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NU 560 Pharmacotherapeutics > Unit 1 > Flashcards

Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Stage where drug is tested on animals for safety

A

Pre-clinical trials

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2
Q

Stage where drug is tested on healthy people in an inpatient setting
determine most effective administration routes and dosage ranges

A

Phase I

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3
Q

Stage where drug is tested on people with disease for which drug is intended in outpatient setting

A

Phase II

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4
Q

Stage where RCTs, double-blinded, and dose-ranging studies are performed

A

Phase III

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5
Q

Stage where post marketing data is collected
compare with other drugs on the market
long-term effects
analyze cost-effectiveness

A

Phase IV

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6
Q

At what point is a drug approved or rejected by the FDA

A

After Phase III

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7
Q

Cocaine and heroin schedule

A

I

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8
Q

Dilaudid schedule

A

II

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9
Q

Morphine schedule

A

II

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10
Q

amphetamines schedule

A

II

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11
Q

barbituates schedule

A

II

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12
Q

Methadone schedule

A

II

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13
Q

codeine schedule

A

3

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14
Q

cough medicine with codeine schedule

A

V

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15
Q

Percocet schedule

A

III

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16
Q

Benzos schedule

A

IV

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17
Q

How to write a prescription for schedule I and II drugs

A

paper, hand signed, specific number of pills, no refills

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18
Q

How to monitor adherence to therapy

A

lab testing
pill count
patient diary

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19
Q

How the body affects the drug

A

pharmacokinetics

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20
Q

How the drug affects the body

A

pharmacodynamics

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21
Q

4 phases of pharmacokinetics

A
  1. absorption
  2. distribution
  3. metabolism
  4. excretion
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22
Q

2 components of pharmacodynamics

A
  1. concentration of drug at site of action
  2. drug effect
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23
Q

therapeutic window

A

range of blood drug concentration that yields a sufficient therapeutic response without a toxic reaction

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24
Q

2 factors that affect absorption

A

GI motility and gastric emptying

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25
Q

5 factors that affect bioavailability

A
  1. first pass effect
  2. pro-drugs
  3. drug formulation (immediate vs extended release
  4. GI motility
  5. blood flow
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26
Q

the fraction or percentage of an administered dose of a drug that reaches the circulation in its unmetabolized form

A

bioavailability

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27
Q

250mg oral drug -> first pass-> 125mg enters blood = __ bioavailability

A

50%

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28
Q

How does gender affect pharmacokinetics

A

women have a high percentage of body fat which can alter the amount of drug at the site of action
hormones differ

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29
Q

first pass effect patho

A

oral drug absorbed through the alimentary canal, drugs go directly to the liver through the portal vein.
hepatic enzymes metabolize the drug, reducing the amount of active drug in the bloodstream

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30
Q

Pro-drugs

A

drugs that have no biologic activity itself, but once metabolized it becomes an active metabolite

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31
Q

precursor to the active drug

A

pro-drug

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32
Q

2 examples of pro-drugs

A

plavix and lovastatin

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33
Q

2 reasons for immediate release tab

A

quick onset
absorbs well in the acidic environment of stomach

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34
Q

2 reasons for enteric coating

A

slows drug to be dissolved in intestines rather than stomach
intestines have higher pH
helps preserve gastric mucosa

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35
Q

affinity

A

the attraction between a drug and a receptor

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36
Q

allosteric site

A

a binding site for substrates not active in initiating a response

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37
Q

biotransformation

A

metabolism or degradation of a drug from an active form to an inactive form

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38
Q

ligand

A

any chemical that interacts with a receptor

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39
Q

volume of distribution (Vd)

A

the extent of distribution of a drug in the body

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40
Q

high hepatic extraction ratio =>

A

low oral bioavailability

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41
Q

how does gastric emptying affect drug absorption

A

high rate of emptying hastens absorption and bioavailability in intestines

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42
Q

how does high fat meals and solid foods affect absorption

A

delays drugs initial delivery to intestinal absorption surfaces

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43
Q

how does decreased intestinal motility affect absorption and drug example

A

slowed peristalsis leads to greater absorption and bioavailability
prolongs contact time with intestinal surfaces (anticholinergics)

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44
Q

how does increased intestinal motility affect absorption and drug example

A

less absorption and bioavailability
shortens contact time with intestinal surfaces (laxatives)

