.
The courts looked at the intended audience of the legislation. Technical words used in the building sector would be used in the legislation – hence the technical meaning of words should apply.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Principle 2 of the judiciary approach to statutory interpretation?

A

If the judge considers that the application of the words in their grammatical and ordinary sense would produce a result which is contrary to the purpose of the statute, he may apply them in any secondary meaning which they are capable of bearing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Principle 3 of the judiciary approach to statutory interpretation?

A

The judge may read in words which he considers to be necessarily implied by words which are already in the statute; and he has a limited power to add to, alter or ignore statutory words in order to prevent a provision from being unintelligible, absurd or totally unreasonable, unworkable, or totally irreconcilable with the rest of the statute.
Example – Adler v George
Involved legislation making it an offence to do something in the “vicinity” of an airfield.
Defender argued that they were not in the vicinity of the airfield when they committed the offence – they were actually in the airfield.
For this reason, courts added words into the statute to prevent further defence claims from being made.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Principle 4 of the judiciary approach to statutory interpretation?

A

In applying the above the judges may resort to aids to construction and presumptions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Principle 5 of the judiciary approach to statutory interpretation?

A

The judge must interpret a statute so as to give effect to directly applicable European Union law, and, in so far as this is not possible, must refrain from applying the statutory provisions which conflict with that law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

The Rules of Statutory Interpretation (generally not applied in Scotland)

A

• Literal Rule – the idea that the courts may only look at the legislative rule itself
• Mischief Rule – if a provision is unclear, the judge should look to the mischief the act was designed to overcome, and interpret it in order to “suppress the mischief and advance the remedy”.
Basically, the mischief rule goes to the root of the legislation and questions why it was made, in order to overcome anbiguities.
• Golden Rule – a hybrid of the Literal rule and the Mischief Rule. The literal meaning should be applied unless it produces an ambiguity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Employers’ Liability (Defective Equipment) Act 1969 Section 1 (statutory interpretation case)

A
  • Ship sank and the crew all died
  • Their family members tried to make a claim under this act
  • Firstly, the courts held that the act, in it’s definition of “equipment” did not include ships, as it specified “vehicles”, and “aircraft” but not ships
  • BUT held on appeal that the act did account for ships as, also included in the definition was the word “includes” meaning the definition was not set in stone and was subject to interpretation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

➢ Ejusdem generis – literally meaning “of the same kind”.

Case example – Duncan v Jackson

A

You could register within a particular council area if, within that area you had “any house, warehouse, counting house, shop, or other building”.
Duncan had a leak in his gas meter.
He argued that his gas meter should be taken into account for registration under this council area.
Courts held that he was not eligible for this council area by applying the ejusdem generis rule. All of the things listed in the act were substantial buildings, the gas meter was not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What does ‘noscitur a sociis’ mean?

A

“a thing known by its associates”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What does ‘Expressio unius est exclusion alterius’ mean?

A

“the mention of one thing is to the exclusion of all others.”

106
Q

What does ‘a presumption against unclear changes in the law’ mean?

A

If the law is changed in a statute, and the statute is ambiguous, the courts will assume that it is not amending the law in a major way, but a minor one.

107
Q

What are the FOUR linguistic presumptions in statutory interpretation?

A
  1. Presumption against unclear changes in the law
  2. Presumption for freedom
  3. Presumption against retrospective effect
    (An example of this is Gardner v Beresford’s Trustees
    BUT it is possible to displace this presumption – it is only a presumption.)
  4. • There is a presumption that conjunctions (“and” , “or” ) may be misused in legislation when listing conditions.
    (IF the result of the literal interpretation appears to defeat the intention of the legislation, the courts will not necessarily hold to the literal use of the conjunction.)
108
Q

Legal presumptions in statutory interpretation will only apply when…

A

…when there is doubt as to the meaning of legislation.

109
Q

What external aids to interpretation can be used?

A
  • Dictionaries (Chambers and Judicial)
  • Literature
    (This is uncommon, but it can happen.
    Judge in R v Peters quoted Othello)
  • Practice
  • Contemporary meanings
110
Q

Can legislative history be used in interpretation?

A

ONLY if meaning is unclear and ambiguous.
In Pepper v Hart, one of the judges looked at Hansard debate (free travel for rail workers).
Ultimately a new bench with 7 judges was convened, and it was a 6:1 decision of allowing reference to parliamentary material. Lord Browne-Wilkinson leading judgement: “Reference to Parliamentary debates is permissible where: “(a) the legislation is ambiguous or obscure or leads to an absurdity; (b) the material relied on consists of one or more statements by a minister or other promoter of the Bill together if necessary with such other parliamentary material as is necessary to understand such statements and their effect; (c) the statements relied on are clear.”

