Unit 1 Flashcards

Constitution Underpinnings

1
Q

What is democracy?

A

Rule by the people.

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2
Q

What are the two types of democracy?

A
  • Direct: rule by the people themselves.
  • Indirect (representative): rule by elected representatives.
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3
Q

What concerns did the Founders have about direct democracy?

A
  • Impracticalities.
  • Fleeting passions of the people leading to influence by demagogues.
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4
Q

What is a Republic?

A

Same as Representative Democracy/Indirect Democracy; solves problems of direct democracy.

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5
Q

What does Democratic Theory encompass?

A
  • Majoritarian politics view: leaders influenced by the will of the people.
  • Elite politics views: minorities dominate policy making.
  • Pluralist view: many groups compete for control over policy.
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6
Q

What is the Hyperpluralist View?

A

Pluralism gone sour; too many strong groups lead to government gridlock.

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7
Q

What are the fundamental democratic values?

A
  • Popular sovereignty.
  • Respect for the individual.
  • Liberty.
  • Equality (of opportunity more than result).
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8
Q

What are the fundamental democratic processes?

A
  • Free and fair elections with competing political parties.
  • Majority rule with minority rights.
  • Freedom of expression.
  • Right to assemble and protest.
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9
Q

What are the fundamental democratic structures?

A
  • Federalism.
  • Separation of powers.
  • Checks and balances.
  • Constitutionalism.
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10
Q

What are the sources of the Constitution?

A
  • British Customs and Traditions (e.g., Magna Carta).
  • European Philosophers (e.g., Locke, Hobbes).
  • Colonial experiences (e.g., power of elected assembly).
  • State constitutions.
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11
Q

What was the significance of the Constitutional Convention of 1787?

A

Addressed weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation and established a stronger national government.

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12
Q

What were the characteristics of the delegates at the Constitutional Convention?

A

“Well-read, well-bred, well-fed, and well-wed.”

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13
Q

Who is known as the ‘Father of the Constitution’?

A

James Madison.

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14
Q

What was the Virginia Plan?

A

Proposed representation based on population; favored by large states.

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15
Q

What was the New Jersey Plan?

A

Proposed equal representation for all states; favored by small states.

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16
Q

What was the Connecticut (Great) Compromise?

A

Established a bicameral legislature with a House based on population and a Senate with equal representation.

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17
Q

What was the 3/5 Compromise?

A

3/5 of the slaves would count for both representation and taxation.

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18
Q

What compromise was reached regarding the election of the President?

A

Compromise of a 4-year term and establishment of the Electoral College system.

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19
Q

Who were the Federalists?

A
  • Supporters: property owners, creditors, merchants.
  • Views: elites most fit to govern; favored strong central government.
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20
Q

Who were the Antifederalists?

A
  • Supporters: small farmers, frontiersmen, debtors.
  • Views: feared concentration of power; favored stronger state governments.
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21
Q

What were the Federalists’ advantages during ratification?

A
  • Better representation in state legislatures.
  • Controlled the press.
  • Agreed to a Bill of Rights after ratification.
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22
Q

What is the significance of The Federalist Papers?

A

Written by Madison, Hamilton, and Jay to rally support for ratification of the Constitution.

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23
Q

What is the principle of separation of powers?

A

Division of power among legislative, executive, and judicial branches to prevent tyranny.

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24
Q

What is the purpose of checks and balances?

A

Each branch can check the other two to prevent abuse of power.

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25
Q

How did political parties affect checks and balances?

A

In theory, they should weaken checks and balances; in reality, parties are often weak.

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26
Q

What impact has the growth of federal bureaucracy had on checks and balances?

A

It has caused a weakening of checks and balances due to the broad authority granted to agencies.

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27
Q

What is limited government?

A

Government has only those powers listed in the Constitution.

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28
Q

What is judicial review?

A

Power of courts to strike down laws or governmental actions.

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29
Q

What case established judicial review?

A

Marbury v. Madison, 1803.

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30
Q

What was the decision in Marbury v. Madison?

A

Struck down section 13 of the Judiciary Act of 1789 as unconstitutional.

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31
Q

What effect does judicial review have on public policy?

A

Citizens can challenge the constitutionality of laws in court.

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32
Q

What is judicial review?

A

The power of citizens to challenge the constitutionality of laws in court by initiating lawsuits.

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33
Q

Who was Chief Justice during the establishment of judicial review?

A

John Marshall

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34
Q

What is an example of litigation influencing public policy?

A

Gideon v. Wainwright, 1963

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35
Q

What are informal ways to change the Constitution?

A

Acts of Congress, Judicial rulings, Presidential actions, Customs and traditions.