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45
Q

how does blood flow affect pharmacokinetics

A

absorption and distribution

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46
Q

What route is affected by first pass effect

A

oral only

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47
Q

topical vs transdermal

A

topical is local absorption (does not cross the dermis)
transdermal is systemic delivery through the skin over time

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48
Q

examples of topical drugs

A

eye drops and topical steroids

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49
Q

3 things that affect distribution

A

blood flow to area
lipid vs water solubility
protein binding

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50
Q

protein binding pathophys

A

carrier proteins such as albumin bind to drug rendering it inactive or circulate unbound (free drug)

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51
Q

2 things that affect protein binding

A

affinity of drug for that protein and concentrations of both drug and protein

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52
Q

how does low albumin affect distribution

A

decreased protein binding, more free drug, higher activity of drug

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53
Q

drugs have higher and lower affinity for protein

A

drug with higher affinity may knock off a drug with lower affinity

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54
Q

why does INR increase when patients on coumadin take abx

A

abx have higher affinity for protein, knocks coumadin off protein, creating more free drug

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55
Q

lipid and water solubility affects

A

getting into the cell

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56
Q

phospholipid bilayer membrane acts as what

A

barriers, blocking or permitting the passage of various substances

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57
Q

Which type of compounds pass through a phospholipid bilayer readily and which has a harder time passing through?

A
  1. Hydrophobic (lipid soluble)
  2. Hydrophilic and ionized
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58
Q

4 other factors that affect distribution

A
  1. barrier integrity and strength
  2. size of drug molecule
  3. distance to travel from blood to cell
  4. pH
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59
Q

3 types of diffusion

A

Passive, facilitated, active

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60
Q

carrier proteins are utilized to transport larger molecules, from an area of higher concentration to lower

A

facilitated diffusion

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61
Q

requires energy, molecules move from lower concentration to higher concentration

A

active transport

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62
Q

metabolism

A

function of the body to change substances into water-soluble forms that will more readily be excreted
biotransformation of the drug from active form to inactive form

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63
Q

What organ is primarily responsible for metabolism

A

liver

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64
Q

phase one of metabolism

A

enzymatic processes that involve oxidation or reduction
drug is changed to form a more polar/water-soluble compound
hydrolysis

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65
Q

Phase two of metabolism

A

involves adding a conjugate to parent drug or phase 1 metabolized drug to further increase water solubility and enhance excretion

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66
Q

CVP how many enzymes are responsible for drug metabolism in 90% of cases

A

15

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67
Q

3 relationships drugs have with the CVP450 enzymatic system

A

substrate
inducer
inhibitor

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68
Q

CVP450 inducers meaning

A

stimulates the production of enzymes which increases the amount of enzymes available for metabolism

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69
Q

CYP450 inhibitors meaning

A

inhibits production of CYP enzymes, decreasing the metabolism of drugs and increasing circulating levels

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70
Q

3 drugs that induce CVP450

A

rifampin, phenytoin, st. johns wort

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71
Q

3 drugs that inhibit CVP450

A

grapefruit juice, azoles, protease inhibitors

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72
Q

3 factors that interfere with elimination

A

renal failure
hepatic failure
regular vs intermittent exercise

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73
Q

when is a drug considered fully cleared

A

after 4-5 half lives of the drug

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74
Q

how does renal failure interfere with elimination

A

increases the half life

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75
Q

how does hepatic disease interfere with elimination

A

impacts pro drugs and CVP450 enzymes, increases half live

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76
Q

how does regular vs intermittent exercise interfere with elimination

A

impacts blood flow, GI motility, and body temp

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77
Q

3 things that impact pharmacodynamics

A

receptor abundance (age-related)
receptor affinity (age-related)
post-receptor changes and sensitivities