111
Q

When can you refer to a statement in Hansard?

A

Chief Adjudication Officer v Foster
Found that where you have a split in the opinions of the Judges of the court, this indicates an ambiguity in the legislation.
• The statement is from promoter of a bill
This is constitutionally problematic. There are a number of people involved in the bill making process.
It basically implies that the govt minister’s views should prevail above all.
• You can only rely on the statement if it is clear.

112
Q

Using historical context as judicial precedent is risky as it depends on…

A

Decent law reporting.
As time goes on we are seeing better recording of judgements stating what the law actually is and why a case can be applied as precedent (compared to C19 Morison’s dictionary with mere one line summaries)

113
Q

What is precedent?

A

• Relying on principles of the past, and employing them in a present argument in court.

114
Q

What are the key ideas of precedent?

A

Treat similar cases alike, and dissimilar cases differently, for fairness, certainty and predictability - enhances the legitimacy of the system.

115
Q

What is ‘mobile officium’?

A

• A legislative power that the court has
• “equitable” power exercised by the Court of Session and High Court of Justiciary to provide a remedy where none exists, but the court feels it should.
Basically, it can be used to fill the gaps in legislation.

116
Q

What is Declaratory power?

A

• An exceptional power held by the High Court of Justiciary to declare behaviour which it considers morally wrong to be a criminal offence, even though it was not, or not unequivocally, regarded as criminal before.
Basically, it accounts for gaps in criminal law.

117
Q

What is the benefit of using precedent over statute?

A

Statute lacks the flexibility and creativity that precedent has. When dealing with case law – there are pages of judgements. It is up to you to choose which judgements are the most important and which fit in best with your argument.
This is in stark contrast to statute – where certain sections of the statute can either be used in argument, or they cant.

118
Q

The principles of Stare Decisis:

A

Literally means “to stand by what has been decided”.
If precedent is a source of law, the ratios of precedents will determine how a case is to be decided by later courts.
• Hierarchy based approach. There are 3 broad rules of thumb:
1. Higher courts bind lower courts
2. Lower court decisions do not bind higher courts
3. Courts from one jurisdiction do not bind courts in a different jurisdiction.

119
Q

Court Hierarchy

A

The Court of Session is above any Sheriff Court, although their jurisdiction is remarkably similar.
Within the Court of Session, the Inner House is somewhat above the Outer House, for it hears appeals from it, but the court is a collegiate court and Courts of Five Judges (or another odd number) may be convened.

120
Q

When can there be an appeal from the criminal courts of Scotland to the HOL?

A

Only when there is a devolution issue.

121
Q

Is the civil court bound by its own decisions?

A

Yes, but these can be overturned. Typically, previous cases are not interfered with, but they can be if an argument is presented.

122
Q

Does a decision in a non-Scottish case bind Scottish courts?

A

NO, unless on interpretation of statutory provision that also applies in Scotland.

123
Q

Are court of session decisions binding precedents for future lower court cases?

A

Yes.

124
Q

Are court of session decisions binding precedents for future cases in court of session?

A

IF the precedent was decided by the same number of judges as present case, or more, then yes.
IF the precedent was decided by fewer judges than present case, then no.
Basically, a 5 judge court can overrule a 3 judge decision – but it cannot work the other way around.

125
Q

Does a decision of the outer house of the court of session bind any court?

A

NO, only persuasive.

126
Q

2 principles of Sheriff Court decisions?

A

• A decision made by a sheriff principal binds the sheriff principal’s decision in the same area.
But, the same cannot be said between sheriff principals in different areas.
• A sheriff is not even bound by his own previous decision.

127
Q

What are the principle law reports in Scotland?

A

Session cases.

128
Q

Why do session cases takes priority over all series of reports for use in court?

A

Because the main authority of Session Cases is derived from the semi official nature of the Scottish Council of Law Reporting, and the fact that the judges delivering the opinions have the opportunity to comment on a pre-publication draft of the Session Cases report.

129
Q

What are THREE other types of Scottish report?

A

Scots Law Times, Morisson’s dictionary and

Reports from the European Court of Human Rights.

130
Q

Reports from the Court of Justice of the European Union:

A

• Unlike in the UK, the courts of the EU have always published their decisions as one of the official publications of the European Union.
They are the most authoritative reports BUT are slow to appear, and are produced the editorial assistance of headnotes in the UK fashion.
The judgement of the court is given in more formal terms than in the UK practise.