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36
Q

Fill in the blank: The Constitution serves as a _______.

A

framework

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37
Q

What is the significance of the phrase ‘Constitution belongs to the living, not the dead’?

A

It implies that each generation may need a new Constitution, but informal changes have allowed adaptation.

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38
Q

What is required for a formal amendment to the Constitution?

A

Proposal by 2/3 vote in both houses of Congress or a convention called by 2/3 of states.

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39
Q

What are the two methods of ratification for amendments?

A

3/4 of state legislatures or ratifying conventions in 3/4 of states.

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40
Q

What does federalism refer to?

A

The constitutional division of power between the national government and state governments.

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41
Q

What are reasons for establishing a federal system in the U.S.?

A

Avoidance of unitary and confederate systems, unity without uniformity, suitable for large and diverse populations.

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42
Q

What does the 10th Amendment state?

A

Powers not granted to the national government are reserved for the states.

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43
Q

What is dual federalism?

A

A system where state and national governments remain supreme within their own spheres.

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44
Q

What characterizes cooperative federalism?

A

Mingling of responsibilities between state and national governments.

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45
Q

What is new federalism?

A

The shifting of some authority back to the states.

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46
Q

What are the categories of delegated powers of the national government?

A

Expressed, Implied, Inherent.

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47
Q

What does the full faith and credit clause require?

A

Each state must honor the public acts, records, and legal proceedings of other states.

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48
Q

What does the privileges and immunities clause ensure?

A

Each state must grant citizens of other states the same rights as its own citizens.

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49
Q

What is the role of the federal government in state obligations?

A

Guarantee a republican form of government, protect against invasion, grant new states equal rights.

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50
Q

What is the significance of McCulloch v. Maryland, 1819?

A

Established the necessity for a flexible interpretation of the Constitution and affirmed national supremacy.

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51
Q

What is the elastic clause?

A

Allows Congress to pass laws ‘necessary and proper’ to carry out expressed powers.

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52
Q

What are the recent developments in federalism?

A

Evolution towards greater federal control, Nixon’s New Federalism, and the devolution of power back to states.

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53
Q

What was the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995?

A

Restricted future unfunded mandates imposed on states.

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54
Q

What are federal grants used for?

A

To reduce federal bureaucracy, supply revenue to state and local governments, and establish minimum federal standards.

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55
Q

True or False: States have the authority to regulate marriage without federal intervention.

A

True

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56
Q

What is an example of a federal mandate?

A

Federal guidelines attached to funding, such as education requirements.

57
Q

What has been the trend in federal grants to state and local governments over the last several decades?

A

Dollar amounts have consistently risen, though there has been variation in grants as a percentage of federal expenditures.

58
Q

What are the purposes of federal grants?

A
  • Reduces growth of federal bureaucracy
  • Supplies state and local governments with needed revenue
  • Establishes minimum federal standards in important areas
  • Equalizes resources among rich and poor states
59
Q

What are categorical grants?

A

Grants for specific programs, such as roads and housing, where the national government pays a portion of the costs.

60
Q

What are project grants?

A

Grants for specific projects that states apply for, leading to competition in ‘grant writing.’

61
Q

What are block grants?

A

Grants granted to support a collection of general programs, allowing more state leeway in spending.

62
Q

How do Democrats and Republicans differ in their approach to federal grants?

A

Democrats favor greater funding with more strings attached, while Republicans favor less funding with fewer strings.

63
Q

What significant change did the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act (Welfare Reform Act of 1996) bring?

A

It replaced welfare categorical grants with welfare block grants.

64
Q

What are the conditions imposed by the Welfare Reform Act on block grants?

A
  • No federal funds for recipients who have not worked within 2 years
  • No federal funds for recipients who have received federal money for more than 5 years
  • States must spend at least 75% of what they previously spent on welfare
65
Q

What is a federal mandate?

A

A federal order imposed upon states, such as the Americans with Disabilities Act.

66
Q

What are unfunded mandates?

A

Mandates that impose financial burdens on states without providing federal funding.

67
Q

What was the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995?

A

It restricted future unfunded mandates and required analysis of their impact on states.

68
Q

What are some nonconstitutional reasons for the triumph of the nationalist approach in American federalism?

A
  • Growth of U.S. in size and population
  • Problems tend to be more national in scope
  • Improved communication and transportation
  • Historical developments that supported a strong federal government
69
Q

What was the general consensus in the late 1970s regarding the power of government?

A

That the power of government had gone too far.

70
Q

What is the significance of the phrase ‘the era of big government is over’ declared by Clinton in 1996?

A

It signified a shift towards welfare reform and reduced government intervention.