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78
Q

4 involunatry function of ANS

A

thermoregulation
vascular contractility
heart and respiratory rates
digestion

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79
Q

2 voluntary function of SNS

A

movement and speech

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80
Q

sympathetic neurotransmitter

A

Norepinephrine

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81
Q

sympathetic receptors

A

Alpha 1&2
Beta 1&2

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82
Q

Alpha 1 receptor affects

A

smooth muscle

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83
Q

Alpha 2 receptor affects

A

brain, stem, spinal cord, and eye

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84
Q

Beta 1 receptor affects

A

myocardium

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85
Q

beta 2 receptor affects

A

lung

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86
Q

parasympathetic receptors

A

cholinergic and muscarinic receptors

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87
Q

parasympathetic neurotransmitter

A

ACH

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88
Q

What do ACH agonists do

A

cause contractions
increase secretions

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89
Q

what do anticholingercis do

A

block ACH
urinary retention
xerostomia
tachycardia

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90
Q

ED50 drug dose means

A

therapeutic effect in 50% of recipients

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91
Q

LD50 drug dose means

A

lethal dose in 50% of recipients

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92
Q

Therapeutic index =

A

LD50/ED50

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93
Q

type A adverse drug reaction

A

r/t pharmacologic action
side effects
mild hypersensitivity

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94
Q

type B adverse drug reaction

A

unusual or unanticipated action
hypersensitivity reaction

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95
Q

5 characteristics of neonatal absorption

A
  1. 80% water
  2. weakly alkaline gastric pH
  3. gastric motility differs (breastfed vs formula-fed)
  4. very thin stratum corneum
  5. poor muscle mass but great capillaries- absorption erratic
96
Q

how does gastric pH affect drug absorption

A

degree of ionization

97
Q

at what age is a child’s gastric acid output similar to an adult

A

2

98
Q

3 differences in neonatal metabolism and excretion

A

low albumin
Phase I and II metabolism delayed
low GFR
decreased GI enzymes(*lipase and amylase)

99
Q

until what age do you use weight-based dosing

A

88lbs or 18yo

100
Q

5 differences in the baby population

A

body water content decreases
body fat increases
CVP450 starts to work
GFR increases
thin stratum corneum

101
Q

At what age are the kidneys mature

A

2

102
Q

total daily dose for peds is measured in what

A

mg/kg/day

103
Q

What happens to blood vol in pregnancy

A

increases 30-50%

104
Q

what happens to serum albumin in pregnancy

A

decreases

105
Q

what happens to gastric pH in pregnancy

A

increases

106
Q

what happens to GI motility in pregnancy

A

decreases (elevated progesterone)

107
Q

4 factors affecting drug delivery in pregnant women

A

increased blood volume
decreased albumin
decreased intestinal motility
increased gastric acid

108
Q

3 factors promoting transfer of drugs to the placenta or

A
  1. lipid solubility
  2. smaller/lighter molecules
  3. unbound or free drug
109
Q

3 factors inhibiting transfer

A
  1. highly ionized molecules
  2. larger/heavier molecules
  3. drugs with high protein binding
110
Q

controlled trials in 1st trimester without fetal harm category

A

A

111
Q

folic acid and thyroid hormones are which category

A

A

112
Q

no RCTs in humans, animal RCTs showed no risk in 1st or later trimesters category

A

B

113
Q

PCN, Azithromycin, metformin, cyclobenzaprine, pantoprazole category

A

B

114
Q

No RCTs in women or animals or animal studies showed some adverse effects category

A

C

115
Q

ACE inhibitors, labetalol, amlodipine, gabapentin, tramadol, trazadone, and prednisone category

A

C

116
Q

evidence of human risk, benefits must be high to warrant use category

A

D

117
Q

sulfa drugs, ASA, losartan, benzos category

A

D

118
Q

studies in women or animals demonstrate abnormalities, contraindicated in anyone who may become pregnant category

A

X

119
Q

statins category

A

X

120
Q

warfarin category

A

X

121
Q

MTX category

A

X

122
Q

water content in elderly

A

decreased

123
Q

CYP450 in elderly

A

decreased

124
Q

1/2 lives of meds in elderly

A

increased

125
Q

Beers criteria

A

list of potentially inappropriate meds for use in older adults but are commonly prescribed
patients with Medicare part D may need to pay out of pocket

126
Q

Appetite suppressant drugs

A

benzphetamine
diethylpropion

127
Q

appetite suppressant mechanism of action

A

stimulation the hypothalamus to release NE which slows GI system

128
Q

glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist drug

A

liraglutide

129
Q

lipase inhibitor drug

A

orlistat

130
Q

Consideration with all weight-loss drugs

A

Schedule 3 or 4
contraindicated in pregnancy

131
Q

Orlistat mechanism of action

A

GI pancreatic lipase inhibitor
lowers the absorption of dietary fat by 30%

132
Q

liraglutide mechanism of action

A
  1. stimulates insulin secretion
  2. decreases glucagon secretion
  3. slows gastric emptying
133
Q

liraglutide black box warning

A

can cause medullary thyroid cancer and multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2