131
Q

What are the 5 series of reports in English and Welsh ‘Law Reports’?

A
  1. Appeal Cases (AC)
  2. Queen’s Bench (QB)
  3. Chancery (Ch)
  4. Family (Fam)
  5. Weekly Law Reports (WLR)
132
Q

What is international law?

A

• International law is the collection of rules which are followed by states, governing the inter-relationship of states with one another.
Can be divided into Private and Public International Law.

133
Q

What is Public International Law?

A

A body of rules that regulate the actions of states in their dealings with each other.

134
Q

What is the United Nations Organisation (UNO)?

A

It’s a body to which every nation state belongs to BUT it is not a sovereign law making body capable of producing law in the traditional sense of the word.

135
Q

What can the UN do?

A
  • Enter into obligations and treaties
  • The UN general assembly and security council can also make resolutions which have the effect of requiring member states to abide by the international law
  • The UN does NOT have the power to enforce law as it is not a sovereign state.
136
Q

Can you use international law within Scottish Cases before Scottish Courts?

A

International law cannot be used in Scottish cases in Scottish courts. This can never be done until it is implemented into domestic law by the UK Govt.

137
Q

What is a Lord Advocate’s reference?

A

A particular form of criminal procedure which can be used by the Lord Advocate – he can ask the court of session to make a ruling on an uncertain point of the criminal law, of which the ruling will be determinate in subsequent cases.

138
Q

2 questions to consider when thinking about international law?

A
  1. Is it a matter of fact or is it a matter of law?

2. Whether a rule of customary international law might justify an individual in Scotland in committing a crime?

139
Q

What is the difference between Substantive and Adjectival (Procedural) Law in National Law?

A
Substantive = Between the law of which is normative (what they can or cannot do)
Adjectival = the law with merely regulates the enforcement of these rules
140
Q

What are the principle divisions in substantive national law?

A
  • Persons
  • Obligations
  • Property
  • Actions
141
Q

What are the fundamental concepts of substantive national law?

A
•	All law is fundamentally directed at persons. 
•	Fundamental concepts consist of;
Personality
Good Faith 
Personal Bar
Rights and duties 
Juridical Act
142
Q

What is the law of persons?

A

• Law of persons determines who is or isn’t a person, and what acts you could undertake to change your personal status.
Only people can have rights and can have duties imposed upon them – law of persons is crucial.

143
Q

What are real rights?

A

The right of exclusive use in relation to the property concerned.
Can be acquired, created or transferred.
You can grant someone a subordinate right to use property e.g. by hiring something out.

144
Q

When does lien arise? (rights in security)

A

When you are someone who is performing contractual duties to someone else, and you happen to come into possession of their property, you have the right to possession of that property until you are paid for your services.

145
Q

What is a floating charge?

A

All encompassing security which can protect all moveable property which the company owns at the time. If the charge is called up it is said to crystallise.

146
Q

What are title conditions?

A

Restrictions that will affect the use of property. These are perpetual restrictions and they will restrict whoever is the owner of the property at that time.
There are a number of types of title conditions.

147
Q

What is liferent?

A

If someone is to leave a liferent to their wife in their will, but leaves ownership to his son – the wife will be entitled to live in the property but will not own it.
Usufruct = the right to use or occupy property for your lifetime.

148
Q

What are inter vivos trusts?

A

In the lifetime of the trustor.

149
Q

What are mortis causa trusts?

A

Comes into effect after the death of the truster.

150
Q

What are the three types of relationship in a trust?

A

Trustor, trustee and beneficiary.

151
Q

What is testate succession?

A

Testate = the succession of property after someones death is provided for in a will.

152
Q

What is intestate succession?

A

There is no will. Where this happens, it is left to statutory provision to decide what happens to the assets.

153
Q

What happens to the property in the case of intestate succession?

A

The spouse or civil partner is entitled to the estate / house so long as it is not worth more than £473,000 (this figure fluxuates).

154
Q

What are legal rights?

A

Legal rights are things that a certain person is entitled to after the death of another.
If you are given legal rights, you can insist upon these rights whatever the will says.

155
Q

What is diligence?

A

Procedures to ensure that the defender does what the court orders them to do?

156
Q

What are the FOUR forms of diligence?