71
Q

What are the two types of democracy?

A
  • Direct democracy
  • Indirect (representative) democracy
72
Q

What is a republic?

A

Same as Representative Democracy/Indirect Democracy, solving problems of direct democracy.

73
Q

What is the majoritarian politics view?

A

Leaders are heavily influenced by the will of the people.

74
Q

What does the elite politics view suggest?

A

Minorities dominate policy making.

75
Q

What is the pluralist view of democracy?

A

Political resources are so scattered that no single elite has a monopoly on them.

76
Q

What is the hyperpluralist view?

A

There are so many strong groups that government becomes gridlocked and unable to act.

77
Q

What are some fundamental democratic values?

A
  • Popular sovereignty
  • Respect for the individual
  • Liberty
  • Equality
78
Q

What are some fundamental democratic processes?

A
  • Free and fair elections
  • Majority rule with minority rights
  • Freedom of expression
  • Right to assemble and protest
79
Q

What are the fundamental democratic structures?

A
  • Federalism
  • Separation of powers
  • Checks and balances
  • Constitutionalism
80
Q

What were the sources of the Constitution?

A
  • British customs and traditions
  • European philosophers
  • Colonial experiences
  • State constitutions
81
Q

What was the significance of Shays’ Rebellion in 1786?

A

It highlighted the necessity of a stronger national government.

82
Q

Who is known as the ‘Father of the Constitution’?

A

James Madison

83
Q

What was the Great Compromise?

A

A bicameral legislature with a House based on population and a Senate with equal representation.

84
Q

What was the compromise regarding the election of the President?

A

The establishment of the Electoral College system.

85
Q

Who were the Federalists?

A

Supporters of the Constitution, mainly property owners and elites who favored a strong central government.

86
Q

Who were the Antifederalists?

A

Opponents of the Constitution, primarily small farmers and those fearing a strong central government.

87
Q

What advantages did the Federalists have during ratification?

A
  • Better representation in state legislatures
  • Control of the press
  • Initiated ratification procedures
88
Q

What did the Antifederalists fear regarding government power?

A

Concentration of power in hands of elites

Antifederalists believed that government should be closer to the people and feared a strong central government.

89
Q

Who were key leaders of the Antifederalist movement?

A

Henry, Mason, Gerry

These leaders voiced concerns about the Constitution and the need for a Bill of Rights.

90
Q

What advantages did Federalists have during the ratification process?

A
  • Better representation in state legislatures
  • Controlled the press
  • Initiated ratification procedures quickly
  • Agreed to a Bill of Rights post-ratification

These factors helped them secure support for the Constitution.

91
Q

What are The Federalist Papers?

A

Essays written by Madison, Hamilton, and Jay to rally support for ratification of the Constitution

They played a crucial role in influencing public opinion.

92
Q

What is the principle of separation of powers?

A

Division of power among the legislative, executive, and judicial branches

This principle was established to prevent tyranny and diffuse governmental power.

93
Q

What is the purpose of checks and balances?

A

To prevent any one branch of government from becoming too powerful

Each branch can check the others to maintain a balance of power.

94
Q

What are some examples of checks and balances?

A
  • Veto
  • Veto override
  • Appointment and confirmation
  • Treaty-making and ratification
  • Defense funding and Commander-In-Chief

These mechanisms ensure accountability among branches.

95
Q

True or False: Political parties strengthen checks and balances.

A

False

In theory, parties should weaken checks and balances by bringing branches together, but in practice, they are often weak.

96
Q

What impact have changes in voting methods had on checks and balances?

A

Weakened checks and balances in theory

Senators and Congress members are now chosen by the same electorate, leading to potential conflicts.

97
Q

How has the growth of federal bureaucracy affected checks and balances?

A

Weakened checks and balances

Agencies are granted broad authority, which can reduce the effectiveness of checks on government power.

98
Q

What role has technology played in checks and balances?

A

Can both strengthen and weaken checks and balances

New technologies have allowed the President, Congress, and others to enhance their power.

99
Q

How did the emergence of the U.S. as a world power affect checks and balances?

A

Concentrated power in the executive branch

The need for strong and efficient responses to global crises has led to an ‘imperial presidency.’

100
Q

What is limited government?

A

Government has only those powers listed in the Constitution

This concept aims to prevent tyranny by restricting governmental authority.

101
Q

What is judicial review?

A

The power of courts to strike down laws or governmental actions

Established by Marbury v. Madison in 1803.

102
Q

What was the outcome of Marbury v. Madison?

A

Established judicial review by striking down part of the Judiciary Act of 1789

This case increased the power of the Supreme Court.