134
Q

2 combination drugs for weight management

A

phentermine/topiramate
naltrexone/bupropion

135
Q

phentermine/topiramate contraindications and why

A

MAOIs, hyperthyroidism, glaucoma
stimulates release of norepinephrine, increasing BP and may lead to HTN crisis

136
Q

naltrexone/bupropion boxed warning

A

suicidal ideation and neuropsychiatric events

137
Q

2 reasons immunizations rates drop

A

socioeconomically disadvantaged
antivaccinators due to fear of autism

138
Q

vaccination rates for 3y/o

A

90%

139
Q

vaccination rate for 18-64 y/o

A

33-70%

140
Q

which immunization is best for immunosuppressed kids

A

passive

141
Q

pneumoncoccal vaccine in adults with no previous vaccine

A

13 valent
1 year in between
23 valent

142
Q

which pneumococcal vaccine is for under 2

A

13

143
Q

pneumococcal vaccine for over 65

A

23

144
Q

who should receive flu vaccine

A

6mo and older

145
Q

who shouldn’t get the flu nasal spray

A

immunocompromised
healthcare workers
over 50
people who live with immunocompromised people

146
Q

What to do if someone has a severe reaction to vaccine

A

report to VAERS

147
Q

contraindications to receiving vaccine

A

acute febrile illness

148
Q

nicotine patho

A

bind to nicotinic receptors, central and peripheral nervous system stim, resp stim, skeletal muscle relaxation, epinephrine released, peripheral vasoconstriction, increased BP, HR, CO, and O2 consumption

149
Q

how does nicotine affect dopamine

A

increased in CNS, stimulation the reward system

150
Q

education to make sure NRT is effective

A

must stop smoking

151
Q

education for bupropion for smoking cessation

A

allow to smoke for 1st week, should be weaning off by the end of the week
takes a week to have a steady state of drug in the body

152
Q

how does bupropion help with smoking cessation

A

prevents withdraw symptoms

153
Q

how does varenicline help with smoking cessation

A

binds to subunit of nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
activates the reward system without nicotine

154
Q

naltrexone/bupropion contraindications and why

A

uncontrolled HTN, MAOIs (HTN crisis)
seizure disorders, bulimia, anorexia nervosa, drug/alc withdrawal (may precipitate withdrawal in opioid-dependent patients)

155
Q

3 drugs FDA approved for smoking cessation

A
  1. NRT
  2. Bupropion SR
  3. Varenicline (chantix)
156
Q

2 SE of bupropion SR

A

insomnia and dry mouth

157
Q

contraindication of bupropion SR

A

if pt already taking wellbutrin- may lead to OD or delirium

158
Q

varenicline SE

A

neuropsych disturbances (SI, anxiety, vivid dreams)
nausea
constipation
drowsiness

159
Q

When to follow up on smoking cessation therapy pts

A

4 weeks after quit date

160
Q

At what BMI should you recommend weight loss

A

> 30
25-30 with CVD risk factors (including elevated waist circumference)

161
Q

At what point should pharmacotherapy be recommended for weight loss?

A

BMI>30
>=27 with comorbidity
who are unable to lose weight or sustain weight loss successfully

162
Q

At what point should bariatric surgery be considered?

A

BMI>=40
or >=35 with comorbidity
unable to successfully lose weight with behavioral therapy with or without pharmacotherapy

163
Q

contraindications of medications used to treat otitis externa

A

herpes, fungal, or viral infection
perforated eardrum
caution in pregnancy/breastfeeding

164
Q

active immunization

A

administration or all or part of a microorganism that evokes an immune response that mimics the response of the body to natural infection

165
Q

passive immunization

A

administration of a preformed antibody

166
Q

who is passive immunization for

A
  1. patients have already been exposed or potential to be exposed to an infectious agent
  2. immunodeficiency
  3. during active disease states to help suppress the effects of a toxin or inflammatory response
167
Q

2 examples of passive immunization

A

rabies and hep B series

168
Q

How to diagnose Tobacco Use Disorder

A

need to meet 2 or more criteria:
1. tobacco taken in larger amounts over a longer period of time than intended
2. persistent desire to cut down or unsuccessful efforts have been made
3. significant amount of time spent on obtaining or using tobacco
4. craving exists
5. recurrent tobacco use results in failure to fulfill obligations/responsibilities
6. tobacco use continues despite it causing or contributing to arguments with others
7. tobacco use results in the individual giving up important activities
8. tobacco use recurs in physically hazardous situations
9. persistent tobacco use despite knowledge of having chronic tobacco-related physical or psychosocial problems
10. tolerance to tobacco exists (need for increased amount or diminished effect)
11. withdrawal occurs