A
  1. Attachment
    A debtors moveable property can be seized and sold off to pay a debt
  2. Arrestment
    A form of diligence by which a debtors’ moveable property may be frozen in the hands of a third party.
  3. Inhibition
    A form of diligence preventing a debtor from selling his heritable property or from granting a security over it.
  4. Adjudication
    A lesser used form of diligence, it also relates to moveable / heritable property.
    In addition to an inhibition, it allows the creditor to get the debtor out of the property, get someone else in and lease it out and get rent money.
157
Q

What is an interdict (injunction-ENG)?

A

A court order to prevent a debtor from doing something.

158
Q

What is specific implement?

A

A court order forces a debtor to do something.

159
Q

What is prescription?

A

The extinction of a right after a particular period of time (to ensure civil remedies are claimed within a reasonable timeframe)

160
Q

What is limitation?

A

After a period of time where you are no longer allowed to bring a claim to court. BUT you have not lost the right to claim, it is merely the case that the limitation prevents you from bringing the issue to court.

161
Q

What is jurisdiction?

A

A judge’s right to hear a claim (can be exclusive or all inclusive)

162
Q

When can parties choose their jurisdiction?

A

When settling a contractual dispute.

163
Q

What court has exclusive jurisdiction in relation to claims of less than £5,000 value?

A

Sheriff Court

164
Q

Who is eligible to be a sheriff?

A

Those who have been advocates or solicitors for at least 10 years are eligible to be appointed Sheriff, but few are appointed with less than a couple of decades of experience.

165
Q

What are floating sheriffs?

A

Sheriffs that can be appointed to sit anywhere to relieve pressure of business.

166
Q

What are honorary sheriffs?

A

Appointed by the Sheriff Principal. They require no legal qualification.

167
Q

How many sheriffs hear a civil case in the sheriff court?

A

1 sheriff (there is a right of appeal against this but it will depend on the nature of the claim brought before the sheriff)

168
Q

Can the first decision of a sheriff made under small claims procedure be appealed?

A

Yes BUT only on the point of law but not on fact. Therafter no further appeal is allowed (only allowed 1 appeal then that’s it).

169
Q

Who can you appeal to in ordinary court cases?

A

Either directly to inner house or to the sheriff principal.

170
Q

When can the ordinary cause procedure be used by Sheriff court?

A

When the value of a claim is over £5000.

procedure also used in family actions for divorce, dissolution of civil partnership, residence orders etc

171
Q

When can the summary cause procedure be used by Sheriff court?

A

Where the value of a claim is over £3,000, and up to and including £5,000.

172
Q

When can the small claims procedure be used by sheriff court?

A

Can be used by the Sheriff Court where the value of a claim is up to £3,000.

173
Q

What is Scotland’s highest civil court?

A

Court of Session (exclusive jurisdiction)

174
Q

Where does judicial review have to come from?

A

Court of Session

175
Q

What is petition to the nobile officium?

A

Court of session can grant a remedy in case where there is not an established solution already in existence. Used sparingly because its use goes against the fact that law should be about known rules and procedures.

176
Q

What are the differences between inner and outer house?

A

In an outer house case, there is only one judge hearing the case at first instance.
The inner house hears appeals from the outer house.
Appeals are usually heard by 3 Judges BUT if the appeal raises an important issue on law, then a larger panel will sit – possibly 5 or 7.
Inner house divided into first and second division.
An extra division may be formed where there are a lot of cases in a busy period.
Despite the names given to them, the First and Second Divisions are of equal status.

177
Q

Where does the appeal go once it has been appealed from outer to inner house?

A

Supreme court

178
Q

Which judges lead the first and second inner house divisions?

A

First division led by Lord President of the Court of Session
Second division led by Lord Justice Clerk

179
Q

How do you become a Judge?

A
  • The first minister of Scotland makes recommendations to the queen as to who should be a judge.
  • To be a lord president or lord justice clerk, they must be recommended by the first minister, and based on this, recommendation from prime minister.
180
Q

What does a Lands Tribunal for Scotland deal with?

A

Deals with disputes of tenants over “right to buy” compensation for compulsory purchase, and other matters.

181
Q

Who sits on a Lands Tribunal for Scotland?

A

Headed by Court of Session judge.

Has a legally qualified president and 3 other lay members.

182
Q

What is a Scottish Land Court?

A

Deals with cases arising out of certain types of land tenure.
Specifically deals with agriculture and crofting lands etc.
There is an appeal on the point of law, to the Inner House of the Court of Session.

183
Q

Who sits on the Scottish Land Court?

A

It has a legally qualified chairman who is not, but has the same status as, a Court of Session Judge.
3 other lay members with agricultural experience also sit on the court, including at least one Gaelic speaker.

184
Q

What is an Employment Appeals Tribunal?