103
Q

What are some informal methods of changing the Constitution?

A
  • Acts of Congress
  • Judicial rulings
  • Presidential actions
  • Customs and traditions

These methods allow adaptation without formal amendments.

104
Q

What are the two methods of proposing amendments to the Constitution?

A
  • 2/3 vote from both houses of Congress
  • Constitutional convention called by 2/3 of states

The first method is commonly used.

105
Q

What is federalism?

A

Constitutional division of power between national and state governments

Both levels derive their powers from the Constitution.

106
Q

What are the three categories of delegated powers for the national government?

A
  • Expressed (enumerated)
  • Implied
  • Inherent

These powers define the scope of national authority.

107
Q

What does Amendment 10 state?

A

Powers not granted to the national government are reserved for the states

This amendment emphasizes state sovereignty.

108
Q

What are concurrent powers?

A

Powers held by both national and state governments

Examples include taxing and establishing courts.

109
Q

What is the significance of Article VI regarding national supremacy?

A

National government is supreme in case of conflict between state and federal law

This clause ensures federal authority prevails.

110
Q

What obligations does the national government have to the states?

A
  • Guarantee republican form of government
  • Protect against invasion or domestic violence
  • Grant new states equal rights

These obligations support state integrity.

111
Q

What is the full faith and credit clause?

A

Each state must honor the public acts, records, and legal proceedings of other states

This clause promotes legal consistency across states.

112
Q

What is the first obligation of the national government to the states?

A

Guarantee each state a republican form of government.

113
Q

What does the Full Faith and Credit Clause require?

A

Each state must honor the public acts, records, and legal proceedings of other states.

114
Q

What is an example of the Full Faith and Credit Clause?

A

Birth certificates, marriages, debts.

115
Q

What does the Privileges and Immunities Clause state?

A

Each state must grant to citizens of other states the same rights and privileges that they grant to their own citizens.

116
Q

What is the requirement of extradition between states?

A

Governors must return suspects to the states in which they allegedly committed their crimes.

117
Q

What do interstate compacts require?

A

Consent of Congress.

118
Q

What does the Decentralist (states’ rights) approach imply about national authority?

A

The Constitution carefully limits national authority to delegated powers.

119
Q

Which amendment gives broad powers to states?

A

10th Amendment.

120
Q

Who are some followers of the Decentralist approach?

A
  • Calhoun
  • Goldwater
  • Reagan
  • Southern conservatives
  • Western conservatives
  • Christian fundamentalists
  • Newt Gingrich
  • Bush 43
121
Q

What does the Centralist (nationalist) approach argue regarding the Constitution?

A

It was created by the people, not the states.

122
Q

What powers do the Elastic, Commerce, and Taxing/Spending clauses grant to the national government?

A

Great power to the national government.

123
Q

What was established in McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)?

A

The need for a more flexible interpretation of the Constitution and the establishment of national supremacy.

124
Q

What does the Elastic Clause allow Congress to do?

A

Pass laws ‘necessary and proper’ to carry out expressed powers.

125
Q

What is the impact of the Commerce Clause?

A

Congress can regulate virtually anything as interstate or foreign commerce.

126
Q

What can happen if states do not comply with federal guidelines when accepting federal funds?

A

Federal funds can be denied.

127
Q

What is the purpose of federal grants?

A
  • Reduces growth of federal bureaucracy
  • Supplies state and local governments with needed revenue
  • Establishes minimum federal standards
  • Equalizes resources among rich and poor states.
128
Q

What are categorical grants?

A

Grants for specific programs where the national government agrees to pay a portion of the costs.

129
Q

What is a block grant?

A

Granted to support a collection of general programs with more state leeway in spending.

130
Q

What was the outcome of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995?

A

Restricted future unfunded mandates.

131
Q

What are federal mandates?

A

Federal orders imposed upon states.

132
Q

What is one example of a federal mandate?

A

Americans with Disabilities Act.

133
Q

What did the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996 change about welfare?

A

Ended welfare as a federal entitlement.

134
Q

What is the general Republican stance on federal grants?

A

Favor less funding with fewer ‘strings’ associated with block grants.

135
Q

What is an exception to the Republican approach regarding federal grants?

A

Support of the No Child Left Behind Act of 2002.

136
Q

What was a significant effect of the economic crisis of 2008-2009 on federal spending?

A

Massive federal spending bills to stimulate the economy.

137
Q

What did Clinton declare in 1996 regarding the role of government?

A

‘The era of big government is over.’

138
Q

True or False: The era of big government has ended.

139
Q

What was the impact of wars in Afghanistan and Iraq on government spending?

A

Led to huge military spending increases.