169
Q

What is the fagerstrom tolerance test

A

point system 0-10
time it takes for a patient to have first cigarette of the day
number of cigarettes smoked per day

170
Q

what score on fagerstrom tolerance test indicates high level of physical dependence to nicotine

A

6-7
8-10 is VERY high

171
Q

contraindications for appetite suppressants and why

A

patients on MAOIs, CAD, arrhythmias, heart failure, stroke, uncontrolled HTN, hyperthyroid, glaucoma
stimulates the hypothalamus to release NE which increases BP and HR, potentially leading to HTN crisis and complications with the other diseases

172
Q

contraindications for lipase inhibitors and why

A

malabsorption syndrome, cholestasis
GI pancreatic lipase inhibitor which decreases the absorption of fat, potentially leading to too little absorption and malnutrition, GI upset, fatty stools
**may increase INR d/t decreased absorption of vitamin K

173
Q

a patient’s genetics are known to affect the metabolization of what 2 drugs

A

Plavix and Coumadin

174
Q

3 factors that promote drug transfer through the placenta

A

lipid solubility
smaller, lighter molecules
unbound/free drug

175
Q

3 factors that inhibit drug transfer through the placenta

A

highly ionized molecules
larger, heavier molecules
drugs that are highly protein bound

176
Q

dosing considerations in obese kids

A

if they weigh >40kg, weight-based dosing should be used unless it exceeds he recommended adult dose

177
Q

gastric emptying in neonates and infants

A

prolonged and can result of regurgitation of PO meds and irregular absorption

178
Q

breast-fed vs formula-fed infants GI system

A

breast-fed infants have a greater intestinal transit time and greater flora in their intestines

179
Q

relative absorptive surface area in duodenum in peds

A

greater relative size than adults which enhances drug absorption

180
Q

rectal absorption in young peds

A

drugs absorbed poorly due to poor sphincter control and frequent stools

181
Q

mucosal absorption in peds

A

greatly effective

182
Q

pulmonary absorption in peds

A

low Vt and increased RR which reduce drug delivery and absorption
may need adult dosing

183
Q

6 factors that affect drug distribution in peds

A
  1. vascular perfusion
  2. body composition (water vs fat)
  3. tissue-binding characteristics
  4. physicochemical properties of the drug
  5. plasma protein binding
  6. route
184
Q

neonates amount of water vs fat and effects on distribution

A

high water (75-80%), decreased fat
greater volume of distribution

185
Q

body comp changes in infants to puberty

A

fat increases and total body water decreases

186
Q

albumin levels in peds and how it affects distribution

A

decreased
increased free drug

187
Q

treatment of chlamydial conjunctivitis in newborns

A

erythromycin

188
Q

first line treatment of nongonococcal/nonchlamydial bacterial conjunctivitis

A

erythromycin ointment or polymyxin B trimethoprim

189
Q

3 most common organisms causing bacterial conjunctivitis

A

staph aureus
strep pneumonias
haemophilus influenzae

190
Q

second line treatment of nongonococcal/nonchlamydial bacterial conjunctivitis

A

ophthalmic flurorquinolone
moxifloxacin or ofloxacin

191
Q

first line treatment for mild dry eye disease

A

artificial tears (genteal, systane)

192
Q

first line treatment for moderate/severe dry eye disease

A

PF artificial tear substitute

193
Q

first line treatment for Sjogren’s

A

cholinergic agonists
oral pilocarpine or cevimeline

194
Q

second line treatment for dry eye disease (3)

A
  1. cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion
  2. lifitegrast
  3. topical corticosteroids
195
Q

MOA of cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion

A

increase aqueous tear production, decrease ocular irritation by preventing T cells from activating and releasing cytokines

196
Q

4 SE of cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion

A

ocular burning
discharge
itching
blurred vision

197
Q

lifitegrast MOA

A

block interaction of cell surface proteins LFA-1 and intracellular adhesion molecule 1 and may inhibit T cell related inflammation

198
Q

2 SE of lifitegrast

A

taste alteration and decreased visual acuity

199
Q

considerations for topical steroids

A

2 weeks max
long-term use is associated with ocular infection, cataract formation, and glaucoma