A

Hears certain cases arising out of contracts of employment e.g. discrimination at work, payment etc
Tribunals are staffed by specialist employment judges.

185
Q

Who forms the supreme court of the UK?

A

2 Scottish judges form the pool of judges who will hear appeals. Northern Ireland has 1 Judge, and the rest come from England & Wales.
These were known as Lord of Appeal and Ordinary. The new title for this is a Justice of the Supreme Court.

186
Q

Qualifications required to be appointed a Supreme Court judge:

A

Held high Judicial office for 2 years
Been an advocate / barrister for 15 years
Must retire at 70 – this is a stark contrast to S.C in other countries where there is no retirement age.

187
Q

What is the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

A

• Hears;
Scottish cases
English & Welsh cases
Northern Irish cases
• The cases will be dealt with in the law appropriate to their part of the UK e.g. Scottish cases will be dealt with by applying scots law
• In a Scottish appeal you would normally find that the 2 justices would be Scottish, and the leading judgement will be led by one of the justices.
• In S.C litigation it is usual for each justice to write a judgement – mere statements saying “I concur” are very unusual, all justices will try to provide an opinion of some sort.

188
Q

What is the hierarchy of the English Civil Courts?

A

• First instance courts: Magistrates Court, County Court, High Court of Justice.
• Appeal from Magistrates Court to High Court.
When the high court hears such appeals it is known as the “Divisional Court”.
• Other appeals to Court of Appeal (Civil Division).
The rough equivalent to the inner house in Scotland.
• Final appeal to Supreme Court.

189
Q

What is the lowest criminal court in Scotland?

A

Justice of the Peace Court (Only deals with small offences - the maximum sanctions the court can impose are up to 60 days in jail) (- BUT in Glasgow, the Justice of the Peace courts are staffed by stipendiary magistrates who are qualified judges. Because they are legally qualified, they can impose sanctions up to 12 months in jail or a fine up to £10,000)

190
Q

Who staffs the Justice of the Peace court?

A

• It’s a lay-court. A justice of the peace who is not legally qualified sits as a judge in the case BUT sits with a legally qualified clerk who is there to advise them
- BUT in Glasgow, the Justice of the Peace courts are staffed by stipendiary magistrates who are qualified judges. Because they are legally qualified, they can impose sanctions up to 12 months in jail or a fine up to £10,000
• Justices are appointed to a Sheriffdom “in the name of Her Majesty” by the Scottish Ministers for a renewable period of 5 years, until reaching the age of 70.

191
Q

What does the Sheriff Court deal with?

A

• Deals both with civil and criminal cases – they deal with thebulk of legal work in Scotland
• Jurisdiction is a territorial one ALTHOUGH some criminal acts are reserved to highest court and cannot go before the sheriff court.
2 of these acts reserved to the high courts are rape and murder.

192
Q

What is summary procedure used for?

A

Used for less serious criminal offences – around 95% of criminal proceedings in Scotland come under a summary procedure.
A judge sits on his / her own and determines both matters of law and fact
Maximum punishment in a summary procedure case is 12 months in prison

193
Q

What is solemn procedure used for?

A

Used for more serious cases.
The judge sits with a Jury to determine the outcome. The judge decides the law, and the jury decides the facts of the case.
In Scotland, the jury is comprised of 15 jury members (as opposed to 12 in common law systems).
A simple majority amongst the jury is enough to secure a conviction.
In addition to the jury’s conviction, all matters that have to be proved in the criminal cases must be subject to corroboration – you must have at least 2 separate testimonies to back up a point. Controversially at the moment the Scottish Govt is proposing the abolishment of corroboration BUT they are not proposing that the simple majority amongst the jury should be changed (one would think that this should go hand in hand in order to be justifiable).
For a solemn procedure case, the max punishment is up to 5 years in prison
• The procurator has the discretion to decide which court procedure should be used for a particular case.

194
Q

What cases does the High Court of Justiciary have exclusive jurisdiction in?

A

Rape and Murder.

195
Q

What can be appealed in the High Court of Justiciary?

A

There is an appeal bench comprised of 3 judges.
convicted person can appeal against the very fact of conviction – that they should not have been found guilty. OR they can appeal against the sentence – i.e. they admit they are guilty but want a lesser sentence. OR you can appeal for both.

196
Q

What are EU Treaties?