200
Q

MOA of prostaglandin analogs

A

reduce IOP by improving uveoscleral outflow of aqueous humor

201
Q

MOA of beta blockers for glaucoma

A

reduce adenylyl cyclase activity which reduces the production of aqueous humor in ciliary body

202
Q

MOA of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

A

Think about diamox for elevated HCO3!!
inhibits carbonic anhydrase which reduces the production of bicarb in the ciliary body. This decreases movement of sodium and water into the posterior chamber of the eye, therefore less aqueous fluid is generated

203
Q

MOA of adrenergic agonists

A

activates the presynaptic alpha 2 receptors, inhibiting the release of NE which decreases the activated of postsynaptic beta receptors in the ciliary epithelium, reducing the formation of aqueous humor

204
Q

MOA of cholinergic agonists

A

stimulates the parasympathetic muscarinic receptor sites to increase the outflow of aqueous humor through trabecular meshwork

205
Q

MOA of Rho kinase inhibitors

A

increase aqueous humor outflow by relaxing cells that line Schlemm’s canal, reducing resistance

206
Q

contraindications of ophthalmic beta blockers (5)

A

sinus brady
heart block
CHF
cardiogenic shock
severe COPD and asthma (nonselective agents)

207
Q

SE of ophthalmic beta blockers (7)

A

bradycardia
hypotension
worsening CHF
heart block
bronchospasm
hallucination
depression

208
Q

important patient education regarding glaucoma ophthalmic solutions (5)

A

wash hands
remove contacts
apply to inner aspect of lower eyelid
don’t let tip of container touch any part of the eye
separate drops by at least 10 mins

209
Q

dosing of amoxicillin and amoxicillin-clav for children with acute otitis media

A

80-90mg/kg/day PO BID

210
Q

dosing of ceftriaxone for children with acute otitis media

A

50 mg/kg/day IM qd 1-3 days

211
Q

dosing of cefdinir for children with acute otitis media

A

14mg/kg/day PO BID

212
Q

dosing of cefpodoxime for children with acute otitis media

A

10mg/kg/day PO QD

213
Q

dosing of cefuroxime for children with acute otitis media

A

30mg/kg/day PO BID

214
Q

duration of abx for children <2 with acute otitis media

A

10 days

215
Q

duration of abx for children 2-5 with acute otitis media

A

7 days

216
Q

duration of abx for children >6 with acute otitis media

A

5 days

217
Q

otitis media first line treatment

A

high dose amox
after 48-72 hours of obs if >6mo

218
Q

otitis media 2nd line treatment

A

augmentin
ceftriaxone IM if augmentin fails

219
Q

otitis externa first line treatment

A

fluroquinolone gtts (ofloxacin vs ciprofloxacin-dex)

220
Q

otitis externa second line treatment

A

neomycin/polymixin gtts

221
Q

otitis media treatment of PCN allergy

A

cephalosporins:
cefuroxime
cefinir
cefpodoximine
ceftriaxone (if unable to take PO or treatment failure)

222
Q

2 medications no longer recommended d/t ineffectiveness for otitis media

A

NO MYCINS
macrolides (azithromycin, clarithromycin, and erythromycin) and clindamycin

223
Q

treatment for bacterial blepharitis

A

erythromycin ointment

224
Q

standard treatment for blepharitis (nonpharm)

A

eyelid hygiene and warm compresses

225
Q

erythromycin ointment contraindication

A

corneal abrasion (delayed healing)

226
Q

2 SE of erythromycin ointment

A

ocular irritation and blurry vision

227
Q

treatment of MGD blepharitis

A

eyelid massage and warm compress to remove excess oil, eyelid cleaner/baby shampoo
refer to eye care specialist

228
Q

treatment of seborric blepharitis

A

refer to eye care specialist

229
Q

first line treatment for glaucoma

A

prostaglandins

230
Q

second line treatment for glaucoma

A

switch or add beta blocker

231
Q

third line treatment for glaucoma

A

add carbonic anhydrase inhibitor or adrenergic agonist

232
Q

prostaglandin suffix

A

-prost

233
Q

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor suffix

A

-mide

234
Q

adrenergic agonist suffix

A

-idine

235
Q

nitric oxide donating prostaglandin analog drug

A

latanoprostene

236
Q

cholinergic agonist drug

A

pilocarpine

237
Q

rho kinase inhibitor drug

A

netarsudil

NU 560 Pharmacotherapeutics (5 decks)

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