A
EU Treaties are the direct source of a significant body of ‘economic’ and other laws and policies to which individuals, companies and governments in every member state are bound, eg. Competition law,
Environmental law,
Economic law (especially in the Euro-zone countries),
Social law,
Employment law,
International trade policy,
Agricultural law and policy,
Consumer protection,
Research policy,
Development policy,
Culture,
Citizenship,
Human rights.
197
Q

How many member states are in the EU?

A

28 (grown to this number over a series of enlargements)

198
Q

Where is the CJEU (court of justice of the european union?) located?

A

Luxembourg

199
Q

Why can the EU be described as a monetary union?

A

18 member states sharing the same currency (euro).

200
Q

Why can the EU be described as a single internal market?

A

In the EU, goods, services, capital and persons move freely between member state.

201
Q

What is the EU?

A

A union in which common laws are enacted and common policies agreed by institutions operating at the EU-level and located (mainly) in Brussels.
A union in which there is ever increasing cooperation on matters of internal justice and security (police, immigration, asylum) and foreign and defence policies;
A powerful player in global trade and economic negotiations.

202
Q

What is the schengen area?

A

A passport-free group of 22 member states (plus 4 non-EU countries)

203
Q

What were the post-war European political and economic challenges?

A
  • Deliver lasting peace
  • Deliver increasing prosperity
  • Observe fundamental human rights
    (Monet and Schuman?)
204
Q

What was the Marshall plan about?

A

Economic reconstruction and recovery of a war-torn European continent

205
Q

What are the limits to EU legislation?

A

The EU can only legislate on things tightly prescribed by the EU treaties.

206
Q

What did the Schuman Declaration propose?

A

Establishing new form of economic and political integration (more than cooperation) between the post-war (West) European states

207
Q

What was The European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) – Treaty of Paris (1951)?

A

Six founding countries – Belgium, the Federal Republic of Germany, France, Italy, Luxembourg and the Netherlands – signed an international treaty under which their heavy industries (coal and steel) would be placed under under common management. The political objective was “to make war not only unthinkable but materially impossible”;

208
Q

What was the ECSC driven by?

A

(i) the need for German economic recovery to benefit the entire European continent, (ii) a desire to begin a process towards the political integration ofEurope

209
Q

When did the Treaty of Rome come into effect?

A

1st January 1958

210
Q

What did the Treaty of Rome create?

A

The European Economic Community (EEC), now European Union (EU)

211
Q

What did the Treaty of Rome provide for?

A

Treaty provides for the general economic integration of the six (same as ECSC) signatory countries to be achieved by the progressive removal of the formal barriers to the free movement of goods, services, capital and persons, and all other measures having equivalent effect;
Establishes the common institutions necessary for the joint governance of the EEC – the European Commission (independent executive authority), the Council of Ministers (representatives of national governments), the European Parliament (elected members from all member states), the European Court of Justice (a judge from each of the member states)

212
Q

The EU as a ‘common market’: what were the economic benefits from the ‘four freedoms’ (free trade)?

A

Welfare gains to consumers from:

  • Exchange of goods and services
  • Specialisation in production of goods and services
  • Increased cross-border competition
  • Greater choice
  • Free movement of labour and capital
213
Q

What did free-trade result in?

A

Faster economic growth for the EU as a whole, though not every country will benefit all the time.

214
Q

What were the potential economic costs from the ‘four freedoms’ (free trade)?

A

National governments lose control over direct and indirect economic policy instruments (including national rules and regulations) that restrict free movement of goods, services, capital and labour – i.e. policies of economic protectionism

215
Q

What were the potential political costs from the ‘four freedoms’ (free trade)?

A

National governments are vulnerable to the ‘loss-of-economic-sovereignty’ accusation.

216
Q

Is free trade a good thing?

A

Most economists agree, most of the time, that it is.

eg. it would be very hard to grow bananas in UK - we benefit from free trade in this way.

217
Q

How was a common market in the EU created?

A

Removal of formal barriers (tariffs and quotas) on intra-EU trade in goods achieved by July 1967 (‘negative’ integration)
BUT
Progress on removing ‘measures having equivalent effect’ that prevented free movement (i.e. rules and regulations governing the domestic production and sale of products and the employment of labour) was extremely slow as it required the harmonisation of national rules and regulations (‘positive’ integration). Governments were reluctant to eliminate informal (protectionist) barriers to trade due to adverse (short term) effect that import-competition would have on domestic output and employment;
The original EU Treaty stipulated that harmonisation of rules and regulations required the unanimous agreement of all member states in the Council of Ministers. This ‘unanimity’ rule severely obstructed progress in opening the internal market, and throughout the period 1958 until 1985 progress was slow and a “complete” EU common market remained elusive.

218
Q

What specific common (economic) policies did the 1958 EEC Treaty also provide for the development of?

A

 A common agricultural policy (including fisheries),
 A common transport policy,
 A system ensuring that competition in the common market is not distorted (including by state aid),
 A European Social Fund to improve employment opportunities for workers;
 The association of overseas countries and territories.

219
Q

Why has the number and scope of common policies increased since 1958?

A

 EU has moved into new areas of competence with permission of all member states.
 For example, pollution and the environment is everyone’s problem. Pollution from one country doesn’t stop at another countries borders.

220
Q

What does the Treaty of Rome do?

A
  • Legally binds the member governments to the objectives and obligations set out in the Treaty (and subsequent revisions);
  • Establishes an EU-level governance structure (Commission, Council, Parliament, Court) for developing, legislating and enforcing EU laws and policies
221
Q

Who does the legislative process involve?

A

Both the Council of Ministers of the EU and the European Parliament

222
Q

How is the legal order of the EU distinctive from that of the legal orders of the member states, and from customary international law?

A

It is binding on all member states and takes precedent over national law.

223
Q

For a common measure to be proposed, what is required?

A

MUST have a legal basis (i.e. is justified by an article) in the Treaty. The Treaty therefore limits the legislative competence of the EU.

224
Q

Who does the European council consist of?

A

Heads of Government and State of 28 member states

225
Q

Who does the European Commission consist of?

A

One Commissioner from each Member State and presided over by the President of the Commission (executive authority)

226
Q

Who does the Council of Ministers of the EU consist of?

A

Co-legislature comprising Ministers from member state governments

227
Q

Who does the European Parliament consist of?

A

Co-legislature comprising 750 directly elected Members

228
Q

Who does the Court of Justice of the European Union consist of?

A

1 judge from each member state (highest court in the EU)

229
Q

What are the 5 revisions to the treaty since the Treaty of Rome?

A
	Single European Act 1986
	Treaty on European Union 1993
	Amsterdam Treaty 1999
	Nice Treaty 2003
	Lisbon Treaty 2009
230
Q

Who signs when the content of treaties has been revised?

A

Head of member state government

231
Q

Who can propose changes to the treaties?

A

Any government, or the European Parliament, or the European Commission

232
Q

What is the next step if If the European Council (Heads of Member State Governments) agrees?

A

A ‘Convention’ is convened to negotiate a revised Treaty.
The Convention shall submit proposals to the European Council who decide “by common accord”.
If agreed, the revised Treaty must be ratified by all Member States before entering into law.

233
Q

What FOUR reasons are there to revise the treaties?

A
  • To extend or to modify the legislative and policy competences of the EU level of governance to meet new challenges or achieve new objectives.
  • To revise the legislative procedures and responsibilities of the EU Institutions.
  • To change the objectives and purposes of the EU.
  • To accommodate new member states joining the EU.
234
Q

What was the first major revision to the Treaty of Rome?

A

the Single European Act (SEA)

235
Q

What brought about the Single European Act?

A

Motivated by need to raise growth rates and employment in Member States which many argued could be achieved by creating a genuine single European market. Treaty commitment to establish the free movement of goods, services, capital and persons by December 1992 – the single European market initiative.

236
Q

What did the Single European Act do?

A
  • Amended EU legislative procedure to permit Council of Ministers of the EU to decide common EU laws by Qualified Majority Voting (QMV) on most legislative proposals aimed at “completing the internal market” instead of requiring unanimous agreement of all.
  • SEA extended EU powers in the fields of environment and launched the notion of developing a common EU foreign and security policy.
237
Q

What was the aim of the single market?

A

To make EU companies more competitive and dynamic domestically and in global markets, thereby promoting economic growth and higher employment.

238
Q

What revision created the ‘pillar structure’ of the Treaty?

A

Treaty on European Union (TEU) – a.k.a. The Maastricht Treaty

239
Q

What did the ‘pillar structure’ comprise of?

A

The European Communities (EC), the Common Foreign and Security Policy (CFSP), and Justice and Home Affairs (JHA)

240
Q

What did the Maastricht Treaty do?

A
  • Extends the competences of the EU.
  • Launches the concept of economic and monetary union (EMU) for the EU, culminating in the introduction of a common currency.
  • Gives significant legislative power to the European Parliament for first time (‘co-decision’).
241
Q

What were the objectives of the Maastricht Treaty?

A
  • Strengthen the democratic legitimacy of the institutions by introducing (legislative) co-decision – i.e. increasing the powers of the European Parliament.
  • Improve the effectiveness of EU legislative process by extending QMV in the Council.
  • Establish economic and monetary union (“…a single market needs a single currency…”?).
  • Develop the EU social dimension in the form of a Social Protocol to the Treaty (“…some part of the gains of the internal market must accrue to workers”).
  • Establish a common foreign and security policy (triggered by the fall of communism).
242
Q

What were the SIX new areas that the Maastricht Treaty extended competences in?

A
  • Trans-European networks
  • Industrial policy
  • Consumer protection
  • Education and vocational training
  • Youth
  • Culture
243
Q

What was the target date the Maastricht Treaty set out for transition to a single currency?

A

January 1999

244
Q

What did the Amsterdam (1999) and Nice (2003) Treaty revisions involved?

A
  • The European Parliament gained power as more fields of EU legislative competence were made subject to co-decision.
  • Specific changes to the Institutions of the EU were made to facilitate EU enlargement to include 10 new members (eight from former ‘East Europe’)
245
Q

What did the Treaty of Lisbon (2009) involve?

A

Significant reforms to specific aspects of the EU Treaties:

  • Reforms the EU institutions – creates positions of (i) President of European Council and (ii) High Representative for Foreign Affairs and Security Policy.
  • Improves the EU decision-making process.
  • Strengthens the democratic dimension of the EU by giving national parliaments greater stake in EU legislation.
  • Reforms the internal policies of the EU.
  • Strengthens the external policies of the EU – coherence and visibility.
246
Q

What would membership of the eurozone entail?

A
  • Membership of the Eurozone would impose conditions on the fiscal (taxing and spending) policies of EU countries
  • Membership of the Eurozone inevitably means national governments are no longer able to use monetary policy (interest rates and exchange rates) as instruments of domestic economic policy.
247
Q

What is economic ‘sovereignty’?

A

Economic ‘sovereignty’ describes the ability of a government to take unilateral economic policy actions without any legal impediment or any need to coordinate its activities with any other government

248
Q

What does agreeing to share your sovereignty with other nations entail?

A

It means agreeing (i) to give up the right to veto common measures and (ii) abiding by the rules of collective decision-making.

249
Q

What is intergovernmentalism?

A

Intergovernmentalism describes the general proposition that sovereignty is shared between governments, and that decision-making rules between governments are established to determine when collective action will be taken.

250
Q

How does the Council of (Ministers of) the EU decides its position on most EU legislative proposals?

A

On the basis of ‘qualified majority voting’ (QMV). For a proposal to be accepted under QMV it must command a double majority – this being 55% of the States of the Union and 65% of the European population.

251
Q

What is supranationalism?

A

Supranationalism describes the general proposition that sovereignty is re-assigned from national to supranational level – in the case of the EU this means that decisions are no longer taken by national governments but by the Institutions of the EU.
- The European parliament is a supra nationalist institution of the EU.

252
Q

Who are the co-legislators in the EU Legislative system?

A

European Parliament and European Council - they take decisions on the basis of simple majority between the elected members.

253
Q

How can the EU level of governance acquire competences?

A

Through Treaty reform which requires the explicit consent of every Member State (consequently only the Member States themselves can agree outcomes that lead to an erosion of ‘national sovereignty)

254
Q

What are principles of conferral?

A

A set of principles according to which, action should occur.

255
Q

What is the key change that the Treaty of Lisbon brought about?

A

The formalisation of the role and powers of the European Council.

256
Q

What is legal basis?

A

The power to take action to pursue a specific aim.

If the legal basis is wrongly identified, that can determine the invalidity of the act.

257
Q

What is the role of the ‘implied powers’ clause?

A

Providing the Union with “unnamed powers” to achieve one of its stated goals when the Treaty does not expressly provide for the necessary powers…
BUT subject to strict limits, especially by requiring that action take place within the framework of the Treaty’s objectives and is “appropriate” and “necessary” - a “special legislative procedure” must be followed.

258
Q

What does shared competences mean?

A

Both the European Union and member states can act on it. BUT the MS cannot take actions in areas in which the Union has already acted or act in a way that prejudices the effectiveness of Union action (e.g. social policy)
Union action must conform to the principle of subsidiarity - the union can only action on it if it would be better achieved by them than the MS.

259
Q

What does coordinating competence mean?

A

Union able to act only to support/assist Member States, e.g. employment policy…

260
Q

What is the yellow card mechanism?

A

If 1/3 national parliaments reiterate an unfavourable opinion on a proposal, the latter shall be given no further consideration… unless the Council or EP vote by 55% in favour.